Exam 3 Study Guide - Immunology & Serology, Exams of Immunology

Download Exam 3 Study Guide - Immunology & Serology and more Exams Immunology in PDF only on Docsity!

Exam 3 Study Guide - Immunology &

Serology

hypersensitivity - ANS when the immune system's response or reaction against a perceived threat to the host is more damaging to the hose than the threat itself; an immune overreaction sensitization - ANS occurs when the immune system first "sees", or responds to a foreign antigen effector phase - ANS all subsequent exposures (2nd, 3rd, 4th, etc.) anaphylactic - ANS a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction allergen - ANS harmless antigens that stimulate an IgE response (can be localized or systemic) histamine - ANS the primary compound responsible for allergy "symptoms" (runny nose, itchy eyes, skin irritation, etc) cytotoxic - ANS when cells within the body are destroyed by antibodies, with or without activation of the entire complement cascade arthus reaction - ANS sensitized individuals are injected intradermally resulting in localized reaction Type I - ANS IgE mediated; anaphylaxis asthma, bee stings Type II - ANS Antibody mediated; Cell or surface bound antibody hemolytic reactions - transfusions reactions, HDFN

Type III - ANS Immune complex mediated Serum sickness, arthritis Type IV - ANS Cell mediated; Delayed type hypersensitivity contact dermatitis, chronic asthma IgE - ANS In an anaphylactic response, the immune system overproduces what immunoglobulin? mast cells, basophils - ANS IgE binds to ____ ____ and _________ "activating" them and causing them to release their granules containing mediators such as histamine hepatitis - ANS inflammation of the liver; specific cause can vary (viruses, alcohol, drugs, toxins, autoimmunity) jaundice - ANS yellowing of skin and whites of eyes hepatotropic - ANS viruses that specifically seek out cells of the liver nonhepatotropic - ANS viruses that DON'T primarily target the cells of the liver but still can infect parts of it through general viral infection ALL OF THESE VIRUSES ARE DNA VIRUSES heterophile antibody - ANS an antibody that will cross react with antigens that are different from those responsible for their production

• produced during an EBV infection in humans
• can also be made in horses, sheep, and cows

Forssman Antibody - ANS low titers of heterophile antibodies retrovirus - ANS RNA is transcribed into DNA instead of the other way around; AKA reverse transcription seroconversion - ANS the period of time during which HIV antibodies develop and become detectable symptoms of Hepatitis - ANS nausea, abdominal pain, fever, malaise, dark urine, clay-colored stool, jaundice lab results of hepatitis - ANS elevated ALT, AST, bilirubin, and PT RNA - ANS Is Hepatitis A an RNA or DNA virus? fecal-oral - ANS What is the mode of transmission for Hepatitis A? MsM and international travelers - ANS Who is at risk for contracting Hepatitis A? EIA/ELISA - ANS How do we test for Hepatitis A? true - ANS True or False There IS a vaccine available for Hepatitis A. It contains killed Hepatitis A Viruses that triggers the body to mount an immune response resulting in IMMUNITY DNA - ANS Is Hepatitis B an RNA or DNA virus?

blood-borne/body fluids - ANS What is the mode of transmission for Hepatitis B? MsM, IV drug users, medical personnel - ANS Who is most at risk for contracting Hepatitis B? EIA/ELISA - ANS How do we test for Hepatitis B? true - ANS True or false There is a vaccine available for Hepatitis B. It contains protein from the HBsAg that triggers the body to mount an immune response resulting in IMMUNITY. Hepatitis B vaccine protects against BOTH B and D RNA - ANS Is Hepatitis C a DNA or an RNA virus? blood-borne/body fluids - ANS What is the mode of transmission for Hepatitis C? MsM, IV drug users, and blood transfusions prior to 1992 - ANS Who is most at risk for contracting Hepatitis C? true - ANS True or False There is NO vaccine available for hepatitis C enveloped virus - ANS viral nucleocapsid surround by lipoprotein envelope derived from host cell - structure of Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C

HBsAg - ANS (Hepatitis B Surface Antigen) the first seen in active infection; its presence indicates that the person is infectious anti-HBsAg - ANS in acute infections, HBsAg disappears and the patient develops... chronic - ANS in ______ infections, the HBsAg remains elevated Anti-HBc - ANS (antibody to hepatitis B core antigen) indicates previous and ongoing infection IgM - ANS indicates acute infection (recent/still ongoing infection) IgG w/o HBsAg - ANS indicates past infection IgG w/ HBsAg - ANS indicates chronic infection Anti-HBs - ANS indicates RECOVERY and IMMUNITY - will be the ONLY antibody present in people who have received the Hep B Vaccine Epstein-Barr Virus - ANS EBV DNA - ANS Is EBV an RNA or a DNA virus? herpesvirus family - ANS What family does EBV belong to? symptoms of EBV - ANS malaise, sore throat, splenomegaly, high lymph count with reactive lymphocytes on peripheral smear

transmission of EBV - ANS from person to person through direct contact with the saliva of an infected person (sharing food, drink, straws, etc). diagnosis of EBV - ANS patient serum is mixed with guinea pig kidney (GPK) to absorb (remove) Forssman Antibodies from the patient's sample leaving on the Infectious Mononucleosis antibodies to agglutinate with the sheep RBC's monospot -> heterophile ABs -> GPK -> sheep's blood -> agglutination diseases associated with EBV - ANS Burkitt's Lymphoma, infectious mononucleosis Cytomegalovirus - ANS CMV DNA - ANS is CMV a DNA or an RNA virus? herpesvirus family - ANS What family does CMV belong to? symptoms of CMV - ANS "cold-like" symptoms in healthy individuals dangerous for newborns and the immunocompromised can cause hearing loss and intellectual disabilities transmission of CMV - ANS direct contact; congenital, transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, urine, transplant diagnosis of CMV - ANS viral culture, latex agglutination, PCR, AB tests (EIA/ELISA) disorders of CMV - ANS mental retardation, hearing loss, ADHD, vision impairment, autism

Varicella Zoster - ANS VZV Varicella - ANS chicken pox; children zoster - ANS shingles; primarily adults herpesvirus family - ANS What family is VZV a part of? symptoms of VZV - ANS fever, headache, loss of appetite, tiredness, sore throat, irritability, and blistering rash transmission of VZV - ANS airborne, respiratory secretions, direct and indirect contact diagnosis of VZV - ANS immunofluorescence, PCR, EIA/ELISA, Tzanck Smear Herpes Simplex Virus - ANS HSV (Type I and Type II) DNA - ANS Is HSV a DNA or an RNA virus? herpesvirus family - ANS What family does HSV belong to? symptoms of HSV I - ANS cold sores; congenital spread can cause encephalitis symptoms of HSV II - ANS genital herpes and STI; congenital spread can cause encephalitis transmission of HSV I - ANS contact with the virus on sores, saliva or surfaces in or around the mouth

transmission of HSV II - ANS sexual contact on genital surfaces diagnosis of HSV (I and II) - ANS PCR, Viral Culture, EIA/Elisa, Tzanck Smear RNA - ANS Is Rubella a DNA or an RNA virus? Togaviridae - ANS What family does the Rubella virus belong to? transmission of rubella - ANS respiratory droplets/secretions symptoms of rubella - ANS fever, swollen glands around head and neck, rash, cold-like symptoms, runny nose diagnosis of rubella - ANS ELISA, hemagglutination, latex agglutination disorders/diseases of rubella - ANS higher risk groups include women of childbearing age, hospital employees, and children that are not vaccinated congenital rubella infections may result in stillborn birth, or heart defects properties of HIV - ANS virus responsible for AIDs is an enveloped retrovirus the HIV protein gp120 attaches to CD4 antigen receptors on the host's cells blood or body fluids; sti - ANS How is HIV transmitted?

HIV 1st phase - ANS general malaise HIV latent phase - ANS patient undergoes seroconversion (develop measurable antibodies) - this is when a person is considered HIV positive HIV 2nd phase - ANS early AIDs: CD4 cells are progressively destroyed HIV 3rd phase - ANS full-blown AIDs = CD4 T-cell count <200 cells/uL or <15% of total lymphocyte population death usually results from a systemic infection as a result of being immunocompromised common causes of death for HIV patients - ANS infections from Cryptococcus Neoformans, Pneumocystis carinii, and the cancer known as Kaposi's Sarcoma diagnosis of HIV - ANS ELISA, Capture/Sandwich Assay to detect HIV antigen (p24), Western Blot, PCR can be used to amplify the virus chancre - ANS painless ulcer, usually heals by itself gumma - ANS tumor full of lymphocytes and plasma cells; lesions form on bones and skin Hutchinson's Triad - ANS a triad of symptoms that includes Hutchinson's teeth, Interstitial Keratitis (corneal scarring due to chronic inflammation of the corneal stroma), and deafness reagin - ANS an antibody targeting cardiolipin, which is a lipid generated from damaged cells Erthma Chronicum Migrans - ANS a rash that looks like a red dot with a large, swollen ring expanding from it (like a bullseye)

aspergillus - ANS ouchterlony double immunodiffusion for antibody; testing method for fungal agent candida - ANS immunodiffusion and counter immunodiffusion for antibody; testing method for fungal agent cryptococcus neoformans - ANS latex agglutination for antigen; testing method for fungal agent toxoplasma gondii - ANS a parasite that causes toxoplasmosis due to the ingestion of an infective cyst cats - ANS What are the host for toxoplasma gondii? symptoms of toxoplasmosis - ANS can lead to CNS issues and is especially dangerous to fetuses and the immunocompromised diagnosis of toxoplasmosis - ANS EIA/ELISA, IFA (Immunofluorescent Assay) TORCH - ANS T- toxoplasma O- other R- Rubella C- CMV H- Herpes pregnant women - ANS Who is TORCH testing typically performed on? four-fold - ANS there must be at least a _____-______ increase in the titer for it to be clinically significant

increases, acute - ANS take the patient's blood now and measure the AB titer, then take blood again in 2 weeks and measure AB titer again If it __________, the patient is in ______(active) stages of infection decreases, convalescent - ANS take the patient's blood now and measure the AB titer, then take blood again in 2 weeks and measure AB titer again If it _________, the patient is in the _____________(ending) stages of infection Treponema Pallidum - ANS What causes Syphilis? primary stage of syphilis - ANS characterized by a chancre (painless ulcer) that will heal by itself secondary stage of syphilis - ANS "cold-like" symptoms and a rash; people who are in this stage are highly infectious latent stage of syphilis - ANS no symptoms; patients in this stage are not very infectious (except in the case of pregnant women) tertiary stage of syphilis - ANS characterized by the development of gummas, cardiovascular problems, and neurosyphilis neurosyphilis - ANS CNS, meningitis, degeneration of the spinal cord, dementia; occurs 10-30 years after secondary syphilis congenital syphilis - ANS women in the early stages of syphilis through the latent stage of syphilis can pass it onto the fetus results in 40% fetal mortality rate

babies develop a rash on the palms of their hands and the soles of their feet treatment of syphilis - ANS antibiotics (penicillin) diagnosis of syphilis - ANS Non-Treponemal Methods, RPR, Treponemal Methods, Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test (FTA-ABS) non-treponemal methods - ANS antibodies to components of cells that arise as consequence to cellular damage (screen) treponemal methods - ANS antibodies that are specific to T. Pallidum (confirmatory) Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS) - ANS direct examination fluorescence microscopy RPR treponemal test method - ANS the reagents (cardiolipin, lecithin and cholesterol, charcoal) form a complex with the reagin which results in MACROscopic flocculation of the charcoal VDRL - ANS the reagents (cardiolipin, lecithin and cholesterol - there is no charcoal to enhance the visualization of the flocculation) form a complex with the reagin which results in MICROscopic flocculation B. burgdorferi - ANS What is the causative agent of Lyme disease? mouse, white tail deer - ANS What is the reservoir for Lyme Disease? tick - ANS What is the vector for Lyme Disease?

symptoms of Lyme Disease - ANS Erythema Chronicum Migrans - a rash that looks like a red dot with a large, swollen ring expanding from it (like a bullseye) Spreads to the joints and the CNS diagnosis of Lyme Disease - ANS RPR to rule out Syphilis ELISA Western Blot = Confirmatory testing Streptococcus pyogenes - ANS What is the causative agent of strep throat? diseases associated with strep throat - ANS scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis bacteria - ANS During a strep infection the _______ produce exotoxins, or exoantigens (Streptolysin-O (ASO), DNase-B, Hyaluronidase exotoxins - ANS cause an immune response leading to the formation of antibodies against the exotoxin diagnosis of strep - ANS ELISA, latex agglutination, and culture neutralization assay interpretation - ANS ≤ 166 Todd units = normal no reaction - ANS Remember: in neutralization assays if the patient has the antibody it will NEUTRALIZE the antigen and there will be ____ ___________