FAA Oral Questions General and Airframe questions with correct answers, Exams of Engineering

Download FAA Oral Questions General and Airframe questions with correct answers and more Exams Engineering in PDF only on Docsity! FAA Oral Questions General and Airframe questions with correct answers 1. Describe the result of adding a large positive number and a smaller negative number. CORRECT ANSWER The result is a smaller positive number, and is the same as ignoring the signs and subtracting the smaller number from the larger. General Ch. 1 2. How do you convert a fraction into a decimal? CORRECT ANSWER Divide the top number (numerator) by the bottom number (denominator). General Ch. 1 3. What is the key step that must be performed in order to add or subtract unlike fractions? CORRECT ANSWER You must find the lowest (least) common denominator. General Ch. 1 4. How do you divide one fraction by another? CORRECT ANSWER You invert the divisor and multiply the numerators together and the denominators together. General Ch. 1 5. How can you convert a decimal into a percent? CORRECT ANSWER (1) Multiply the decimal by 100 and add the percent sign. (2) Move the decimal point two places to the right and add the percent sign. General Ch. 1 6. How do you convert a fraction into a percent? CORRECT ANSWER Convert it to a decimal, move the decimal point two places to the right and add the percent sign. General Ch. 1 7. How do you change a decimal into the nearest equivalent fraction? CORRECT ANSWER Multiply the decimal by the desired denominator. The result becomes the numerator in the fraction. General Ch. 1 8. What are two different ways that a ratio may be expressed? CORRECT ANSWER (1) As a fraction. (2) By placing a colon (:) between the two numbers. (3) By using the word "to" between the two numbers. General Ch. 1 9. What is a proportion? CORRECT ANSWER A statement of equality between two or more ratios. General Ch. 1 General Ch. 2 4. Work is the product of what two factors? CORRECT ANSWER Force and the distance moved. General Ch. 2 5. What are the parts of a lever? CORRECT ANSWER A rigid bar and a pivot point called the fulcrum. General Ch. 2 6. A wheelbarrow is an example of what class lever? CORRECT ANSWER A second-class lever. General Ch. 2 7. Are all three states of matter affected by thermal expansion and if so, which state is affected most? CORRECT ANSWER All three states are affected, with gases being affected the most. General Ch. 2 8. What is a British Thermal Unit? CORRECT ANSWER The amount of heat energy required to change the temperature of 1 pound of water 1 degree Fahrenheit. General Ch. 2 9. Name the three methods of heat transfer. CORRECT ANSWER Conduction, convection, and radiation. General Ch. 2 10. What term defines the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases? CORRECT ANSWER Absolute zero. General Ch. 2 11. Can liquids be compressed? CORRECT ANSWER No, liquids are generally considered incompressible. General Ch. 2 12. What are the customary units used to express hydraulic or pneumatic pressure in the United States? CORRECT ANSWER Pounds per square inch. General Ch. 2 13. Describe how pressure is transmitted when a force is applied to a confined liquid. CORRECT ANSWER Pressure is transmitted equally in all directions. General Ch. 2 14. What formula expresses the relationship between force, pressure, and area? CORRECT ANSWER Force equals area times pressure. General Ch. 2 15. What is the approximate speed of sound at sea level on a standard day? CORRECT ANSWER 661 knots or 340 meters per second. General Ch. 2 16. What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level on a standard day? CORRECT ANSWER 29.92 inches of Mercury or 1013.2 millibars. General Ch. 2 17. On a standard day at sea level, what is the value for temperature? CORRECT ANSWER 59°F or 15°C. General Ch. 2 18. What are the factors that determine density altitude? CORRECT ANSWER Temperature and atmospheric pressure. General Ch. 2 19. What is the term used to describe the ratio between the amount of moisture actually present in the atmosphere as compared to the amount the air could hold if it were completely saturated? CORRECT ANSWER Relative humidity. General Ch. 3 3. What are the three elements of Ohm's law? CORRECT ANSWER Voltage, current, and resistance. General Ch. 3 4. How would you write Ohm's law as an equation? CORRECT ANSWER E = I X R, R = E / I, I = E / R. General Ch. 3 5. If the resistance in a DC circuit remains the same but the voltage doubles, what happens to the amount of current flowing in the circuit? CORRECT ANSWER It also doubles. General Ch. 3 6. In DC circuits, what unit measures power? CORRECT ANSWER Watts. General Ch. 3 7. What three elements are required to form an electrical circuit? CORRECT ANSWER A source of electrical energy, a load or resistance to use the electricity, and wires or conductors to connect the source to the load. General Ch. 3 8. DC circuits can take one of three forms or types. What are they? CORRECT ANSWER Series, parallel, and complex (or series-parallel). General Ch. 3 9. A 24-volt lead acid battery has how many cells? CORRECT ANSWER Twelve. General Ch. 3 10. A fully charged lead-acid battery has a specific gravity that varies between what two values? CORRECT ANSWER 1.275 and 1.300. General Ch. 3 11. You must apply a correction to the specific gravity reading of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery when the temperature is outside of what two values? CORRECT ANSWER Whenever the temperature is less than 70°F or more than 90°F. General Ch. 3 12. What is the reason for having separate facilities for storing and servicing nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries? CORRECT ANSWER The electrolyte in the two types of batteries is chemically opposite and the fumes from one type can contaminate the electrolyte of the other type. General Ch. 3 13. The state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery cannot be determined by measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte for what reason? CORRECT ANSWER There is no significant change in the specific gravity of the electrolyte as the battery is charged or discharged. General Ch. 3 14. What is the principal advantage of AC current over DC current? CORRECT ANSWER Power can be transmitted over long distances more efficiently and with smaller wires because the voltage can be easily increased or decreased by a transformer. General Ch. 3 15. What are the three causes of opposition to current flow in an AC current? CORRECT ANSWER Resistance, inductive reactance, and capacitive reactance. General Ch. 3 16. Define inductance. CORRECT ANSWER An induced voltage which is opposite in direction to the applied voltage. General Ch. 3 17. What component creates capacitance in AC circuits? CORRECT ANSWER A capacitor. General Ch. 5 7. Describe the appearance of lines used to show hidden views, alternate positions and the middle of symmetrical objects, and give their proper name. CORRECT ANSWER Hidden views are shown with hidden lines, which are short, evenly spaced dashes. Alternate positions are shown with phantom lines made up of light, alternating long dashes and two short dashes. Center lines, consisting of alternating long and short dashes, show the middle of symmetrical objects. General Ch. 5 8. How can you determine if a drawing has been changed? CORRECT ANSWER A record of the changes is listed either in a revision block or in ruled columns, which may be in a corner of the drawing or next to the title block. General Ch. 5 9. How are dimensions shown on aircraft drawings, and what is their purpose? CORRECT ANSWER Dimension lines are usually solid and generally broken at the midpoint for the insertion of the measurement. The provide a means to accurately represent the size of an object. General Ch. 5 10. What is the difference between an "allowance" and a "tolerance"? CORRECT ANSWER An allowance is the difference between the nominal dimension and the maximum and minimum permissible sizes. The tolerance is the difference between the extreme permissible dimensions, which may be found by adding the plus and minus allowances. General Ch. 5 11. What is meant by "clearance" when used on aircraft drawings? CORRECT ANSWER An allowable dimension between two parts. General Ch. 5 12. What kinds of information about an aircraft drawing can be found in the title block? CORRECT ANSWER The part or assembly name, drawing size, scale, date, company name, name or initials of the people responsible for creating or approving the drawing. General Ch. 5 13. What information is contained in a "bill of materials"? CORRECT ANSWER A list of the materials and parts needed to fabricate or assemble the component or system shown in the drawing. General Ch. 5 1. If an aircraft is loaded so that the aft C.G. limit is exceeded, what undesirable flight characteristic is likely to result? CORRECT ANSWER The aircraft will be tail-heavy and may be unable to recover from a stall or spin. General Ch. 6 2. If all the records for an aircraft are missing, how would you determine the empty weight and empty weight C.G.? CORRECT ANSWER The aircraft would have to be weighed, and new weight and balance records would have to be prepared. General Ch. 6 3. Define "tare weight" and describe how it is handled when weighing an aircraft. CORRECT ANSWER Tare weight is the weight of anything on the scales that is not part of the aircraft. It must be subtracted from the scale reading to determine the net weight of the airplane. General Ch. 6 4. If a piece of equipment such as a radio is added to an aircraft, how can you determine the effect on weight and balance without re-weighing the aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER If the weight and balance records are up to date, a new weight and C.G. location can be determined by computation. General Ch. 6 5. Why is control of the weight and balance of an aircraft important? CORRECT ANSWER To provide maximum safety. General Ch. 6 6. What is the datum of an aircraft and what is its function? CORRECT ANSWER The datum is an imaginary vertical plane at right angles to the longitudinal axis of the airplane. It is the reference point from which all horizontal measurements are taken. General Ch. 6 17. How should you account for fuel when weighing an aircraft to determine weight and balance? CORRECT ANSWER Either drain the fuel system until only unusable fuel remains, or fill the tanks full and subtract out the weight of the useable fuel. General Ch. 6 18. Where are leveling instructions found, and describe one method of leveling an aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER Leveling instructions are found in the Type Certificate Data Sheets. An aircraft may be leveled by using a spirit level at specified points, or an aircraft may be leveled by using a plumb bob from a designated point along with a leveling scale of protractor. General Ch. 6 19. Define the term "Mean Aerodynamic Chord" or MAC. CORRECT ANSWER Mean Aerodynamic Chord is the chord drawn through the center of the wing plan area. General Ch. 6 20. Describe the two most common ways of showing the C.G. location and/or C.G. range. CORRECT ANSWER In inches from the datum or in percent of MAC. General Ch. 6 21. What is the purpose of an aircraft loading graph? CORRECT ANSWER It is a method for determining how to distribute the load so as to keep the C.G. within allowable limits. General Ch. 6 22. What is ballast, and why would you use it in an airplane? CORRECT ANSWER Ballast is weight added to an airplane to bring its C.G. into the allowable or desirable range. General Ch. 6 23. Installation of several new radios in the nose of an aircraft causes the forward C.G. limit to be exceeded. How can you correct this problem without removing the new equipment? CORRECT ANSWER Ballast may be installed in the tail to move the C.G. aft. General Ch. 6 24. How does the C.G. range of a helicopter compare to that of a fixed-wing airplane? CORRECT ANSWER Helicopters typically have a much smaller C.G. range. General Ch. 6 1. How do you work harden a piece of metal? CORRECT ANSWER By cold working the metal. General Ch. 7 2. Describe the primary difference between a thermosetting and a thermoplastic resin. CORRECT ANSWER A thermosetting resin doesn't soften when heated and chars or burns rather than melting. Thermoplastic resins become soft and pliable when heated, and harden when cooled. General Ch. 7 3. Explain how thermoplastic and thermosetting resins are commonly used in modern aircraft. CORRECT ANSWER Plexiglass is a thermoplastic resin commonly used for windshields and windows. Thermosetting resins are most often used as the matrix material in composite structures. General Ch. 7 4. Name one of the types of resin commonly used as a matrix material for aircraft composite laminates. CORRECT ANSWER Polyester resin or Epoxy resin. General Ch. 7 5. What are some of the materials that are commonly used as the reinforcing component in a composite structure? CORRECT ANSWER Fiberglass, Aramid (Kevlar), Graphite (Carbon) fiber, linen, and paper. General Ch. 7 6. What are the reasons that alloy steel that is responsive to heat treatment is usually less suitable for welding? CORRECT ANSWER It may become brittle and lose its ductility in the area of the weld. 1. What type of precision measuring instruments can be used to measure the outside dimensions of aircraft parts? CORRECT ANSWER Outside micrometers and vernier calipers. General Ch. 9 2. For what reasons should a micrometer be periodically calibrated? CORRECT ANSWER If dropped, it's accuracy may be affected, OR If the spindle is over- tightened, the frame may be sprung, OR Continually sliding objects between the anvil and the spindle may wear the surfaces. General Ch. 9 1. What are the two types of fluid lines commonly found in aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER Rigid metal lines and flexible hoses. General Ch. 10 2. Describe the method of classifying metal tube according to size. CORRECT ANSWER Metal tubing is sized according to wall thickness and outside diameter. Outside diameter is measured in 1/16th inch increments. General Ch. 10 3. When installing stainless steel tubing, what type of fitting should be used? CORRECT ANSWER Stainless steel fittings. General Ch. 10 4. What is the function of the sleeve on a flared-tube fitting? CORRECT ANSWER The nut fits over the sleeve and draws the sleeve and the tubing flare tightly against the male fitting to form the seal. General Ch. 10 5. Describe two types of flares commonly used on aircraft tubing. CORRECT ANSWER The single flare and the double flare. General Ch. 10 6. How can you determine if a fitting is an AN type rather than an AC type? CORRECT ANSWER AN fittings have a shoulder between the flare cone and the end of the threads, AC fittings do not. General Ch. 10 7. What are the most significant differences between AN and AC fittings? CORRECT ANSWER Sleeve length, thread pitch, and the shoulder between the threads and the flare cone on AN fittings. General Ch. 10 8. What are the names of the parts of a flareless tube fitting? CORRECT ANSWER The nut and the ferrule or sleeve. General Ch. 10 9. How do you tell a flareless fitting from a flare-type fitting? CORRECT ANSWER Flareless fittings don't have a flare cone and there is no space between the threads and the end of the fitting. General Ch. 10 10. What is the effect of over-tightening a flare type fitting? CORRECT ANSWER The sealing surface may be damaged or the flare cut off. General Ch. 10 11. In addition to being securely clamped, what is an additional requirement for installing metal fuel, oil, and hydraulic lines? CORRECT ANSWER The lines must be electrically bonded to the structure. General Ch. 10 12. What are some of the important advantages of Teflon tubing? CORRECT ANSWER It is compatible with nearly every liquid, has a broad operating temperature range, low resistance to fluid flow, and has a very long shelf life and service life. General Ch. 10 13. Describe the identification markings commonly found on flexible hoses. CORRECT ANSWER A lay line, identification such as Mil spec number, the manufacturer's name or symbol, the hose size, and a date code. 3. What are some of the non-destructive testing methods that may be used in aluminum parts? CORRECT ANSWER Visual, due penetrant, eddy current, ultrasonic testing, and radiography. General Ch. 11 4. What process occurs during the preparation stage of a dye penetrant inspection when the penetrating liquid is applied, and then removed from a cracked part? CORRECT ANSWER The penetrant enters the crack by capillary action and remains there until made visible by the developer. General Ch. 11 5. A correctly made butt weld will have what bead width and how much penetration? CORRECT ANSWER The bead width should be 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal and there must be 100% penetration. General Ch. 11 6. What telltale characteristics are evidence of a cold weld? CORRECT ANSWER A cold weld has rough, irregular edges that are not feathered into the base metal and has variations in the penetrating amounts. General Ch. 11 7. The penetration of a fillet weld should be what percentage of the thickness of the base metal? CORRECT ANSWER 25 to 50 percent. General Ch. 11 8. Describe the basic steps for conducting a magnetic particle inspection. CORRECT ANSWER Magnetize the part, then coat the surface with ferromagnetic particles. If a defect of discontinuity is present, the particles align with the discontinuity forming a visible pattern. General Ch. 11 1. Is there any requirement for cleaning an aircraft prior to an annual or 100 hour inspection? CORRECT ANSWER It is not only good, common sense, but it is a legal requirement as specified in FAR part 43. General Ch. 12 2. Discuss the general precautions that should be observed when washing an airplane. CORRECT ANSWER Avoid or protect areas, which may be damaged or contaminated, such as: Pitot and static ports, hinges, sealed areas, and bearings. General Ch. 12 3. What are some of the more common light-duty cleaning agents? CORRECT ANSWER Soap or detergents and water. General Ch. 12 4. What materials are commonly used as heavy duty cleaners? CORRECT ANSWER Solvents and emulsion. General Ch. 12 5. What are the preferred cleaners for plastic surface such as windshields? CORRECT ANSWER Mild soap and water or a manufacturer approved cleaner. General Ch. 12 6. What type of cleaning agents should be used to remove grease, oil, or fuel from aircraft tires? CORRECT ANSWER Soap and water. General Ch. 12 7. Give at least three examples of the factors that cause or influence corrosion. CORRECT ANSWER (1) The environmental conditions. (2) The presence of dissimilar metals. (3) The type of metal. (4) The presence of electrolytes and/or contaminants. (5) The condition of protective coating. General Ch. 12 8. Name at least three forms of corrosion. CORRECT ANSWER (1) Surface. (2) Intergranular. (3) Filliform. (4) Dissimilar metal (or galvanic). (5) Oxidation. (6) Pitting. (7) Stress. (8) Fretting. General Ch. 12 9. Name at least one cause of filliform corrosion. CORRECT ANSWER (1) Improper or incomplete curing of a wash primer prior to painting. (2) Failure to completely wash off acidic surface contamination. 19. For what reason should you avoid cleaning anodized aluminum surfaces with aluminum metal polish? CORRECT ANSWER Aluminum metal polish should not be used on anodized aluminum surfaces because it will remove the oxide coat. General Ch. 12 20. Why should aircraft fabrics and plastics be cleaned only with recommended cleaners? CORRECT ANSWER Recommended cleaners cause the least amount of deterioration or damage. General Ch. 12 21. List at least five examples of areas in an aircraft that are prone to corrosion. CORRECT ANSWER (1) Battery compartments. (2) Exhaust trail areas. (3) Bilge areas. (4) Vent areas. (5) Landing gear and wheel wells. (6) Fuel tanks. (7) Wing flap recesses. (8) Around and below galleys and lavatories. (9) Piano hinges. (10) Any area that can trap water. General Ch. 12 1. Name at least three possible hazards that may be encountered during typical ground operations, such as during engine run-up or taxiing? CORRECT ANSWER The possibility of fire, especially during engine starting. Turning props, rotors, prop or jet blast and inlet areas. Other aircraft, vehicles, people, and obstacles. Foreign objects such as rocks, gravel, rags, or loose hardware. High noise levels that might cause hearing damage. Hydraulic lock in radial engines. Weathervaning of tailwheel aircraft. General Ch. 13 2. What is the most generally used knot for tying down small aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER The bowline (although other anti-slip knots may be used). General Ch. 13 3. Describe the precautions that should be taken to protect life and property while starting and running an aircraft engine. CORRECT ANSWER Study the procedures in the Airplane Flight Manual. Be sure the propellor or inlet area is clear and check for loose stones, gravel, etc. that could be sucked into the prop or engine. Also ensure that the prop or jet blast doesn't blow into hangars or other airplanes, and have a fire guard nearby. General Ch. 13 4. If an engine induction fire occurs while starting a reciprocating engine, what procedure should be followed to extinguish the fire? CORRECT ANSWER Continue cranking the engine to start it and suck the fire into the engine. If the engine doesn't start and the fire continues to burn, discontinue the attempt and extinguish the fire with a suitable fire extinguisher. General Ch. 13 5. What safety procedures must be observed when hand-propping a small aircraft engine? CORRECT ANSWER Become thoroughly trained. Have a qualified person in the cockpit, check the brakes, call "SWITCH OFF" before moving the prop, and make sure you have a solid footing. When ready to start, call "CONTACT" and listen for the reply. Swing the prop with the flat of your hand and move back from the prop arc. General Ch. 13 6. What procedure should be followed prior to starting a large radial to detect and/or prevent a hydraulic lock in the cylinders? CORRECT ANSWER Pull the propellor through by hand for three or four complete revolutions. Resistance to the prop turning indicated a possible hydraulic lock in at least one of the cylinders. General Ch. 13 7. What is the cause of hydraulic lock in large radial engines? CORRECT ANSWER Oil seeps by the piston rings and accumulates in the combustion chamber of lower cylinders. When a piston comes up on its compression stroke, the incompressible liquid seizes it. General Ch. 13 8. What is meant by the term "Hot Start" when starting a jet engine? CORRECT ANSWER Ignition occurs with an excessively rich mixture, leading to a rapid temperature rise that can exceed the exhaust gas temperature limit. General Ch. 13 9. When towing an aircraft, should you use the tow vehicle or aircraft brakes to stop the aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER The tow vehicle brakes should be used except in an emergency - then the aircraft brakes may be used. General Ch. 13 19. Under what conditions should a reciprocating engine be pre-oiled? CORRECT ANSWER Prior to starting a new engine or one that has been preserved for storage. This ensures adequate lubrication on initial startup. General Ch. 13 20. Under what conditions may automobile gasoline be used in an aircraft engine? CORRECT ANSWER Only if approved by the FAA, usually by the issuance of a Supplemental Type Certificate (STC). General Ch. 13 21. What are the indications of water in aircraft fuel after draining a sample from the fuel sumps? CORRECT ANSWER The sample may have a cloudy or hazy appearance or a solid slug of water. General Ch. 13 1. What federal aviation regulation prescribe the requirements for issuance of a type certificate? CORRECT ANSWER FAR (14 CFR) Part 21. General Ch. 14 2. What part of the FARs describes the airworthiness standards for Transport Category airplanes? CORRECT ANSWER FAR part 25. General Ch. 14 3. What part of the FARs describes the performance characteristics that a small aircraft must demonstrate in order to be airworthy? CORRECT ANSWER FAR Part 23. General Ch. 14 4. Who is responsible for ensuring that only the most current information is used when performing maintenance on an aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER The person performing the maintenance. General Ch. 14 5. Why are Airworthiness Directives issued? CORRECT ANSWER To correct unsafe conditions found in aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances. General Ch. 14 6. How does the FAA notify aircraft owners of unsafe conditions that must be corrected? CORRECT ANSWER By issuing Airworthiness Directives. General Ch. 14 7. How do you determine the timeframe within which AD compliance is required? CORRECT ANSWER The AD contains the compliance time or period for completing the corrective action. General Ch. 14 8. If a mechanic wishes to develop a checklist for an annual or 100-hour inspection, what publication contains the guidelines for the required inspection items? CORRECT ANSWER FAR Part 43, Appendix D contains the scope and detail of an inspection checklist. General Ch. 14 9. How can you determine if the repair of damage is a major or minor repair? CORRECT ANSWER FAR Part 43, Appendix A defines major and minor repairs as well as preventive maintenance. General Ch. 14 10. What publication might you consult for guidance when maintaining an old aircraft for which no maintenance manual exists? CORRECT ANSWER AC 43.13-1B or its latest revision. General Ch. 14 11. What are Advisory Circulars? CORRECT ANSWER Non-regulatory information of interest to the aviation public. General Ch. 14 12. What publication would you consult to determine an aircraft's (or engine's or propellor's) type design and its limitations? CORRECT ANSWER The Type Certificate Data Sheets and/or Aircraft Specifications. General Ch. 14 23. Records of a major alteration must be made in what two places? CORRECT ANSWER The aircraft maintenance records and FAA Form 337. General Ch. 14 24. When completion of FAA Form 337 is required, how many copies are normally prepared and what is their distribution? CORRECT ANSWER Two signed copies. One given to the aircraft owner and one is sent to the local FAA Flight Standards District Office within 48 hours of the approval for return to service. General Ch. 14 25. When an aircraft is sold, what do the regulations require regarding the disposition of records that contain the current status of Airworthiness Directives? CORRECT ANSWER The seller must transfer the records to the buyer at the time of sale. General Ch. 14 26. For what period of time must an aircraft owner maintain the records of a 100- hour inspection? CORRECT ANSWER Until the work is superseded or for one year after the inspection. General Ch. 14 27. In what publication may a mechanic find an example of a maintenance record entry for a 100-hour inspection? CORRECT ANSWER FAR Part 43.11. General Ch. 14 28. Where should a 100-hour inspection be recorded? CORRECT ANSWER In the appropriate maintenance record for the airframe, powerplant, propellor, or appliance. General Ch. 14 29. What items must be entered into the aircraft records after maintenance is performed? CORRECT ANSWER (1) A description of the work performed and/or reference to acceptable data. (2) The age the work was completed. (3) The signature, certificate number, and type of certificate of the person approving the aircraft for return to service. General Ch. 14 30. What person makes the final maintenance record entry after a 100-hour inspection is completed? CORRECT ANSWER The person approving the aircraft for return to service. General Ch. 14 31. What documents must be prepared when a required inspection is performed and defects are found which render the aircraft or engine unairworthy? CORRECT ANSWER The required maintenance entries must be made and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items must be furnished to the owner. General Ch. 14 32. What maintenance record entries are required to contain the aircraft total time in service? CORRECT ANSWER Only records of inspections require the total time. General Ch. 14 33. What regulation authorizes a certificated mechanic who holds an Inspection Authorization to approve or disapprove a major repair or alteration? CORRECT ANSWER FAR 65.95 General Ch. 14 34. Who has the authority to rebuild an aircraft engine and return to operating time to zero? CORRECT ANSWER Only the engine manufacturer or an overhaul facility approved by the manufacturer. General Ch. 14 35. Are there any circumstances when more than two copies of Form 337 are required, and if so, when? CORRECT ANSWER Yes. Three copies are required when a fuel tank is installed in the passenger or baggage compartment. The third copy must be kept aboard the aircraft. General Ch. 14 4. What types of work may a certificated mechanic perform? CORRECT ANSWER A mechanic may perform or supervise maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations. General Ch. 15 5. Is a certificated airframe mechanic allowed to perform maintenance on engines? CORRECT ANSWER Not unless they are supervised by a certificated powerplant mechanic. General Ch. 15 6. What are the limitations to a mechanic's privileges with regard to propellers? CORRECT ANSWER A mechanic may not perform or supervise major repairs to, or major alterations of, propellers. General Ch. 15 7. Is a mechanic allowed to repair or alter an aircraft instrument? CORRECT ANSWER No. Mechanics may not perform any repairs or alterations on instruments. General Ch. 15 8. What are the requirements for recent experience in order to exercise the privileges of your mechanic's certificate or rating? CORRECT ANSWER You must have worked as a mechanic or technically supervised other mechanics for at least 6 months out of the past 24 months. General Ch. 15 9. What authority does a mechanic have regarding approval for return to service? CORRECT ANSWER A mechanic may perform and approve for return to service an airframe or engine following a 100-hour inspection. General Ch. 15 10. What are the privileges of an A&P mechanic regarding inspections? CORRECT ANSWER A mechanic may perform and approve for return to service an airframe or engine following a 100-hour inspection. General Ch. 15 11. What is the duration of a mechanic's certificate? CORRECT ANSWER The certificate is valid until surrendered, suspended, or revoked. General Ch. 15 12. What are the privileges and limitations of an A&P mechanic regarding major repairs and alterations to airframes and engines, and their approval for return to service? CORRECT ANSWER A&P mechanics may perform major repairs and alterations but may not approve them for return to service unless they hold an Inspection Authorization. General Ch. 15 13. In addition to performing maintenance, what other privileges are granted to a powerplant mechanic? CORRECT ANSWER A powerplant mechanic may perform a 100-hour inspection on an engine and approve the engine for return to service. General Ch. 15 14. When may a mechanic perform an annual inspection and return the aircraft to service? CORRECT ANSWER When the mechanic holds an Inspections Authorization. General Ch. 15 15. May a mechanic supervise an inspection (or a portion of an inspection) and then approve the aircraft for return to service? CORRECT ANSWER No. The mechanic approving the aircraft for return to service must actually perform the inspection. General Ch. 15 16. What is the duration of a temporary airmen's certificate? CORRECT ANSWER 120 days. General Ch. 15 17. If a mechanic's certificate is revoked, how long must he/she wait before applying for a new certificate? CORRECT ANSWER One year unless the revocation order states otherwise. General Ch. 15 7. What is a spring tab? CORRECT ANSWER It is an auxiliary control designed to aid the movement of a primary control at high speeds when control forces become too high. Airframe Ch. 1 8. What is a balance trim tab? CORRECT ANSWER It s an auxiliary control designed to create aerodynamic forces to assist in moving a control surface. The tab is positioned by a control rob connected to the fixed surface on the same side as the horn on the tab. Airframe Ch. 1 9. What are four most common types of high lift devices? CORRECT ANSWER Leading and trailing edge flaps, slats, and slots. Airframe Ch. 1 10. Describe some of the tools used to check control surface travel? CORRECT ANSWER A universal propellor protractor or special control surface protractor. Airframe Ch. 1 11. Name three mechanical methods by which flight control systems may be actuated. CORRECT ANSWER Cables, push-pull rods, and torque tubes. Airframe Ch. 1 12. What is a fairlead? CORRECT ANSWER It is a device to prevent a cable from rubbing on the aircraft structure. Airframe Ch. 1 13. What are the most likely places for a control cable to wear or break? CORRECT ANSWER Where the cables pass over pulleys or through fairleads. Airframe Ch. 1 14. What information is required before a cable rigging chart can be used? CORRECT ANSWER The ambient temperature and the cable size. Airframe Ch. 1 15. What is the function of a cable tension regulator? CORRECT ANSWER It automatically adjusts the cable tension to compensate for expansion and contraction in the aircraft structure. Airframe Ch. 1 16. Describe the function of a rotorcraft collective pitch control. CORRECT ANSWER The collective control causes each rotor blade to change its pitch angle by the same amount, thus increasing or decreasing the lift produced by the rotor. Airframe Ch. 1 17. Describe the function of a rotorcraft cyclic pitch control. CORRECT ANSWER The cyclic control tilts the main rotor disc by changing its pitch angle or each rotor blade during its cycle of rotation, which causes the helicopter to move in the direction the rotor tilts. Airframe Ch. 1 18. What mechanism is most commonly used to compensate for the torque produced by the main rotor of a helicopter? CORRECT ANSWER The tail (anti- torque) rotor. Airframe Ch. 1 19. How is the amount of thrust produced by the tail rotor controlled? CORRECT ANSWER By moving the foot pedals. Airframe Ch. 1 20. Why should control surfaces be locked when an aircraft is parked? CORRECT ANSWER To prevent damage from the wind. Airframe Ch. 1 1. What is a major type of damage to aluminum structures that is caused by exposure to the weather? CORRECT ANSWER Corrosion. Airframe Ch. 2 Airframe Ch. 2 12. How can a mechanic determine whether a countersink for a flush rivet should be dimpled or drilled? CORRECT ANSWER By the thickness of the top sheet; thin sheets are dimpled while thick sheets may be countersunk. Airframe Ch. 2 13. What action is taken to prevent cracks from forming while dimpling magnesium or some hard sheet metals? CORRECT ANSWER Hot dumping equipment is used to preheat and soften the metal before the dimple is formed. Airframe Ch. 2 14. What type of damage can occur when using a rivet set that does not properly fit the rivet? CORRECT ANSWER If the radius of the set is too small, the rivet head may be damaged, whereas a set with an over-sized radius may cause damage to the sheet metal. Airframe Ch. 2 15. Why is it important to use the proper size and weight bucking bar when performing sheet metal riveting? CORRECT ANSWER If a bucking bar is too large or heavy it may be difficult to control and may cause damage to the surrounding structure, whereas a bucking bar that is too light will not properly upset the rivet before work hardening occurs. Airframe Ch. 2 16. What procedures should be followed to properly remove a solid-shank rivet? CORRECT ANSWER Center punch the rivet and then drill just to the base of the rivet head with the same size or one size smaller drill. Once drilled, use a punch to tip off the rivet head and drive the remaining shank out of the hole while supporting the surrounding metal. Airframe Ch. 2 17. What are the two special calculations that must be made when bending sheet metal? CORRECT ANSWER Bend allowance and setback. Airframe Ch. 2 18. What factors must be considered in order to determine setback? CORRECT ANSWER The thickness of the metal and the bend radius. Airframe Ch. 2 19. What is done to a corner where two bends intersect to prevent cracking? CORRECT ANSWER Relief holes are drilled in the corner. Airframe Ch. 2 20. What are the two reasons for installing a lightening hole in a sheet metal wing rib? CORRECT ANSWER Lightening holes reduce the weight and increase stiffness. Airframe Ch. 2 21. Describe a joggle and explain its function. CORRECT ANSWER A joggle is an offset formed at an intersection of two or more sheets of metal to allow the multiple sheets to be stacked flat against each other. Airframe Ch. 2 22. When repairing an all-metal aircraft, how do you determine what metals should be used? CORRECT ANSWER Always use metal of the same type and thickness as the original structure. Airframe Ch. 2 1. What are the three forms of wood commonly used in aircraft construction? CORRECT ANSWER Solid, laminated, and plywood. Airframe Ch. 3 2. What type of wood should be used when splicing or reinforcing plywood webs? CORRECT ANSWER The same type of plywood as originally used. Airframe Ch. 3 3. Name at least four different types of defects found in wood. CORRECT ANSWER Knots, checks, splits, pitch pockets, cross grain, curly grain, decay, dry rot, etc. Airframe Ch. 3 Airframe Ch. 3 14. Describe the acceptable methods used to repair elongated bolt holes found in a wooden wing spar. CORRECT ANSWER Remove the section containing the elongated hole(s) and splice in a new section or replace the entire spar. Airframe Ch. 3 15. What type of joint is used to splice a solid or rectangular wood spar? CORRECT ANSWER A scarf joint. Airframe Ch. 3 16. In what areas are splices to a wood spar prohibited? CORRECT ANSWER Under an attachment fitting for the wing root, landing gear, engine-mount, lift, or inter-plane strut. Airframe Ch. 3 17. What is the maximum number of splices allowed for any single spar? CORRECT ANSWER Two. Airframe Ch. 3 18. Describe the characteristics of a scarf joint. CORRECT ANSWER The pieces to be joined are tapered or beveled on a slope of 1 to 10 or 1 to 12. Airframe Ch. 3 19. Why must the beveled cut be accurate on both pieces of wood being repaired with a scarfed joint? CORRECT ANSWER The two pieces must match exactly to ensure a tight glue joint. Airframe Ch. 3 20. What are the two primary uses for plywood in aircraft construction? CORRECT ANSWER Gusset (or reinforcing) plates and aircraft skin. Airframe Ch. 3 21. Provide examples of at least three types of plywood skin repairs. CORRECT ANSWER Splayed patches, surface patches, plug patches, and scarfed patches. Airframe Ch. 3 22. What type of patch should be used to repair small holes in thin plywood skin if the skin is less than 1/10th inch thick? CORRECT ANSWER A splayed patch may be used if the hole can be cleared out to a diameter of less than 15 thicknesses of the skin. Airframe Ch. 3 23. What should be done to prevent a plywood patch and the pressure plate from sticking together if glue is extruding from the joint? CORRECT ANSWER Place a piece of waxed paper or vinyl plastic between the patch and the pressure plate. Airframe Ch. 3 24. Why are lightweight steel bushings sometimes used in wooden structures? CORRECT ANSWER Bushings prevent the wood from being crushed when bolts are tightened. Airframe Ch. 3 25. What is the purpose of large surface area washers when used on wooden structures? CORRECT ANSWER Large washers provide additional bearing area for hardware to help preclude damage to the wood when the hardware is tightened. Airframe Ch. 3 26. Name several facings and core materials used in bonded honeycomb structures intended for special applications. CORRECT ANSWER Stainless steel, titanium, magnesium, plywood, glass, nylon, and cotton cloth. Airframe Ch. 3 27. Describe the construction of a bonded honeycomb structure. CORRECT ANSWER It is a laminated structure that has a solid facing bonded to either side of a core consisting of open, six-sided cells. Airframe Ch. 3 5. What is a common method of controlling expansion when welding a joint? CORRECT ANSWER Place tack welds along the length of the joint. Airframe Ch. 4 6. What is the effect of inadequate penetration on a weld? CORRECT ANSWER The weld will be weak. Airframe Ch. 4 7. What is the purpose of the flux used with brazing and silver soldering? CORRECT ANSWER The flux cleans the base metal by removing any oxide film. Airframe Ch. 4 8. What type of flame is used when torch brazing or silver soldering? CORRECT ANSWER A neutral flame. Airframe Ch. 4 9. What must be done to a soldering iron tip to increase the amount of heat transferred from the tip to the work? CORRECT ANSWER The tip must be clean of all contaminates and properly tinned. Airframe Ch. 4 10. What is the preferred method for welding aluminum? CORRECT ANSWER Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding. Airframe Ch. 4 11. What is the preferred method of welding magnesium? CORRECT ANSWER Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding. Airframe Ch. 4 12. What precautions must be observed in order to weld titanium? CORRECT ANSWER All traces of oxygen and nitrogen must be kept away from the welded area. Airframe Ch. 4 13. Describe one type of repair that could be made to a dented steel tube cluster joint. CORRECT ANSWER A formed steel patch plate could be welded over the damaged area. Airframe Ch. 4 14. How can a soft flame be obtained without reducing the heat output of the torch? CORRECT ANSWER Use a larger tip and adjust the gas pressure accordingly. Airframe Ch. 4 15. What factors determine the amount of heat delivered by a gas welding torch? CORRECT ANSWER The size of the torch tip and the gas pressure. Airframe Ch. 4 16. When an oxyacetylene torch is extinguished, which valve is turned off first? CORRECT ANSWER Turn off the acetylene gaze valve first. Airframe Ch. 4 17. When a gas welding project is completed, what safety precautions should be accomplished? CORRECT ANSWER All the valves are turned off and the gas pressure are relieved. Airframe Ch. 4 18. What should be done to a heat-treated aluminum part after welded repairs are completed? CORRECT ANSWER The parts must be re-heat treated. Airframe Ch. 4 19. Welding magnesium can create a serious safety hazard. What is the nature of this hazard? CORRECT ANSWER Magnesium burns with a very hot flame that is very hard to extinguish. Airframe Ch. 4 20. What technique might be used to enable a tight-fitting inner sleeve to be inserted into a tubular repair? CORRECT ANSWER The inner tube could be 10. What is the function or purpose of reinforcing tape? CORRECT ANSWER Reinforcing tape is used between the fabric and the rib stitching to prevent the lacing cord from cutting through the fabric. Airframe Ch. 5 11. Where would you use surface tape? CORRECT ANSWER Over rib stitching and sewed seams, over lapped edges, around corners, and along leading and trailing edges. Airframe Ch. 5 12. How should the edges of drainage, inspection, and ventilation holes be reinforced? CORRECT ANSWER With plastic, aluminum, or brass grommets. Airframe Ch. 5 13. What are the principle methods used to test the condition of fabric? CORRECT ANSWER Punch testers such as the Maule or Seybolt tester, and laboratory pull- testing. Airframe Ch. 5 14. Fabric is considered unairworthy when it has deteriorated to what percentage of its original strength? CORRECT ANSWER Less than 70%. Airframe Ch. 5 15. How should a structure that will be covered with doped fabric be prepared following inspection and prior to covering? CORRECT ANSWER Treat it with a protective coating of paint or varnish as appropriate. Airframe Ch. 5 16. What is the principal advantage of the envelope method for covering wings? CORRECT ANSWER Almost all the seams are machine-sewed by the envelope supplier. Airframe Ch. 5 17. What is a tie-off knot? CORRECT ANSWER A standard, modified seine knot used in all stitches except the starting stitch. Airframe Ch. 5 18. Name three common types of machine-sewed seams. CORRECT ANSWER Plain overlap, folded-fell, and French-fell. Airframe Ch. 5 19. Where are anti-tear strips used? CORRECT ANSWER Under wing rib stitching when the never-exceed speed is greater than 250 mph. Airframe Ch. 5 20. How would you determine the correct spacing for rib stitching if the original spacing was unknown? CORRECT ANSWER Consult the chart in AC 43.13-1B. Airframe Ch. 5 1. Why is butyrate dope safer to use than nitrate dope? CORRECT ANSWER It is much less flammable. Airframe Ch. 6 2. What are the two types of dope used for fabric finishes? CORRECT ANSWER Cellulose Nitrate and Cellulose Acetate Butyrate. Airframe Ch. 6 3. What is the appearance of a blushing paint finish? CORRECT ANSWER Chalky or cloudy. Airframe Ch. 6 4. What finishing defect is the result of a paint room temperature that is too warm? CORRECT ANSWER Pinholes or blisters. Airframe Ch. 6 5. What causes dope to blush? CORRECT ANSWER High humidity, moisture in the spray system, or application over a damp surface. 15. Other than appearance, what is another reason for touching up painting surfaces? CORRECT ANSWER Reduction or elimination of general corrosion problems. Airframe Ch. 6 16. What references should be used to determine if a control surface must be checked and/or rebalanced after painting? CORRECT ANSWER The manufacturer's service manual. Airframe Ch. 6 17. What would be the effect if dope was used over paint or enamel? CORRECT ANSWER The dope tends to dissolve these materials. Airframe Ch. 6 18. What are the three most commonly used methods of applying paint? CORRECT ANSWER Dipping, brushing, and spraying. Airframe Ch. 6 19. What is the effect on paint finished if too much drier is added to the paint? CORRECT ANSWER The paint film will be brittle and tend to crack and peel. Airframe Ch. 6 20. What paint system(s) may be used with epoxy topcoats? CORRECT ANSWER Any paint system in good condition. Airframe Ch. 6 1. What could cause an AC electric motor to run too fast? CORRECT ANSWER Excessive applied voltage or shortened field windings. Airframe Ch. 7 2. What tool is used to check a motor or generator armature for shorts and opens under local conditions? CORRECT ANSWER A Growler. Airframe Ch. 7 3. When using a Growler, what indication will occur when a short exists between and armature segment? CORRECT ANSWER When a metal blade is held over the armature and a short exists in a segment, the blade will begin to vibrate and "chatter." Airframe Ch. 7 4. How is the output voltage of an alternator controlled? CORRECT ANSWER By varying the field current that excites the alternator. Airframe Ch. 7 5. What instruments are used to monitor electrical system loads? CORRECT ANSWER Ammeters and voltmeters. Airframe Ch. 7 6. How would you identify a specific wire in a wire bundle? CORRECT ANSWER By the identification code marked on the wire. Airframe Ch. 7 7. What tool would you use to determine the size of an unmarked wire? CORRECT ANSWER A wire gauge. Airframe Ch. 7 8. What color are the navigation lights in the wingtips? CORRECT ANSWER The left wingtip is red, the right is green. Airframe Ch. 7 9. Name several types of electrical devices that would be considered intermittent loads on an electrical system. CORRECT ANSWER Loading gear, cowl and wing flap motors, radio transmitters. Airframe Ch. 7 20. What part of an aircraft is identified by a white navigation light? CORRECT ANSWER The tail. Airframe Ch. 7 21. What could cause an AC electric motor to run too slowly? CORRECT ANSWER Lack of lubrication, defective wiring, or low applied voltage. Airframe Ch. 7 22. What should be done when making bonding or grounding connections between dissimilar materials? CORRECT ANSWER Use a suitable washer so that any corrosion will occur on the washer. Airframe Ch. 7 23. Prior to making a continuity check, what must be done to an electric circuit? CORRECT ANSWER The power must be turned off. Airframe Ch. 7 1. What materials form the bases of the three types of hydraulic fluids? CORRECT ANSWER Vegetable, mineral, and phosphate-esters. Airframe Ch. 8 2. What colors denote mineral-based and phosphate-ester-based hydraulic fluids? CORRECT ANSWER Mineral based fluids are red and phosphate-ester based fluids are light purple. Airframe Ch. 8 3. What are the results of exposing lacquers, oil-based paint, paint resins, and vinyl compounds to phosphate-ester-based hydraulic fluid? CORRECT ANSWER The materials will be damaged and/or softened, or the paint will peel. Airframe Ch. 8 4. Name several sources used to develop hydraulic pressure. CORRECT ANSWER Hand pumps, engine-driven pumps, and electrically driven pumps. Airframe Ch. 8 5. What would cause the bypass valve in a hydraulic filter to open and allow unfiltered fluid to circulate in the system? CORRECT ANSWER A clogged filter element. Airframe Ch. 8 6. Describe several methods of pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir. CORRECT ANSWER Engine bleed air, system pressure acting on a small piston in the reservoir, using variable-displacement hydraulic pumps. Airframe Ch. 8 7. What feature prevents engine damage if an engine-driven hydraulic pump seizes or is overloaded? CORRECT ANSWER A shear section in the pump driveshaft will break, disconnecting the pump from the engine. Airframe Ch. 8 8. Describe the purpose of a pressure relief valve. CORRECT ANSWER Pressure relief valves limit the maximum pressure produced by the pump, thereby preventing failures of the system components. Airframe Ch. 8 9. Engine-driven pumps deliver the output fluid flow in what two forms? CORRECT ANSWER As a constant volume or a variable volume. Airframe Ch. 8 10. Describe the operation of a gear-type pump. CORRECT ANSWER Two meshed gears, driven by a power source, rotate in a housing. Inlet fluid is carried around the outside of the gears and delivered to the outlet side as the gear rotate. Airframe Ch. 8 11. Describe the purpose of a pressure regulator. CORRECT ANSWER Pressure regulators manage the output of the pump to maintain system pressure. They allow the pump to be unloaded so it turns without significant resistance. 2. A landing gear shock strut should be inflated with what gas(es)? CORRECT ANSWER Nitrogen or dry air. Airframe Ch. 9 3. What conditions should a mechanic look for during a regular inspection of the exposed piston section of a landing gear? CORRECT ANSWER Cleanliness, evidence of damage, and proper extension. Airframe Ch. 9 4. What prevents air from leaking out between the two halves of a split wheel assembly? CORRECT ANSWER An O-ring. Airframe Ch. 9 5. Why are fusible plugs installed on some aircraft wheels? CORRECT ANSWER To release the pressure generated by heat build-up before a tire blows. Airframe Ch. 9 6. What safety precaution must be taken when removing a wheel from an axle or when disassembling a wheel? CORRECT ANSWER Verify that the tire is completely deflated before removing a wheel from an axle or before wheel disassembly. Airframe Ch. 9 7. What are the visible signs of excessive heating on a wheel bearing? CORRECT ANSWER The bearing surfaces show discoloration. Airframe Ch. 9 8. How are the pilot's nose wheel steering commands transmitted to the steering control unit of a large aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER Steering signals may be transmitted mechanically, electrically, or hydraulically. Airframe Ch. 9 9. How is the nose wheel steering mechanism usually actuated on a small aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER By means of a mechanical linkage connected to the rudder pedals. Airframe Ch. 9 10. What is the name of the unit that prevents a nose wheel from vibrating or oscillating? CORRECT ANSWER A shimmy damper. Airframe Ch. 9 11. What are the most common sources of power used to extend and retract landing gear? CORRECT ANSWER Hydraulic pressure and electric motors. Airframe Ch. 9 12. At what times should a gear retraction check be performed? CORRECT ANSWER During annual or other inspections and following a hard landing. Airframe Ch. 9 13. What mechanism(s) ensure that a nose wheel is not turned as it retracts into its wheelwell? CORRECT ANSWER Internal centering cams in the strut or an external track. 14. Name several types of brakes actuating systems. CORRECT ANSWER Independent master cylinders, boosted brakes, and power-controlled brakes. Airframe Ch. 9 15. What is the function of an anti-skid system? CORRECT ANSWER Anti-skid systems allow large aircraft to achieve maximum braking effectiveness without allowing wheels to skid or lock. Airframe Ch. 9 16. What is the purpose of a debooster? CORRECT ANSWER To reduce hydraulic system high pressure to a lower value for more satisfactory brake action. Airframe Ch. 9 17. Describe two methods of bleeding brakes. CORRECT ANSWER A pressure pot can be attached to the bleeder valve and fluid forced back towards the master cylinder and/or reservoir, or the master cylinder can be used for forcing fluid from the reservoir to the brakes. Airframe Ch. 10 8. What landing gear positions must be indicated by regulations? CORRECT ANSWER Down and locked and up and locked. Airframe Ch. 10 9. Under what conditions will a landing gear aural warning sound? CORRECT ANSWER When the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is not down and locked. Airframe Ch. 10 10. How does a takeoff configuration warning differ from a landing gear warning? CORRECT ANSWER Takeoff warnings are usually an intermittent horns while landing gear warnings are steady. Airframe Ch. 10 11. What is the function of a Mach airspeed warning system? CORRECT ANSWER To alert the pilot that he never-exceed airspeed limit has been reached or exceeded. Airframe Ch. 10 12. What systems are commonly used to activate the landing gear warning systems? CORRECT ANSWER The throttles (thrust levers) and the wind flaps. Airframe Ch. 10 13. Why do airplanes with bleed air anti-icing of the wing leading edge have an anti-ice overheat light(s)? CORRECT ANSWER To indicate an over-temperature condition, usually as a result of a break in the bleed air ducts. Airframe Ch. 10 14. What warning system may be required when a nickel-cadmium battery is installed in an aircraft? CORRECT ANSWER A battery temperature monitoring system. Airframe Ch. 10 15. At what time would a check of a landing gear warning system normally be made? CORRECT ANSWER During a landing gear retraction test. Airframe Ch. 10 16. What is the purpose of an annunciator system? CORRECT ANSWER To show, by means of a warning light, that some system parameter requires attention by the flight crew. Airframe Ch. 10 17. If an aircraft with retractable landing gear has only one green light to indicate the gear is down and locked, how will the switches be connected, in series or in parallel? CORRECT ANSWER In series. Airframe Ch. 10 18. Where would you locate the procedures for checking and adjusting the landing gear switches? CORRECT ANSWER In the aircraft manufacturer's manual. Airframe Ch. 10 19. What is the usual means for alerting the crew of a jet transport that the cabin doors are not properly closed? CORRECT ANSWER A warning light. Airframe Ch. 10 20. Why are transport category aircraft equipped with master caution and warning system? CORRECT ANSWER To alert the crew that a malfunction has occurred and corrective action may be required. Airframe Ch. 10 1. A static check may be performed on a manifold pressure gauge by using what piece of information? CORRECT ANSWER Current atmospheric pressure. Airframe Ch. 11