FF2 Final Exam Study Guide IFSTA 2024- with Complete Solutions, Exams of Safety and Fire Engineering

Download FF2 Final Exam Study Guide IFSTA 2024- with Complete Solutions and more Exams Safety and Fire Engineering in PDF only on Docsity! FF2 Final Exam Study Guide IFSTA 2024- with Complete Solutions A(An) _____ concept allows all responders to use a similar, coordinated approach with a common set of authorities, protections, and resources. - ANSWER-all hazard Which duty is a Fire Fighter I expected to perform? - ANSWER-Forcing entry into a structure Which statement describes the difference in the roles of a Fire Fighter I and a Fire Fighter II? - ANSWER-A Fire Fighter I works under the direct supervision of a Fire Fighter II or company officer. Which type of specialized fire company generally has the primary duty of transporting patients to a hospital? - ANSWER-Emergency medical company When does the response to an emergency begin? - ANSWER-As soon as the department is notified of the emergency Which group of fire department employees provides administrative and logistical support in areas such as finance, maintenance, and training? - ANSWER-Staff personnel Exposure to chemicals and products of combustion are linked to: - ANSWER-increased occurrences of illnesses and diseases. Which safety guideline will help minimize a firefighter's exposure to risk at a structural fire scene? - ANSWER-Maintain communication with team members and Command What should be the first priority of firefighters when there are downed high-voltage power lines? - ANSWER-Contact the electric company to shut off power A(An) _____ is meant to help reduce firefighter illnesses, injuries, and deaths by ensuring that firefighters are healthy. - ANSWER-wellness program NFPA 1500 requires all personnel operating in an immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) atmosphere to: - ANSWER-be fully equipped with the appropriate PPE. When operating at highway/roadway incident scenes, apparatus lights: - ANSWER-can confuse motorists and make the situation more hazardous. What must a fire department's health and safety program address? - ANSWER-All anticipated hazards to which members might be exposed Which type of specialized fire company generally has the primary duty of searching for victims and removing them from areas of danger or entrapment? - ANSWER-Rescue company Emergency scene lighting and portable rescue equipment are powered by apparatus- mounted generators, the apparatus' electrical system, or: - ANSWER-portable electric generators. Which organization or agency would assist the fire department with incident scene security, crowd control, and explosives disposal? - ANSWER-Law enforcement What does it mean to practice situational awareness on the fireground? - ANSWER- Being observant about hazards and changing conditions Why did the National Fallen Firefighters Association develop the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives in 2004? - ANSWER-Provide the fire service with a blueprint for making changes What is the main purpose of a fire department member assistance program (MAP)? - ANSWER-Offer easily accessible, confidential assistance with personal problems that affect job performance Which statement regarding apparatus safety is accurate? - ANSWER-Firefighters should always maintain three points of contact when mounting or dismounting apparatus. In order to minimize danger when riding in apparatus, firefighters should always wear: - ANSWER-hearing protection. Which type of fire officer is directly in charge of monitoring operational safety at fires and other emergencies? - ANSWER-Fire department incident safety officer Fire department line personnel are responsible for: - ANSWER-providing emergency services to the public. What is the BEST way for a Fire Fighter I to prevent work-related injuries? - ANSWER- Maintain a high level of personal physical fitness According to NFPA 1001, which duty is a Fire Fighter I required to be able to perform? - ANSWER-Prepare apparatus hose loads for response What does NFPA 1500 require to be part of fire department training programs? - ANSWER-A process for evaluating firefighter skills and knowledge As part of a member assistance program, many fire departments offer tobacco cessation programs because tobacco can: - ANSWER-cause cancer, heart disease, and COPD. Which fire fighting personnel are trained specifically to extinguish fires in outdoor vegetation? - ANSWER-Wildland firefighter Firefighters are at risk of contracting respiratory diseases such as lung cancer and COPD because of repeated exposure to: - ANSWER-smoke, dangerous gases, and chemicals. When establishing scene control zones at an emergency scene, firefighters should avoid tying rope or caution tape to: - ANSWER-vehicles Which action does NFPA 1500 prohibit while riding in apparatus on the way to an incident? - ANSWER-Wearing helmets Manufactured products affect firefighters' exposure to contaminants, because they tend to burn at higher temperatures and these higher temperatures: - ANSWER-increase the skin's ability to absorb chemicals deposited on it. Which organization or agency assists the fire department by alerting the public of traffic incidents or evacuations? - ANSWER-Media NFPA 1500 requires that emergency operations be managed through a(an): - ANSWER-incident management system. Which highway/roadway incident hazard would require firefighters in full PPE to stand by with a charged hoseline? - ANSWER-Fuel spill What is a medical or physical requirement set forth in NFPA 1500? - ANSWER-Annual medical exams to verify continued fitness One way that firefighters can maintain situational awareness at highway/roadway incidents is to: - ANSWER-walk facing oncoming traffic. What is an example of situational awareness on the fireground? - ANSWER-Notifying the IC that the fire has spread to another area of the building What is a guideline for maintaining personal health? - ANSWER-Clean PPE after every exposure to smoke. In the _____, the accountability officer bases expected exit time on the team member who has the lowest air-pressure reading. - ANSWER-SCBA tag system The type of personnel accountability system which provides the greatest level of safety, but should only be used as a supplemental safety measure, is the: - ANSWER- computer-based electronic system. A Fire Fighter I would likely be assigned to: - ANSWER-set up lighting equipment to illuminate a scene. What should firefighters do first if they have questions about departmental regulations? - ANSWER-Ask their supervisor for clarification In order to help minimize exposure to risk at a structural fire scene, firefighters should: - ANSWER-do a risk/benefit analysis for every action. Why are personnel accountability systems vital to emergency incident operations? - ANSWER-They identify which personnel are working at a scene and help the IC determine if any firefighters are trapped inside. Which action would directly promote the National Fallen Firefighters Association 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? - ANSWER-Investigating line of duty deaths and near misses in order to revise departmental safety standards Which member of the fire prevention division is tasked with determining the origin and cause of a fire? - ANSWER-Fire and arson investigator What is the most common power source used by emergency personnel to power scene lighting and portable rescue equipment? - ANSWER-Generators Which member of a fire department's training division is in charge of providing training for entry level personnel and staff members? - ANSWER-Instructor Body substance isolation methods are used to: - ANSWER-protect firefighters from being exposed to communicable diseases. In order to prevent or limit chemical exposures at fires, firefighters should: - ANSWER- wash hands and neck skin immediately after working a fire. Which scene control zone immediately surrounds the other two zones and provides an area for staging personnel and portable equipment? - ANSWER-Cold zone Radios used in fixed locations such as fire stations, telecommunications centers, training centers, or administrative offices are referred to as: - ANSWER-base station radios. What information should be gathered by a dispatcher? - ANSWER-Number and location of people involved Which type of alarm consists of scrolling message boards and pagers? - ANSWER- Electronic At the station, if you cannot answer a caller's question, refer them to someone who can, then: - ANSWER-follow up on the request. To provide better performance than other radios, base stations have receivers that are: - ANSWER-interference resistant. What information should be included when broadcasting information on emergencies to department members? - ANSWER-Information from the caller and from preincident plans Often referred to as dispatchers, the persons who are trained to answer emergency calls and obtain the correct information are: - ANSWER-telecommunicators Which is a radio communications best practice? - ANSWER-Do not transmit until the frequency is clear Which category of telecommunications system is in a central location, takes all emergency calls, and then routes calls to appropriate dispatchers? - ANSWER-Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) Once an emergency has been reported, the information must be: - ANSWER- transmitted to the responding units or personnel. To overcome physical barriers to radio communication, you may need to turn your body 90 degrees or: - ANSWER-raise the antenna up straight. Which is a guideline for receiving nonemergency calls? - ANSWER-Answer calls promptly A central location that takes all emergency calls and routes the call to the fire, emergency medical, or law enforcement dispatcher is a: - ANSWER-public safety answering point. Fire department radio channels should NOT be used: - ANSWER-to send personal messages. The power of the transmitter and receiver and the height of the broadcast and receiving antennas determine the: - ANSWER-distance a radio signal will travel. To improve your ability to hear and be heard at an emergency incident: - ANSWER- place the microphone against your throat if you cannot be understood through your SCBA facepiece. With regard to fire fighting operations, doors are: - ANSWER-a tool for controlling flow path. Firefighters working on flat roofs are likely to encounter obstacles that penetrate through the roof, including: - ANSWER-skylights Which type of building construction is commonly encountered in single-family residences and is known as wood frame construction? - ANSWER-Type V What is a firefighter MOST likely to encounter in the space between a ceiling and a roof when performing ventilation? - ANSWER-Insulation Roof modifications such as rooftop gardens or photovoltaic panels should be identified during preincident surveys and initial size-up: - ANSWER-so that firefighters will be aware of them in case the structure needs to be ventilated. What type of truss is constructed of wood or metal and is generally used to support flat roofs and floor assemblies? - ANSWER-Parallel chord truss Stairs are a unique challenge for firefighters because they can: - ANSWER-provide a flow path for fire gases and smoke. What are fire doors designed to do? - ANSWER-Block the spread of fire within a structure Which type of door that rotates in a circular frame can be dangerous during a fire situation because it may prevent the movement of hose and equipment into the building? - ANSWER-Revolving doors Which type of danger do stairs present to firefighters during low-visibility conditions? - ANSWER-Fall hazard When an unprotected opening for pipes or wiring is made through a fire wall,: - ANSWER-the protection provided by the fire wall is reduced or eliminated. Which type of building construction may have interior walls and beams constructed of wood, but requires that exterior walls be made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials? - ANSWER-Type III Sliding doors are often used as: - ANSWER-power-operated storefront entrances. Roof penetrations such as skylights and chimneys: - ANSWER-may act as an exit point for some types of ventilation. What determines a building's construction type? - ANSWER-Construction materials and their fire resistance What are the three main components that make up a roof? - ANSWER-Supporting structure, roof deck, roof covering Type IV buildings are constructed of: - ANSWER-large-dimensioned lumber. Which type of building construction provides the highest level of protection from fire and structural collapse? - ANSWER-Type I When a building has no windows or has windows that cannot be opened: - ANSWER- tactical ventilation may be more difficult. What is the primary function of a roof? - ANSWER-Protect the structure and its contents from the effects of weather Fire walls are designed to: - ANSWER-prevent the spread of fire between buildings or occupancy classifications. What are the three main types of roofs that firefighters are likely to encounter? - ANSWER-Flat, pitched, arched How can security bars on windows negatively affect fire and life safety? - ANSWER- Prevent trapped occupants from escaping A rain roof is described as a: - ANSWER-pitched roof built over a flat roof for aesthetic or drainage purposes. Which type of factory-built home is the least expensive, and usually has wheels and a permanent steel undercarriage? - ANSWER-Mobile home Fires in basements are likely to become more hazardous than fires in other compartments because of: - ANSWER-limited ventilation. What are cold roofs designed to do? - ANSWER-Prevent interior heat from escaping to the attic space and melting snow on the roof Horizontal sliding fire doors: - ANSWER-cannot be used to protect openings in walls in the required path of egress. Which type of door consists of thin pieces of wood, glass, or louvers placed within a framed rectangular area? - ANSWER-Panel door Stairs that are part of the required means of egress and are built to resist the spread of fire and smoke are known as: - ANSWER-protected stairs. Which window component consists of the members that form the perimeter of the window? - ANSWER-Frame Which type of window has one or two side-hinged sashes and usually opens outward? - ANSWER-Casement window How can revolving doors impact fire fighting operations? - ANSWER-Prevent movement of hose or equipment into the building Which characteristic of Type IV construction buildings can contribute to the intensity of a fire once it starts? - ANSWER-High concentration of wood A _____ window consists of only a frame and one glazed stationary sash. - ANSWER- fixed Type IV buildings are resistant to structural collapse because of the: - ANSWER-mass of the heavy timber structural members. What is the purpose of a gusset plate? - ANSWER-Serve as a connection point for wood trusses Which type of window has two sashes that can move past each other in a vertical plane and is commonly used in residential occupancies? - ANSWER-Double-hung window In order to maintain the integrity of a protected stairwell during a fire, firefighters should: - ANSWER-maintain door control. What is one construction requirement of newer factory built homes that has helped to reduce fire loss and residential fatalities? - ANSWER-Gypsum board instead of wood paneling as an interior finish Roof-mounted equipment such as _____ add a substantial load to the roof and increase the probability of collapse. - ANSWER-HVAC units The open web design of truss joints: - ANSWER-permits rapid fire spread in multiple directions. In order to ensure firefighter safety in case of rapid egress, window security bars and grilles: - ANSWER-must be removed or disabled when interior operations begin. What hazard do fire doors potentially pose to firefighters? - ANSWER-Fire doors can automatically close if the fusible link melts. Building codes require that: - ANSWER-glass doors are made from tempered glass. Which type of door is usually required as an exit door in a means of egress? - ANSWER-Swinging door What condition often found in Type III construction buildings is likely to negatively influence fire behavior? - ANSWER-Void spaces between wall studs Which safety hazard are firefighters most likely to find in the space between the ceiling and the roof? - ANSWER-Electrical wiring Which type of door is often used as a loading dock door? - ANSWER-Vertical door Which type of window has one or more top-hinged, outward-swinging sashes that permit the window to be opened during rain? - ANSWER-Awning window Which window component is also known as glazing? - ANSWER-Glass Overhead rolling steel fire doors are commonly used to: - ANSWER-protect fire wall openings in industrial occupancies. A fuel's _____ is the total amount of thermal energy released when a specific amount of that fuel burns. - ANSWER-heat of combustion Heat that is radiated to the insulating air layer between PPE and your body: - ANSWER- can cause heat stress and failure of the PPE. Which statement about smoke is accurate? - ANSWER-Smoke has the potential to burn. How does the self-sustained chemical reaction influence the oxidation reaction in flaming combustion? - ANSWER-Increases the speed of the oxidation reaction Which type of buildings are subject to rapid fire spread because many of the protective features such as gypsum wallboard and automatic fire suppression systems are not in place? - ANSWER-Buildings under construction Which is a measure of heat energy transfer rate? - ANSWER-Heat flux Which type of phenomenon occurs when the fire rapidly transitions from the growth stage to the fully developed stage? - ANSWER-Flashover Which is an example of a self-sustaining chemical reaction? - ANSWER-Flaming combustion The total quantity of combustible contents of a building, space, or fire area is referred to as the: - ANSWER-fuel load. Which element is included in the fire tetrahedron that is not part of the fire triangle model? - ANSWER-Chemical chain reaction Which statement about flow paths and ventilation in a structure is accurate? - ANSWER-When firefighters make entry into a building, they establish new flow paths between the fire compartment and exterior vents of the building. The four stages of fire development are: - ANSWER-incipient, growth, fully developed, and decay. Which is an indicator for potential backdraft? - ANSWER-Pulsing smoke movement around small openings in the building What is the primary consideration affecting how easily solid fuels ignite? - ANSWER- Surface-to-mass ratio If there are no openings for lateral movement during the growth stage of a fire, the hot gases released during combustion will fill the compartment: - ANSWER-starting at the ceiling and filling down. In order to burn, fuel must be in a _____ state. - ANSWER-gaseous Development of a fire in the incipient stage depends largely upon the: - ANSWER- characteristics and configuration of the fuel involved. Slower fire development in large compartments is due to the _____ and the increased distance that radiated heat must travel from the fire to the contents that must be heated. - ANSWER-greater volume of air To ensure that the decay stage of a ventilation-limited fire is the fire's final stage, firefighters must provide a controlled transition of a fire in the decay stage from ventilation-limited to fuel-limited, by: - ANSWER-cooling the hot fire gases before further ventilation occurs. When a compartment fire is in ventilation-limited decay, _____ can trigger flashover quickly. - ANSWER-introduction of new oxygen Which type of fuel is difficult to extinguish using water as the only extinguishing agent? - ANSWER-Liquids that are less dense (lighter) than water Heat transfers from one body to another by three mechanisms: conduction, radiation, and: - ANSWER-convection What is the likely result if additional air is allowed into an already-ventilated compartment fire? - ANSWER-Higher peak heat release rate Which stage of fire occurs when all combustible materials in the compartment are burning at their peak heat release rate based on the available oxygen? - ANSWER-Fully developed What is the MOST common source of heat in combustion reactions? - ANSWER- Chemical energy The minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to ignite, but not sustain combustion, is its: - ANSWER-flash point. Most residential fires that develop beyond the incipient state become: - ANSWER- ventilation limited. What is the primary oxidizing agent in most fires? - ANSWER-Oxygen in the air Combustion can occur within a range of concentration of fuel vapor and air; this range is referred to as the: - ANSWER-flammable (explosive) range. The range of concentrations of fuel vapor and air within which combustion can occur is the: - ANSWER-flammable (explosive) range. What occurs during flashover? - ANSWER-The volume of burning gases can increase to fill the room's entire volume and extend out of any openings from the room. Which heat transfer mechanism is dependent on several factors including the turbulence and velocity of moving gases? - ANSWER-Convection What may occur in an oxidation reaction when the heat generated exceeds the heat being lost? - ANSWER-Spontaneous ignition During the _____ stage of fire development, the three elements of the fire triangle come together and the combustion process begins. - ANSWER-incipient A fire is said to be in the _____ stage when it runs out of either available fuel or available oxygen. - ANSWER-decay A collapsed storage shed that is fully involved in flames would be an example of a: - ANSWER-fully-developed fuel-limited fire. Which statement about energy and combustion is accurate? - ANSWER-A fuel's potential energy releases during combustion and converts to kinetic energy. In the fire environment, convection usually involves the transfer of heat through: - ANSWER-the movement of hot smoke and fire gases. In a compartment fire, the interface between the hot gas layers and cooler layer of air is commonly referred to as the: - ANSWER-neutral plane. What will occur if firefighters begin an attack on a ventilation-limited structure fire with ventilation alone? - ANSWER-The fire's heat release rate and spread will progressively increase as additional vents are made. Materials that burn at normal oxygen levels will burn more intensely in _____ atmospheres. - ANSWER-oxygen-enriched When a structural member such as a window, roof, or doorway fails, introducing a new source of oxygen to a fire, _____ ventilation has occurred. - ANSWER-unplanned Which measurement is often used to measure how long PPE will protect a firefighter in an interior fire environment? - ANSWER-Heat flux to the PPE What may occur if water is added to a burning liquid that is less dense than water? - ANSWER-The water may disperse the burning liquid instead of extinguishing it. Which type of electrical heating occurs when the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits? - ANSWER-Overcurrent or overload Which statement about the dangers of products of combustion is accurate? - ANSWER- Low oxygen concentrations alone can result in hypoxia or death. When a substance changes from one type of matter into another, such as two or more substances combining to form compounds, the substance undergoes a: - ANSWER- chemical reaction. What causes flaming combustion to occur? - ANSWER-A gaseous fuel mixes with an adequate amount of oxygen and heats to ignition temperature. What provides the best indicators of structural integrity? - ANSWER-Information gathered at the scene Which statement BEST describes a fire in a large compartment or a compartment with a high ceiling? - ANSWER-In structures with high ceilings, a large volume of hot smoke and fire gases can accumulate at the ceiling level, while conditions at floor level remain relatively unchanged. By which mechanism of heat transfer does heat travel in a straight line at the speed of light, allowing heat to travel through vacuums and air spaces? - ANSWER-Radiation What is the measurement of the average kinetic energy in the particles of a sample of matter? - ANSWER-Temperature A compartment is any: - ANSWER-open space with no complete fire barrier dividing it. Which action will transition a compartment fire in a modern structure from ventilation- limited to fuel-limited? - ANSWER-Extinguishing some of the fuel Which statement describes the factor that MOST influences compartment fire development? - ANSWER-Whether the fire is fuel-limited or ventilation-limited What occurs when a gas is compressed? - ANSWER-Heat is generated Using extinguishing agents other than water and foam to interrupt the combustion reaction is referred to as: - ANSWER-chemical flame inhibition. What is the most effective means of establishing awareness of hazards in commercial, industrial, and storage facilities with large fuel loads? - ANSWER-Performing and updating preincident surveys When solid fuels are heated, they begin to _____ and release fuel gases and vapors. - ANSWER-pyrolize Which element of the fire tetrahedron is included to explain flaming (gas-phase) combustion? - ANSWER-Chemical chain reaction Which statement about ventilation and wind considerations is MOST accurate? - ANSWER-Wind can increase the pressure inside the structure, driving smoke and flames into unburned portions of the structure and onto advancing firefighters. In a ventilation-limited compartment fire that has a large volume of flammable gases, opening a door or window could result in: - ANSWER-backdraft The transfer of heat through and between solids is known as: - ANSWER-conduction Fire spreading from a wall to a nearby couch due to radiant heat transfer is an example of: - ANSWER-heat reflectivity. How does a compartment fire affect pressure in and around gases in the compartment? - ANSWER-Heat from a fire increases the pressure of the surrounding gases. Firefighters working in the exhaust portion of the flow path will: - ANSWER-feel the increase in temperature as the velocity and/or turbulence increases. Which means of influencing fire dynamics is typically a tactic in wildland fires or liquid and gas fires? - ANSWER-Fuel removal When refilling an SCBA cylinder, firefighters must: - ANSWER-ensure that the cylinder is completely full, but not overpressurized. Which SCBA component controls air flow from the cylinder when the regulator fails? - ANSWER-Bypass valve Which SCBA component includes a speaking diaphragm that allows firefighters to communicate with teammates? - ANSWER-Facepiece assembly What is a safety consideration for PPE? - ANSWER-Never wear PPE that does not fit. Which piece of PPE should be worn during structural fire fighting operations? - ANSWER-Protective hood How can firefighters overcome limitations caused by SCBA weight and decreased mobility? - ANSWER-Train with the units they will use on the fireground U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations require that all personnel at roadway incidents wear: - ANSWER-high-visibility vests. Which SCBA limitation would a firefighter be able to overcome through physical fitness and regular medical evaluations? - ANSWER-Insufficient lung capacity What should a firefighter do if an SCBA inspection reveals that repairs are necessary? - ANSWER-Immediately report the needed repairs to the appropriate person Prior to donning SCBA, firefighters should: - ANSWER-check the air cylinder gauge to make sure the cylinder is full. Improperly cleaned or maintained PPE: - ANSWER-can cause illness or injury. Which is a safety consideration related to PPE? - ANSWER-Always wear protective clothing that fits properly. Who is usually in charge of performing annual SCBA inspection and maintenance? - ANSWER-Factory-qualified technician Which component of the protective coat is designed to make firefighters more visible at night or in low light conditions? - ANSWER-Retroreflective trim Which emergency exit indicator would signal the need to immediately exit the hazardous area? - ANSWER-Activation of the SCBA low-pressure air alarm A firefighter should never alter PPE because it may void the manufacturer's warranty and: - ANSWER-endanger his or her life. What is a function of station and work uniforms? - ANSWER-Identify wearer as a member of the fire department In order to avoid contaminating living quarters, _____ should NOT be worn during emergency operations. - ANSWER-station footwear Factors that firefighters have the most control over that affect the success of SCBA use include physical condition, agility, and: - ANSWER-lung capacity. What should you do if you experience symptoms of oxygen deficiency such as light- headedness or loss of coordination? - ANSWER-Report symptoms and immediately evacuate the area Which SCBA component includes a control valve and a high-pressure hose attached to one end? - ANSWER-Air cylinder The end-of-service-time indicator (EOSTI): - ANSWER-uses an audible alarm and flashing light or vibration to warn the wearer that the air supply is almost depleted. Which statement regarding the use of fire fighting helmets is accurate? - ANSWER-Ear flaps must be folded down, even if wearing a protective hood. What is a general guideline for donning an SCBA facepiece? - ANSWER-Center the harness at the rear of the head. Which statement describes the function of an auto-cascade system? - ANSWER- Completely automated fill station that fills air cylinders to a programmable pressure All PPE designed for structural fire fighting must meet the requirements of: - ANSWER- NFPA 1971. Which situation would likely have an oxygen-deficient atmosphere in which respiratory protection would be necessary? - ANSWER-Rescue in a sewer Which statement about replacing SCBA cylinders is MOST accurate? - ANSWER- Changing out SCBA cylinders can be accomplished by either one or two people. The SCBA backplate and harness assembly: - ANSWER-is used to hold the breathing air cylinder. SCBA can help protect from _____, which can be caused by inhaling heated gases. - ANSWER-asphyxiation Which type of cleaning can be done at an incident scene by brushing off loose debris and rinsing the PPE? - ANSWER-Routine cleaning What is the primary type of respiratory protection used in the fire service? - ANSWER- Atmosphere-supplying respirator (ASR) In order to stay as safe as possible while wearing SCBA, it is important to: - ANSWER- keep SCBA on and activated until you leave the IDLH area. Which situation would require firefighters to wear hearing protection? - ANSWER- Operating power tools Fire fighting boots must be: - ANSWER-high enough to protect the lower leg. Immediately prior to donning SCBA, firefighters should: - ANSWER-check the cylinder gauge to make sure the cylinder is full. Firefighters should wear SCBA in hazardous atmospheres, because exposure to particulate contaminants such as _____ can cause lung cancer or cardiovascular disease. - ANSWER-vehicle exhaust emissions In order to be as visible to motorists as possible during roadway incident operations, firefighters should wear: - ANSWER-high-visibility vests. After each use, the SCBA facepiece should be: - ANSWER-washed with warm water and a mild disinfectant. Which piece of information must be included on the permanent compliance label inside each piece of PPE? - ANSWER-Cleaning precautions When donning an unmounted SCBA, the SCBA unit should be: - ANSWER-placed on the ground with all of the straps extended. Which situation would likely be granted an exception to the rule that prohibits filling an unshielded air cylinder while a firefighter is wearing the SCBA? - ANSWER-A rapid intervention crew (RIC) is rescuing a trapped or incapacitated firefighter. How do firefighter breathing air replenishment systems make fire fighting operations in high-rise buildings more efficient? - ANSWER-Provide an endless supply of breathing air to any floor within the structure On an SCBA air cylinder, the pressure gauge is used to: - ANSWER-display the amount of air left in the cylinder. Annual SCBA inspections and maintenance should be performed by: - ANSWER- specially trained, factory-qualified technicians. Personal alert safety system (PASS) alarms are designed to activate when: - ANSWER- a firefighter is motionless for more than 30 seconds. What should you do if you determine that your PPE requires advanced repairs? - ANSWER-Report the needed repairs to your supervisor What is structural PPE designed to do? - ANSWER-Cover all portions of skin while reaching, bending, or moving When exiting an IDLH environment, it is important to: - ANSWER-use the same path that you used to enter. When properly worn, fire fighting gloves: - ANSWER-must completely cover the wristlet of the protective coat. Which SCBA equipment limitation would MOST directly impact a firefighter's ability to navigate on scene? - ANSWER-Limited visibility What is the function of the heads-up display (HUD) on the SCBA facepiece assembly? - ANSWER-Displays lights that indicate the amount of air left in the SCBA cylinder Why is it important to ensure that PPE is dry before wearing it into a fire? - ANSWER- Moisture can transfer heat rapidly and result in steam burns. Seat-mounted SCBA: - ANSWER-allow firefighters to don the SCBA while still inside the apparatus. Which piece of wildland fire fighting PPE is a piece of flame-resistant fabric that attaches to the helmet? - ANSWER-Face/neck shroud Which guidelines should be followed when using SCBA? - ANSWER-Only enter an IDLH atmosphere if you have been certified to wear SCBA and properly fit tested. PPE must be properly cleaned because chemicals, oils, and petroleum products on the outer shell: - ANSWER-can ignite when exposed to fire. How can a firefighter help ensure that they will not be affected by limitations caused by equipment that is in poor condition? - ANSWER-Frequent inspections and maintenance Open-circuit SCBA models: - ANSWER-provide compressed air to the wearer. Which statement about structural fire fighting protective coats is accurate? - ANSWER- The outer shell, moisture barrier, and thermal barrier must always be worn together. How can a firefighter overcome psychological limitations such as fear and claustrophobia while wearing SCBA? - ANSWER-Repeated training with the SCBA Airborne pathogens may cause illness through inhalation or: - ANSWER-direct contact. A _____ extinguisher requires the operator to apply pressure to a pump that increases pressure within the container and forces the agent out the nozzle. - ANSWER-manual pump Which material is a Class B fuel? - ANSWER-Gasoline Which statement about dry chemical extinguishers is accurate? - ANSWER-Particles of the agent may become airborne during application. What should be the next step after choosing the appropriate fire extinguisher for a fire? - ANSWER-Inspect the extinguisher to make sure it is charged and operable. _____ is an example of a Class D fuel. - ANSWER-Magnesium A _____ extinguisher should be used in areas with highly sensitive computer equipment because it will cause less damage to the equipment than other extinguishers. - ANSWER-Clean agent In which situation would a dry chemical extinguisher be MOST effective? - ANSWER- Fuel spill fire at a vehicle accident When operating a portable fire extinguisher,: - ANSWER-aim the nozzle at the base of the fire. Class K fires involve: - ANSWER-cooking oils. Which method of extinguishment excludes oxygen from the burning process? - ANSWER-Smothering Portable fire extinguishers are classified according to the: - ANSWER-type of fire they are designed to extinguish. When an extinguishing agent is determined to be safe and effective for use on combustible metals, it will: - ANSWER-include application instructions on the faceplate. Which extinguishing agent should be used for a Class D fire? - ANSWER-Dry powder When operating a portable fire extinguisher, it is safest to approach the fire: - ANSWER- with the wind at your back. Where would a clean agent extinguisher likely be used? - ANSWER-Computer room fire What is the first step in the PASS application method of operating a portable fire extinguisher? - ANSWER-Pull the pin to break the thin wire or plastic seal. Which statement about Class C fires is accurate? - ANSWER-Once the electricity has been shut off to a Class C fire, it may be treated as a Class A or Class B fire. Class K rated extinguishers work because of _____, which converts fatty acids into a soapy film. - ANSWER-saponification What action should be taken if an entire extinguisher is discharged but the fire is not extinguished? - ANSWER-Withdraw and reassess the situation Pump-type water extinguishers are intended primarily for use on: - ANSWER-ground cover fires. When using wire rope or cable from a winch, rescuers must: - ANSWER-ensure that personnel are clear from the operating area. What should be done if an inspection reveals that a rope has shards of glass or other foreign objects imbedded in it? - ANSWER-Remove the rope from service and have it destroyed. In order for life safety rope to be reused in life safety situations, it must NOT be: - ANSWER-exposed to heat or direct flame. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) prohibits using rope to hoist: - ANSWER-pressurized SCBA cylinders. Braid-on-braid rope is usually used: - ANSWER-as utility rope. What should be used to clean synthetic fiber ropes? - ANSWER-Lukewarm water and mild detergent A(An) _____ knot is primarily used to attach a rope to an object such as a pike pole or hoseline. - ANSWER-clove hitch Natural fiber ropes: - ANSWER-should not be used for life safety applications. How should a pike pole be hoisted? - ANSWER-Pike pointing up An overhand safety knot: - ANSWER-can be used to keep the running end of the rope from slipping through the first knot that is tied. Which type of knot is used primarily on life safety ropes to tie ropes of equal diameters together? - ANSWER-Figure-eight bend A _____ is a bend in the knot that is created by bending the rope back on itself while keeping the sides parallel. - ANSWER-bight What should be done if inspection on laid rope reveals that one rope has rot? - ANSWER-Remove all surrounding ropes from service, then clean and reinspect them. If foreign objects that can damage fibers are found in a rope during inspection, the rope: - ANSWER-should be removed from service and destroyed. Natural fiber ropes are: - ANSWER-permitted to be used for utility applications. Which knot is a good choice to use when a closed loop is needed? - ANSWER-Figure- eight on a bight Which type of rope construction is used for life safety ropes? - ANSWER-Kernmantle What is one disadvantage of synthetic fiber rope? - ANSWER-Melts when exposed to heat Which knot is used to provide an extra level of protection when tying other types of knots? - ANSWER-Overhand safety knot When hoisting tools and equipment, always remember to: - ANSWER-make sure that all personnel are clear of the hoisting area. A _____ is used to control equipment that is being hoisted by preventing it from spinning or snagging. - ANSWER-tag line To ensure that rope stays in good working condition, it is important to: - ANSWER-avoid abrasion and unnecessary wear. Which part of the rope is used to tie a knot? - ANSWER-Working end At an emergency incident, utility rope can be used for: - ANSWER-creating a control zone perimeter. Rope logs: - ANSWER-should include information about incidents that result in impact loading. Which type of webbing is commonly used for rescue applications? - ANSWER-Tubular webbing How can utility rope be used during rescue operations? - ANSWER-Marking control zone perimeters What should be done in order to ensure that ropes remain in good condition? - ANSWER-Keep all ropes away from rust. Which type of ladder has a fixed length and can be from 6 to 32 feet (2 to 10 m) long? - ANSWER-Single ladder The designated length of a ladder is: - ANSWER-the total length of a single section ladder and the maximum extended length of an extension ladder. What are the horizontal cross members of a ladder that provide a foothold in order for a firefighter to climb? - ANSWER-Rungs What safety precaution must be taken when raising a ladder near overhead electrical wires? - ANSWER-Look up multiple times to check for the location of the wires. Before raising a ladder, it is important to: - ANSWER-look for overhead obstructions. What is a safety guideline for working with ladders? - ANSWER-Use a leg lock or ladder belt when working from a ground ladder. The recommended climbing angle for ladders is usually _____ degrees. - ANSWER-75 When preparing to carry a ground ladder stored on an apparatus, it is important to know: - ANSWER-whether the ladder is stored with the butt toward the rear or front of the apparatus. If a firefighter needs to use both hands while working on a ladder, he or she should use a ladder belt or _____ to secure to the ladder. - ANSWER-leg lock Which ladder should be raised by at least three firefighters? - ANSWER-35 foot (10.5 m) extension ladder Swivel plates attached to the butt of the ladder are called: - ANSWER-footpads. What are the two main structural members of a ladder which run parallel to one another and support the rungs? - ANSWER-Beams How should a ladder be placed when rescuing a victim from a window? - ANSWER- Ladder tip raised just below the window sill When two firefighters are used to raise a ladder, the: - ANSWER-firefighter at the butt end is responsible for determining appropriate ladder placement. When removing a ladder that is mounted on the side of an apparatus,: - ANSWER- unlatch the securing devices and lift the ladder off the bracket. When personnel are working on the roof or upper stories,: - ANSWER-there must be at least two means of escape in different locations. Why do some ladders have a white tip or reflective tape attached to the tip? - ANSWER- To increase visibility in smoky or dark conditions Who generally places the ladder the correct distance from the building and is in charge of voicing commands when two firefighters work together to raise a ladder? - ANSWER- The heeler To safely climb an extension ladder, it is recommended to place your feet: - ANSWER- near the beams with the halyard tied in the center of the rungs. In order to safely climb a ladder, a firefighter should: - ANSWER-climb using leg muscles rather than arm muscles. Which type of ladder has one or more fly sections that can be adjusted to various heights? - ANSWER-Extension ladder What should be done if damage is found during a ladder inspection? - ANSWER- Remove the ladder from service until it can be repaired and tested. According to NFPA 1931, all ladders are required to have a: - ANSWER-certification label. What feature does a roof ladder have that a single ladder does not have? - ANSWER- Hooks used to secure it over the top of the roof's ridge line Ladders are most stable and offer the easiest climbing position when placed at a: - ANSWER-distance from the building equal to one-fourth the ladder's working length. What marking or label does NFPA 1931 require to be on all ladders? - ANSWER- Manufacturer's name plate When assisting an unconscious victim down a ladder, special consideration should be taken to: - ANSWER-place the victim's feet outside the rails in order to prevent entanglement. The lowest, widest section of an extension ladder that always maintains contact with the ground while the ladder is being raised is the: - ANSWER-bed section. What are the pawls (dogs) of a ladder designed to do? - ANSWER-Hold the fly section in place after it has been extended What piece of information should firefighters know in order to help ladder operations be as quick and efficient as possible? - ANSWER-Types and locations of ladders carried on the apparatus Modern metal and fiberglass ladders are designed to be used with the: - ANSWER-fly facing out. A Fire Fighter I should be able to perform general ladder maintenance, including: - ANSWER-storing ladders so that they are free from moisture and vehicle exhaust. What is a safety precaution that should be taken when heeling a ladder? - ANSWER- Look forward, not up, when someone is climbing the ladder. Where would generally be the safest placement for a ground ladder that is going to be used for rescue? - ANSWER-The tip of the ladder is raised to just below the window sill. In order to safely lift a ground ladder, it is important: - ANSWER-to lift on command of a firefighter who can see the entire team. Which feature does an extension ladder have that a single or roof ladder does not have? - ANSWER-A fly section that can be raised to various working heights Which part of a ladder is placed on the ground when the ladder is positioned? - ANSWER-Butt The _____ is the rope or cable used to raise the upper sections of an extension ladder. - ANSWER-halyard Shifting a ladder that is already in a vertical position: - ANSWER-should be limited to short distances. Once an extension ladder is raised and in place, the halyard should be: - ANSWER- secured to prevent someone from becoming tangled in it. For which of the ladder mounting locations would firefighters access the ladder from the rear of the apparatus? - ANSWER-Laying flat in a compartment under the right side of the hose bed What does an extension ladder's size classification indicate? - ANSWER-The full length to which it can be extended When cleaning a ladder, firefighters should: - ANSWER-look for damage or wear and report any defects. When three firefighters work together to raise a ladder, one is at the tip, one is at the butt, and the third is positioned: - ANSWER-supporting the beam. Which type of ladder is likely to be affected by water damage? - ANSWER-Wooden ladder Which two tools are often used in combination with each other for forcible entry and are referred to as the "irons?" - ANSWER-Flat-head axe and Halligan tool The most common type of locking or latching mechanisms found in residential homes are: - ANSWER-cylindrical locks. To prevent injuries while using forcible entry tools, always: - ANSWER-ensure that you have room to operate the tool properly. Which type of windows may require a sledge hammer or battering ram to break? - ANSWER-Fixed windows Which type of lock commonly found in residential applications has a single cylinder and is mounted above the door knob? - ANSWER-Tubular deadbolt lock Which kind of door would be forced by inserting a rotary saw blade through the opening and cutting the security bar? - ANSWER-Double-swinging door with a drop bar Before performing forcible entry at a commercial or industrial occupancy, a firefighter should "try before you pry" and: - ANSWER-look for a lock box near the main entrance. What should be done to minimize damage caused during forcible entry? - ANSWER- First try to open the door normally. Which is an unsafe action that can cause injury to firefighters? - ANSWER-Using a cutting tool to cut a material for which it was not designed Interior plaster or gypsum partition walls: - ANSWER-can often be breached using hand tools or saws. Partial or total structural collapse could be a direct result of: - ANSWER-breaching a load-bearing exterior wall of a fire-weakened structure. Which type of tool works as a lever to provide a mechanical advantage when forcing entry? - ANSWER-Prying Which rescue tool can be placed in a door frame to spread the frame far enough apart so that the door can swing open? - ANSWER-Hydraulic ram Pushing/pulling tools such as pike poles: - ANSWER-should not be used for prying because the handles may break. Breaking window glass to make entry to a structure can be hazardous because it may create flying glass shards and: - ANSWER-change the flow path within the structure. Which method is safe to use when carrying an axe? - ANSWER-Blade pointing away from your body Forcible entry techniques used to gain access to a building: - ANSWER-are employed when it is not possible to enter using normal methods. Which cutting tool would be used to cut through shingles and other roof coverings? - ANSWER-Pick-head axe Do NOT operate any power saw when: - ANSWER-working in a flammable atmosphere. Windows with safety film may require _____ to break the windows. - ANSWER-cutting tools K-tools and shove knives are used for: - ANSWER-through-the-lock forcible entry. A _____ is an example of a striking tool used for forcible entry. - ANSWER-sledge hammer Manual bolt cutters cannot cut hasps, padlock shackles, or: - ANSWER-high-security chains. One problem with breaching interior and exterior walls is that: - ANSWER-they may conceal electrical wires and gas pipes. Power tools should be started: - ANSWER-in the area where the work will be performed. When breaching an exterior metal wall with a rotary saw, firefighters should: - ANSWER-have a charged hoseline or fire extinguisher available. Security doors and gates cause a problem for firefighters during forcible entry operations, because they: - ANSWER-require extra planning and will delay entry. What is required for forcible entry operations involving cutting torches? - ANSWER- Charged hoseline standing by The techniques used in structural forcible entry: - ANSWER-should do minimal damage and provide quick access. When using power saws for forcible entry, firefighters must: - ANSWER-be aware of hidden electrical wires and gas lines. Which tool was developed to force entry on locks with protective collars or cone-shaped covers? - ANSWER-A-tool When using a rotary saw to cut metal, firefighters should: - ANSWER-have a charged hoseline nearby. When selecting tools to perform forcible entry, firefighters must select the tool that: - ANSWER-is most appropriate for the task at hand. Which location would likely be protected by a fire door? - ANSWER-The entrance to an office exit stairwell Interior fire doors: - ANSWER-will not lock in place when closed. Which tool would best be suited for forcing a metal-clad inward-swinging door in a masonry wall? - ANSWER-Rabbit tool When gaining access to a property by forcing a gate, firefighters should: - ANSWER- choose the method that is effective, but causes the least damage. A _____ is a wedge-shaped tool that widens to break the shackle of a padlock. - ANSWER-duck-billed lock breaker Which type of lock is mounted on the inside surface of the door and is used as a supplemental lock for doors? - ANSWER-Rim lock Which method would be used to force an overhead door? - ANSWER-Use a rotary saw to cut an opening, then enter and use the lift mechanism to open the door fully. Which factor affects the decision of where to force entry? - ANSWER-How forcible entry will affect ventilation Which type of locking device that is often found in hotel rooms restricts the opening of a door using a U-shaped shackle that connects with a shaft and knob mounted on the doorframe? - ANSWER-Door limiter If you can see the hinges of a door, it: - ANSWER-swings toward you. Wooden tool handles should be inspected for: - ANSWER-splinters. Wallboard that has been reinforced with Lexan®: - ANSWER-can be identified during preincident surveys. Which situation would call for the use of a pushing or pulling tool such as a drywall hook or a pike pole? - ANSWER-Opening a ceiling to check for fire extension What should you do if you find a forcible entry tool that is damaged? - ANSWER-Tag the tool, remove it from service, and send it to the proper authority Which method is designed to enable a rescuer to move a victim up or down a stairway? - ANSWER-Incline drag Why is breaching interior walls not a preferred method of escape? - ANSWER-It requires strength, depletes air supply, and creates an additional flow path. Which acronym describes the mandatory tools carried by a rapid intervention crew? - ANSWER-AWARE - Air, Water, A Radio, Extrication An atmosphere is considered oxygen-deficient when oxygen levels are: - ANSWER- below 19.5%. In which situation would it be appropriate to call a MAYDAY? - ANSWER-A firefighter is trapped After locating a downed firefighter in an IDLH atmosphere, what is the RIC's priority? - ANSWER-Exiting the IDLH atmosphere In which search method does the leader remain at a fixed point while searching team members spread out through a room to complete a search? - ANSWER-Oriented- search method Immediately after a MAYDAY is broadcast, all: - ANSWER-radio traffic unrelated to the MAYDAY must stop. Which action will improve survivability and possibly provide more time to escape a situation that is immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH)? - ANSWER-Staying low to the floor Before entering an area that is immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH), you must: - ANSWER-know an alternate means of egress from the structure. What is the purpose of a rapid intervention crew (RIC)? - ANSWER-Rescue injured or trapped firefighters Which situation would be considered a MAYDAY situation? - ANSWER-SCBA malfunctions During a wide-area search, every team member is equipped with a: - ANSWER-tether line. To remain safe when evacuating a structure,: - ANSWER-keep in contact with the wall. When an evacuation signal is given, all units on scene must: - ANSWER-give a personnel accountability report (PAR). To employ effective air management techniques during search and rescue, firefighters must: - ANSWER-check SCBA air levels after periods of heavy work. When conducting search and rescue operations, firefighters should: - ANSWER-close doors to create protected areas and avoid creating additional flow paths. What should be done when an injured victim is found during search and rescue? - ANSWER-Injured victims should not be moved until they have been assessed and treated, unless they or the firefighter are in immediate danger. _____ consist of at least two trained members standing by in case a firefighter must be rescued. - ANSWER-Rapid intervention crews When any evacuation signal is given, all exiting crews must: - ANSWER-proceed to a designated safe area outside the collapse zone. Firefighters use air-monitoring devices to: - ANSWER-detect oxygen levels and hazardous substances. Situational awareness during structural search and rescue includes: - ANSWER- communicating changes in fire spread and visibility levels. Which tool or piece of equipment does a rapid intervention crew (RIC) need to carry? - ANSWER-Spare SCBA cylinder Air monitoring is performed at incidents in order to determine the: - ANSWER- appropriate PPE and equipment to use. An advantage of using thermal imagers during search and rescue operations is: - ANSWER-improved visibility in an obscured environment. Your point of no return is based on: - ANSWER-the lowest cylinder gauge reading of any member of the team. The AHJ should establish action levels that describe how firefighters should respond to high- or low-level alarms while performing: - ANSWER-air monitoring. Actions such as opening a bypass valve on a cylinder, sharing air, and breathing directly from the cylinder are: - ANSWER-possible solutions to air emergencies. What is a rescuer's role in occupant self-evacuation? - ANSWER-Establishing a safe haven away from the structure To be physically and mentally prepared for survival during search and rescue operations, you should: - ANSWER-practice emergency exit techniques. During search and rescue operations, rescuers should NOT: - ANSWER-enter a structure where survivors are not likely to be found. How does staying low to the floor improve survivability? - ANSWER-Temperatures are cooler and air may be less contaminated If an exterior wall must be breached during search and rescue operations, rescue personnel: - ANSWER-must coordinate with the IC and ventilation teams before making the opening. Which basic firefighting skill serves as an essential survival skill during search and rescue operations? - ANSWER-Forcing a window or cutting through debris Which type of carry or drag is commonly used for children, but is not practical for unconscious adults? - ANSWER-Cradle-in-arms lift/carry Before entering an IDLH environment, you must: - ANSWER-ensure that your SCBA is turned on, working properly, and contains a full cylinder of air. When you are seeking to escape and you locate a window, you should: - ANSWER-ask Command if opening the window will make interior conditions worse. Search and rescue marks should be placed: - ANSWER-on the lower third of the door, the lower third of the adjacent wall, or in the landing of the adjacent stairs. An atmosphere is considered hazardous if it contains a hazardous gas in excess of 10 percent of the hazardous material's: - ANSWER-lower explosive limit. What types of tools and equipment do search and rescue personnel carry? - ANSWER- Thermal imagers and forcible entry tools Why must locating and isolating the fire be a priority before any search? - ANSWER- Entering to search provides a ventilation opening to the structure, which could cause fire to spread. When does the secondary search take place? - ANSWER-After the fire is under control If air monitoring indicates that the oxygen level in the atmosphere is below 19.5 percent,: - ANSWER-the IC or Incident Safety Officer should be notified. Which condition specific to search and rescue operations should be communicated to crew members and/or your supervisor? - ANSWER-Known locations of victims or occupants Why should personnel search behind doors and on the floor below windows? - ANSWER-Smoke may overcome occupants while they are trying to escape. Escaping to a safe haven is the best options when: - ANSWER-there is imminent threat of structural collapse. Which is an accurate statement about using an air-monitoring device? - ANSWER-If devices are used incorrectly, the safety of everyone around can be in jeopardy. A bump test is performed to: - ANSWER-verify that a gas detector is functioning properly. One limitation of thermal imagers is that: - ANSWER-If a structure is carpeted, they may not be able to detect fire on the floors below. When should you check your SCBA gauge to see how much air you have left? - ANSWER-When the assigned area is reached A MAYDAY is called when: - ANSWER-a firefighter is in immediate danger. Panic, claustrophobia, and disorientation are effects of: - ANSWER-obscured vision conditions. Ventilation equipment that fails inspection should be: - ANSWER-marked out of service Which inspection hole is the easiest and fastest to cut? - ANSWER-Kerf cut Tactical ventilation should be coordinated with an emphasis on: - ANSWER-Controlling oxygen availability The longer a structure or compartment is allowed to ventilate without water being applied, the sooner _____ occurs. - ANSWER-Flashover Firefighters use ventilation to control: - ANSWER-Where hot gases and smoke exhaust from a structure Firefighters should continue to wear SCBA and monitor the environment until: - ANSWER-the atmosphere is confirmed to be safe. When ventilating shingle-covered pitched roofs, always cut the exhaust openings: - ANSWER-at or very near the highest point of the roof, when possible. Which type of ventilation requires that firefighters operating the nozzle remain in the heated, hazardous atmosphere throughout the operation? - ANSWER-Hydraulic ventilation What can be used to monitor the impact of ventilation and identify possible ventilation locations? - ANSWER-Thermal imagers Which type of ventilation is accomplished by using fans, blowers, or smoke ejectors to create negative or positive pressure? - ANSWER-Mechanical ventilation When performing a positive-pressure attack, the exhaust openings must be located: - ANSWER-in the fire compartment. Cutting an inspection hole helps determine: - ANSWER-the location of the fire Which type of ventilation is usually required for fires in windowless buildings? - ANSWER-Mechanical ventilation Fires in windowless buildings usually require _____ ventilation for removal of smoke. - ANSWER-mechanical A safety precaution when performing vertical ventilation is to work: - ANSWER-with the wind at your back or side to protect yourself from heat, smoke, and embers. What is the purpose of a trench cut? - ANSWER-Create a defensible line ahead of the fire's spread Which is an indication of possible roof collapse? - ANSWER-HVAC units sagging or leaning Which is an indication of possible roof collapse? - ANSWER-Melting asphalt Which tools would be used to open a ceiling after a ventilation hole has been made in the roof? - ANSWER-Pike poles Which would be an example of natural horizontal ventilation? - ANSWER-Opening doors or windows The _____ effect occurs when heated smoke and fire gases travel upward and then spread horizontally and stratify. - ANSWER-Stack Which is a condition specific to tactical ventilation that should be communicated to crew members and/or a supervisor? - ANSWER-Locations of overhead power lines Which is a condition specific to tactical ventilation that should be communicated to crew members and/or a supervisor? - ANSWER-Wind direction and strength When performing tactical ventilation, what action has the most impact on successful ventilation? - ANSWER-Controlling oxygen availability Which type of fires are difficult to access without effective ventilation because firefighters would have to descend through intense rising heat and smoke to get to the seat of the fire? - ANSWER-Basement fires Which type of ventilation consists of opening doors and windows to allow air currents and pressure differences to remove heat and smoke from a building? - ANSWER- Natural horizontal ventilation Which is an example of vertical ventilation? - ANSWER-Opening existing roof access doors, scuttles, or skylights When ventilating shingle-covered pitched roofs, always cut exhaust openings: - ANSWER-At or very near the highest point of the roof when possible When ventilation work on a roof is complete, personnel should: - ANSWER-Evacuate the roof promptly When an enclosed secondary stairwell is used for evacuating occupants, what should be located at the bottom floor to pressurize the stairwell and keep smoke from entering it? - ANSWER-PPV fans What is the goal of positive-pressure ventilation (PPV)? - ANSWER-Increase pressure to higher than the exterior of the structure What is the goal of positive-pressure ventilation? - ANSWER-Increase pressure to higher than the exterior of the structure, not higher than the fire can produce When performing positive-pressure ventilation,: - ANSWER-firefighters can set up PPV blowers without entering the smoke-filled environment. Unplanned ventilation can significantly influence _____ in ventilation-limited fires. - ANSWER-Fire behavior What type of nozzles can be used before ventilation to reduce the risks associated with ventilating a windowless basement? - ANSWER-Piercing nozzles Which is a reason for ventilation during overhaul? - ANSWER-Minimize property damage to the greatest extent possible Which air movement equipment is used for hydraulic ventilation? - ANSWER-Hoselines and nozzles When performing wind assisted natural horizontal ventilation, windows and doors: - ANSWER-on the downwind side of the structure should be opened first. Which would be an example of mechanical ventilation? - ANSWER-Using fans or ejectors Horizontal ventilation can be employed effectively in a basement if the basement: - ANSWER-has ground level windows or below ground level windows in wells. What has an even higher priority in high-rise buildings because they often have more occupants than other structures? - ANSWER-Life safety Nearby structures and vegetation can be ignited if _____ carries hot fire brands or embers aloft. - ANSWER-convection When wind speeds are 10 mph (15 kph) or faster, firefighters are safest working: - ANSWER-with the wind at their backs. When ventilating flat roofs, the most common openings are: - ANSWER-square or rectangular. When performing hydraulic ventilation, set the fog nozzle on a pattern: - ANSWER-wide enough to cover the exhaust opening. What occurs when fresh air (oxygen) from ventilation is introduced into a room, causing gases to reignite and rapid fire development to occur? - ANSWER-Flashover What disrupts the ventilation strategy and causes the fire to grow? - ANSWER-Breaking windows unnecessarily For what situation would an incident commander order a trench cut? - ANSWER-The main fire is too large to extinguish Mechanical ventilation is designed to: - ANSWER-supplement effects of natural ventilation. Which structural element may contribute to roof failure during a fire? - ANSWER- Lightweight roof trusses Which air movement equipment is used to position smoke ejectors and fans in doors and windows? - ANSWER-Stacking and hanging devices When performing vertical ventilation, extend ground ladders at least _____ rungs above the edge of the roof or top of the parapet wall. - ANSWER-three When performing positive-pressure ventilation in commercial and multistory buildings, a main problem in aboveground operations is coordinating the: - ANSWER-opening and closing of doors in stairwells used to ventilate the building. Which type of ventilation is the most effective for clearing contaminated structures of smoke? - ANSWER-Mechanical ventilation Negative-pressure ventilation requires that the opening around the fan: - ANSWER-be sealed to prevent outside air from being drawn in around the fan. When coordinating ventilation with search and rescue, ventilation should be delayed until: - ANSWER-lines are charged and crews are ready. What should be done in order to prevent mechanical damage to fire hose? - ANSWER- Clear windows of broken glass before deploying hose through them. Which type of hose transports water from the pumping apparatus to the nozzle where it is applied to the fire? - ANSWER-Attack hose In which hose load does the hose lay on its edge in folds that lay next to each other? - ANSWER-Accordion load Which is the best way to load large diameter supply hose? - ANSWER-Flat load The part of the coupling where it attaches to the hose is called the: - ANSWER-shank Which preconnected hose load has hose folds that are laid into the hose bed in an S- shape? - ANSWER-Triple layer load Which type of lugs are shallow holes drilled into booster hose couplings that require a special spanner wrench to tighten? - ANSWER-Recessed lugs When loading hose into the hose bed on an apparatus, hose should be: - ANSWER- loaded loose enough to fit a gloved hand between the folds. Hard suction hose is commonly used: - ANSWER-for drafting from a static water source. Which statement describes two-way couplings? - ANSWER-Do not have male and female threads The _____ on a coupling is a flattened angle at the end of the threads that helps prevent cross-threading when connecting couplings. - ANSWER-Higbee cut Before fire hose and couplings are stored or placed back into service, they should be: - ANSWER-inspected for damage to the hose jacket and threads. Which hose roll leaves only one coupling exposed? - ANSWER-Straight roll Fire hose should be washed with mild soap or detergent using scrub brushes: - ANSWER-if it has been exposed to oil. Which is a guideline for loading hose? - ANSWER-Remove kinks and twists from the hose when forming a loop. Booster hose is designed to be carried: - ANSWER-on reels mounted to the apparatus. Which type of hose transports water from the hydrant or static water source to the pumping apparatus? - ANSWER-Supply hose What can be done to help prevent age deterioration in fire hose? - ANSWER-Regularly repack unused hose loads A fire hose is labeled according to the: - ANSWER-size of its inside diameter. Which hose roll creates a compact roll that can easily be transported for special situations, such as at a high-rise incident? - ANSWER-Twin donut roll What can be done to help prevent thermal damage to hose? - ANSWER-Avoid laying hose on hot pavement to dry. Corrosion can occur to fire hose couplings when: - ANSWER-exposure to a substance weakens the metal over time. Preconnected attack hose must be: - ANSWER-fully deployed from the hose bed before charging the line. A _____ can be carried completely on the shoulder and clear of the ground, which makes it less likely that the hose will catch on obstacles. - ANSWER-minuteman load How should hard intake hose be cleaned after use? - ANSWER-Rinse with clear water How can mechanical damage to hoselines be avoided? - ANSWER-Deploy hoselines away from debris In order to prevent mildew, _____ hose must be dried before being stored. - ANSWER- woven-jacket natural fiber To prevent damage to hose when storing it in racks, the hose should be: - ANSWER- rolled with the male coupling inside the roll. What is the function of hose couplings? - ANSWER-Connect sections of hose together to form one long hoseline What is a chafing block designed to do? - ANSWER-Protect fire hose from abrasions caused when charged hoselines rub against other surfaces Which type of nozzle has a straight, smooth tip and produces a solid stream of water? - ANSWER-Smooth bore nozzle Master stream devices are usually deployed when: - ANSWER-the fire is too large to be controlled by handlines. Mobile water supply operations, such as water shuttles or relay pumping, must be performed: - ANSWER-in rural areas without public water distribution systems. A dry-barrel hydrant only has water in it when: - ANSWER-the stem nut is operated to open the control valve. Advancing an uncharged hoseline down a flight of stairs is only recommended when: - ANSWER-the fire is minor or not present. A spanner wrench is designed to: - ANSWER-tighten or loosen coupling connections. In order to prevent obstructions when advancing a charged hoseline down a stairway, excess hose should be: - ANSWER-stretched outside the stairway. When advancing a hoseline into a structure, firefighters should: - ANSWER-first open the nozzle fully and check for adequate water flow. Which type of nozzle can be driven through stucco, block, wood, or lightweight steel to access fires in concealed spaces? - ANSWER-Piercing nozzle Which type of hose fitting is used to attach a smaller hose to the end of a larger hose? - ANSWER-Reducer The shape of a hose stream is determined by the: - ANSWER-type of nozzle. In which situation would a standpipe need to be improvised by stretching a hoseline up an interior stairwell or up the side of the building? - ANSWER-An earthquake renders the existing standpipe inoperable. Friction loss causes: - ANSWER-reduced water flow and pressure at the nozzle. A _____ valve is used to control the flow of water from a fire hydrant. - ANSWER-gate Which type of hose stream is created by specialized nozzles such as cellar nozzles, piercing nozzles, or chimney nozzles? - ANSWER-Broken stream Which is a characteristic of fog streams? - ANSWER-Can be adjusted to suit the situation What is caused by friction loss? - ANSWER-Lower water pressure at the nozzle Which is a characteristic of fog nozzles? - ANSWER-Can be adjusted to different stream patterns Which type of hose stream is produced from a smooth bore nozzle? - ANSWER-Solid stream When using a fog nozzle, as the fog pattern widens, the: - ANSWER-nozzle reaction decreases and makes the nozzle easier to handle. Which piece of equipment provides a more secure means to handle charged hoselines when applying water? - ANSWER-Hose strap When compared with a narrow-angle fog pattern, a wide-angle fog pattern: - ANSWER- has a shorter reach than a narrow-angle fog pattern. Which describes a master stream device? - ANSWER-Large-volume hose streams created by appliances such as apparatus-mounted deck guns Which is a characteristic of water as an extinguishing agent? - ANSWER-Higher heat- absorbing capacity than most other common extinguishing agents Which use of a hose stream would protect firefighters and property from heat caused by the fire? - ANSWER-Creating a water curtain Which type of valve is used in siamese appliances and fire department connections (FDC) to allow water to only flow in one direction? - ANSWER-Clapper valve When advancing hoseline into a building, why is it important to keep doors closed until you are ready to enter the structure? - ANSWER-Helps prevent changes to the flow path Which piece of equipment is designed to prevent damage to hose when vehicles must drive over it? - ANSWER-Hose bridge As part of general nozzle inspection and maintenance, firefighters should: - ANSWER- look for external damage to the nozzle body and tip. What can firefighters do to help absorb nozzle reaction when operating a large hoseline? - ANSWER-Lean slightly forward What must be done when shutting down a dry-barrel hydrant? - ANSWER-Verify that all of the water drains out What is the purpose of a standpipe? - ANSWER-Provides a place to connect hose where preconnected hoselines cannot reach What is the minimum number of firefighters required to operate an attack line for interior structural operations? - ANSWER-Two Which piece of equipment is used to quickly drain water from LDH hose before it is stored? - ANSWER-LDH drainage hose roller Standard fire hydrants have at least one large steamer connection and: - ANSWER-two hose outlet nozzles for 2½-inch (65 mm) couplings. Which type of hose fitting would be used to connect a smaller hoseline to a larger supply line? - ANSWER-Reducer How should a portable water tank for a mobile water supply operation be set up? - ANSWER-Must allow easy access from multiple directions, but not block other apparatus from the fire scene How can a 4½-inch (115 mm) intake hose be connected to a 2½-inch steamer (65 mm) connection on the hydrant? - ANSWER-Use a reducer coupling Water absorbs heat and converts to steam most rapidly when it is: - ANSWER-applied in a fog pattern. Which appliance has one female inlet and multiple male outlets to divide one supply hoseline into two or more hoselines? - ANSWER-Wye appliance When hose is laid at the incident scene and the pumping apparatus proceeds to the water source, the operation is known as a: - ANSWER-reverse lay. Nozzles should be stored with: - ANSWER-the control valve bale in the closed position. How is the rate of discharge for a manually adjustable fog nozzle changed? - ANSWER- Rotating the selector ring to the desired gpm (L/min) setting What should the fire department do when a hydrant is taken out of service? - ANSWER- Place "out-of-service" tags on the hydrant The _____ lay can delay initial fire attack because attack hose, tools, and equipment must be removed from the apparatus and placed at the fire scene before the apparatus proceeds to the water source. - ANSWER-reverse What should be done as part of vehicle overhaul after the fire has been extinguished? - ANSWER-Secure the air bags What is the purpose of a fire department connection (FDC)? - ANSWER-Allows a pumper to supplement water supply and pressure to a building's sprinkler or standpipe system At a structure fire, a Fire Fighter I: - ANSWER-must know the location of utility control valves and switches. Which method of fire attack involves applying water onto burning fuels using a solid or straight stream? - ANSWER-Direct attack Why should the bumper of a burning car be avoided? - ANSWER-Heated bumper struts may explode and injure those nearby. With regard to ground cover fires,: - ANSWER-tightly compacted fuels burn slower than loosely piled fuels. When should firefighters stop the flow of water from an automatic sprinkler system in a structure? - ANSWER-After the fire is under control What part of a ground cover fire spreads the most rapidly and usually does the most damage? - ANSWER-Head Directing short bursts of water into the hot gas layer: - ANSWER-will cool the gas layer and reduce the chances of the gases igniting. Before entering the building or fire area, the firefighter who is assigned to the nozzle of the attack hose should: - ANSWER-open the nozzle fully to check for adequate flow. Applying water to a fire is an example of: - ANSWER-temperature reduction. What is the primary goal when attacking fire in exterior stacked or piled Class A materials? - ANSWER-Contain the fire and protect exposures During ground cover fire fighting operations, if an oil well or a pipeline is broken and exposed to fire, firefighters should: - ANSWER-treat the situation like a hazardous materials incident and withdraw. Which method of fire suppression is rarely an option at a structure fire? - ANSWER-Fuel removal When turning off the water to a residential structure, firefighters should: - ANSWER-use caution because the electrical ground wire may be connected to the water pipe. Basement fires are especially dangerous because there is an increased risk of _____ due to unprotected floor assemblies. - ANSWER-structural collapse In which situation would fuel removal be a likely method of extinguishment? - ANSWER- Grass fire Preventing fire from spreading to unaffected areas or buildings is referred to as: - ANSWER-exposure protection. What vehicle hazard may require you to isolate the area and request assistance of a hazardous materials team? - ANSWER-Large-capacity saddle fuel tanks Before making entry into a structure fire, all personnel must: - ANSWER-ensure that their SCBA is full and functioning. When a shed or other unattached structure is on fire, the primary objective is to: - ANSWER-protect exposures. Which statement describes transitional attack? - ANSWER-Water is applied from the exterior first to transition the fire from ventilation-limited to fuel-limited. When performing a transitional attack, a _____ stream may be the best choice because it will not upset the thermal layering as much as other stream patterns. - ANSWER- straight When attacking fire in a small unattached structure such as a storage shed,: - ANSWER-an exterior attack should be used. Which statement describes a safety guideline for operations at a multistory building? - ANSWER-Firefighters must not use an elevator to get to the fire floor. When a firefighter controls doors and windows during fire attack, it is an example of: - ANSWER-oxygen exclusion. Which hazard is associated with a hybrid electric vehicle that is on fire? - ANSWER- Toxic fumes Which statement describes operations at a vehicle fire? - ANSWER-SCBA must be worn because of the toxic smoke and vapors that are produced. Trash container fires are likely to be fought using Class A foam or: - ANSWER-a master stream. If you are positioned to make fire attack, which condition would be important to communicate to your supervisor or the Incident Commander? - ANSWER-Smoke that changes from gray to black Most line-of-duty deaths at ground cover fires result from: - ANSWER-heart failure. Why is it dangerous to work below the hot gas layer without attempting to cool it? - ANSWER-The smoke contains fuel, and it may ignite at any time. Which describes a crown fire? - ANSWER-Wind-driven, high-intensity fire that moves through the tree tops Once an LPG fire or emergency has been terminated, firefighters should NOT: - ANSWER-open the LPG tank control valve. If there is a fire in the trunk of a car, the first step is to: - ANSWER-try to open the trunk using the release lever. How does topography (the earth's surface features) affect the spread of ground cover fires? - ANSWER-Fires on southern exposures receive more heat from the sun and burn faster than other fires. When attacking fire in stacked and piled materials, _____, then apply water or Class A foam until extinguished. - ANSWER-use hooks or pike poles to break apart material In a building that is protected by control mode sprinklers, firefighters need to: - ANSWER-complete suppression before turning off the system. When firefighters apply water to the hot gas layer in a compartment, it will: - ANSWER- reduce the radiant heat flux from the upper layer. Closing the valve on a natural gas tank to stop the emission of gaseous fuel would be an example of: - ANSWER-fuel removal. The part of a ground cover fire opposite the head that usually burns slowly and quietly is called the: - ANSWER-heel. Why should the flow of water be stopped from activated sprinklers once the fire has been extinguished? - ANSWER-Minimize water damage to the structure and its contents How can firefighters identify whether or not a vehicle uses an alternative fuel? - ANSWER-Some alternative fuel vehicles have a visible logo on the front or rear of the vehicle. Which is a characteristic of outside screw and yoke (OS&Y) valves? - ANSWER-The threaded portion of the screw is visible beyond the yoke when the valve is open. A slow-moving, smoldering fire that burns dead organic matter on the soil in forested areas is called a _____ fire. - ANSWER-ground If a firefighter uses a Z pattern to apply water to the hot gas layer and then the burning fuels at the floor level, he or she is using a(an) _____ fire attack. - ANSWER- combination Extinguish any fire near the _____ first when attacking a vehicle fire. - ANSWER- occupants What can happen if excess steam is produced inside the structure as a result of applying water on the fire? - ANSWER-Disruption of the thermal layering When turning off the natural gas supply to a structure,: - ANSWER-close the valve by turning the tang until it is 90 degrees to the pipe. When fighting a vehicle fire, a piercing nozzle can safely be used to: - ANSWER- extinguish fire under the hood. Which is a characteristic of fires in residential basements? - ANSWER-Firefighters working on the floor above the basement fire are at an increased risk of floor collapse. If there is a fire in the undercarriage of a vehicle,: - ANSWER-direct a stream at the ground to deflect water upward toward the underside of the vehicle until the fire is extinguished. If there is a concern that an unattached structure contains hazardous chemicals or flammable/combustible liquids, firefighters should: - ANSWER-protect exposures and let the structure self-extinguish. Once the area of origin of a fire has been determined, the next step in the process is to: - ANSWER-determine the cause of the fire. Which statement describes the protection of evidence at a fire scene? - ANSWER- Evidence must not be disturbed unless absolutely necessary for extinguishment of the fire. Since the chain of custody must be maintained for all fire evidence, all debris: - ANSWER-should remain in place until the order is given to move it. During overhaul, prying tools can be used to: - ANSWER-remove baseboards and window frames. Which type of salvage cover is lightweight and practical for indoor or outdoor use, but is prone to melting when used to cover hot objects? - ANSWER-Vinyl Which hazard are firefighters likely to encounter during overhaul? - ANSWER-Toxic gases Which tool is commonly used to open ceilings during overhaul? - ANSWER-Pike pole Which activity is included in overhaul operations? - ANSWER-Searching for hidden fires In order for investigators to determine the cause of the fire, firefighters should take note of: - ANSWER-abnormal fire behavior when water is applied. How should furniture be grouped during salvage? - ANSWER-A high piece of furniture should support the salvage cover in a way that allows water to run off and not collect in pools. When a large smoldering item, such as a mattress, is encountered during overhaul, it is often most effective to extinguish it by: - ANSWER-taking it outside the structure to extinguish. Which piece of salvage equipment is designed to carry debris and provide a water basin for immersing small burning objects? - ANSWER-Carryall Which is a duty of a Fire Fighter I? - ANSWER-Protecting the incident scene and preserving evidence When fire suppression and salvage are performed simultaneously, opening and closing doors to carry building contents outside: - ANSWER-may interfere with the flow path. Which is an indicator that a fire was NOT accidental? - ANSWER-Trailers Firefighters should take note of _____, because it may indicate that the fire was intentionally set. - ANSWER-plastic containers The balloon throw is used when: - ANSWER-two firefighters are deploying a large salvage cover. Covering openings in a building that were created during suppression activities: - ANSWER-will help prevent damage from weather and trespassers. Which tools are used to open walls and floors during overhaul? - ANSWER-Axes Before removing SCBA during overhaul, firefighters must: - ANSWER-monitor the atmosphere for the presence of carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide. What is the purpose of salvage operations? - ANSWER-Reduce potential for water and smoke damage after a fire Protecting property requires firefighters to: - ANSWER-use good loss control techniques throughout the incident. In order to protect the structure from damage due to weather and trespassers, firefighters should: - ANSWER-cover door and window openings with plywood or plastic sheeting. The area of origin in a fire is identified by the IC or the: - ANSWER-fire investigator. Where does overhaul typically begin? - ANSWER-Area of most severe fire involvement When establishing scene security at a structure fire, the perimeter should: - ANSWER- extend beyond the farthest piece of evidence. Which is an indicator of a possible hidden fire? - ANSWER-Smoke coming through cracks in a wall Which condition should be noted because it may be a potential sign of arson? - ANSWER-There is a car blocking access to the fire hydrant. Which method of protecting building contents keeps items secure and reduces interference with fire suppression and ventilation activities? - ANSWER-Group and cover items in the room where they are found What challenge may firefighters face when performing salvage in a commercial occupancy? - ANSWER-It can be difficult to cover large displays and stocks. Which safety measure should be in place during overhaul? - ANSWER-Gloves to protect from cuts and thermal burns Why is gross decontamination after overhaul important? - ANSWER-Contaminated PPE can lead to carcinogens being absorbed through the skin. During salvage operations, a dewatering device would be used to: - ANSWER-remove water from a basement. For what purpose are wooden wedges designed to be used during salvage operations? - ANSWER-Stop the flow of water from an activated sprinkler Rippled wallpaper and peeling paint are possible indicators of: - ANSWER-a fire hidden behind a wall. When opening a ceiling to check for fire extension,: - ANSWER-do not stand directly below the area being opened. Other than fire suppression, which fireground activity can greatly affect a structure's chance of collapse? - ANSWER-Overhaul How does the size of a wooden structural member affect how it reacts to fire? - ANSWER-Heavy timbers remain strong even after exposure to direct flame. Cast iron may crack or shatter when it is: - ANSWER-rapidly cooled with water. In a _____ building, structural collapse is unlikely but will usually be localized instead of structure-wide if it does occur. - ANSWER-Type I Which type of building material can be highly combustible and produce toxic gases when exposed to fire? - ANSWER-Engineered wood products Traditionally, how large is the collapse zone? - ANSWER-1½ times the height of the structure Which is an indicator of structural instability or impending structural collapse? - ANSWER-Sagging, spongy roof The effect of heat and fire on metal depends on the: - ANSWER-type of metal and whether or not it is covered. When establishing collapse zones,: - ANSWER-apparatus must not be positioned in the collapse zone. Overhaul operations may affect a structure's stability when: - ANSWER-firefighters accidentally cut through load bearing components. Which building material is not typically used for structural support? - ANSWER-Glass Why are buildings under construction more susceptible to fire spread? - ANSWER- Sprinklers and FDCs are not yet operational Why can abandoned buildings pose great danger of fire and collapse? - ANSWER-The interior may be gutted and altered. Fires in the _____ stage do not generate sufficient heat or flame to cause unprotected steel or wood frame buildings to collapse. - ANSWER-incipient Which type of building material is used to protect other materials because its moisture content gives it excellent heat resistance? - ANSWER-Gypsum wallboard Which factor is likely to affect the speed with which a steel structural member fails under fire conditions? - ANSWER-Size Which type of collapse is common for a Type V construction building? - ANSWER-Walls collapsing inward Which building material can potentially be harmful to firefighters because it contains a glue called urea formaldehyde that gives off a hazardous gas when it is heated? - ANSWER-Particle board Which building material is the most common in North America and is the main component of many structural assemblies? - ANSWER-Wood How do a building's contents affect fire growth and structural collapse? - ANSWER- Contents can retain water and increase the stress on structural members. When masonry components like brick and stone are exposed to fire and high temperatures,: - ANSWER-there is little effect on the masonry. Due to its high water content, _____ has excellent heat-resistant and fire-retardant properties. - ANSWER-gypsum How can HVAC systems affect tactical ventilation? - ANSWER-Move products of combustion to unaffected areas Which type of building material is affected by size and moisture content during fire conditions? - ANSWER-Wood Which type of building material can produce toxic gases and rapidly deteriorate under fire conditions? - ANSWER-Oriented strand board (OSB) What should take place immediately after the collapse zone is cleared? - ANSWER- Personnel accountability report Once it is determined that collapse is imminent,: - ANSWER-the collapse zone should be cleared as soon as possible. How does reinforced concrete react to exposure to fire? - ANSWER-It performs well, but can lose strength through spalling. What is an indicator of structural collapse? - ANSWER-Distorted structural members How does heat affect masonry? - ANSWER-Stones and concrete may experience spalling when they are heated. How can water from fire suppression affect a building's structural stability? - ANSWER- Water weight added from suppression can cause floors to collapse. Which statement describes how glass will react under fire conditions? - ANSWER- Heated glass may crack when water is applied. When should firefighters begin considering the potential that a building will collapse? - ANSWER-During preincident surveys and size-up Which statement accurately describes how building materials and configuration affect fire behavior in a structure? - ANSWER-The longer the fire has burned, the more likely it is that structural integrity has been compromised. What is a concern about lath and plaster during a fire? - ANSWER-Conceals hidden fires and adds fuel to the fire In which stage of fire development does structural collapse become likely due to the weakened state of structural members and buildup of water? - ANSWER-Decay For which vehicle frame are the vehicle's stress-bearing elements and sheet metal body parts built as one unit? - ANSWER-Unibody What is the most critical area of the scene that includes the site of the actual emergency? - ANSWER-Hot zone What would be used to stabilize a vehicle that is on its roof or side by creating a stabilizing triangle? - ANSWER-Tensioned buttress systems When responding to any situation involving electricity, always: - ANSWER-call for the electric company to respond. Which pulling tool is typically mounted on the front, rear, or side of a vehicle and is used in conjunction with chains or cables? - ANSWER-Winch The first priority in a structural collapse rescue is to: - ANSWER-help untrapped victims to a safe area. What is the primary hazard at vehicle extrication incidents? - ANSWER-Traffic What is required for personnel working within 10 feet (3 m) of the water's edge at a water or ice rescue incident? - ANSWER-Personal flotation device (PFD) The controlled opening near the Command Post is monitored by: - ANSWER-the Accountability Officer. Which passenger safety system deploys air bags from just above the top of the door frame during a side-impact collision? - ANSWER-Head Protection Systems (HPS) The first task during size-up of a water or ice incident is to: - ANSWER-determine whether rescue or recovery is required. Which rescue tool is used to create an anchor point above a manhole or other opening? - ANSWER-Tripod Which type of collapse has a good chance of habitable voids but is most vulnerable to secondary collapse? - ANSWER-Cantilever Which glass is designed to spread small fracture lines throughout the plate when struck? - ANSWER-Tempered What must a Fire Fighter II be able to do to assist at technical rescue incidents? - ANSWER-Recognize hazards associated with the type of incident When responding to an elevator entrapment rescue,: - ANSWER-there are no consistent sequential steps to follow. Which statement about tools used in rescues is correct? - ANSWER-Tools from different manufacturers may have different capabilities. Only personnel directly involved in resolving the emergency are allowed within the: - ANSWER-hot zone. Manual stop switches on escalators are generally located: - ANSWER-on nearby wall or handrail supports at the top and bottom of the unit. What must firefighters be careful about when cutting posts? - ANSWER-Activating seat belt pretensioners or side curtain air bags What is a primary hazard of cutting the steering wheel ring? - ANSWER-Accidental deployment of the air bag What is the purpose of a tensioned buttress system? - ANSWER-Stabilize vehicles resting on their sides or roofs What would be used to raise a vehicle that is on its roof or side? - ANSWER-Pneumatic lifting devices How are vehicle door and roof posts normally identified? - ANSWER-Alphabetically from front to rear Which type of collapse occurs when the floor and/or roof assemblies on both sides of a load-bearing center wall collapse? - ANSWER-A-frame With increasing safety standards, many vehicle manufacturers use _____ safety glass in all windows. - ANSWER-laminated What is the next step after the scene has been assessed at a vehicle incident? - ANSWER-Stabilize the vehicle At a vehicle rescue incident, if firefighters are not engaged in fire suppression or extrication, they should wear: - ANSWER-an approved retroreflective vest. Which is a task the Fire Fighter II must know in order to assist in technical rescue incidents? - ANSWER-Where tools and equipment are located on the apparatus What should be used to prevent horizontal movement of a vehicle with all wheels on the ground? - ANSWER-Wheel chocks Which is a characteristic of plastic cribbing? - ANSWER-Resists contamination from fuel, oil, or other substances Which tools have a square drive to attach a socket and are ideal for disassembling machinery? - ANSWER-Pneumatic impact tools Vehicle components made with _____ can cause high heat fires at a vehicle incident. - ANSWER-magnesium What is the first step of an extrication operation? - ANSWER-Vehicle incident size-up Which rescue saw is quiet, highly portable, easy to handle, and often used for delicate cutting operations? - ANSWER-Whizzer saw Which is a guideline when using a winch? - ANSWER-Position the winch as close as possible to the object being pulled For which type of rescue would the Fire Fighter II monitor communication channels and search lines, operate SAR systems, and assist victims once they have been removed from the hot zone? - ANSWER-Cave, mine, and tunnel rescue Access is limited to personnel directly supporting work performed at the site of the actual emergency in the: - ANSWER-warm zone. What is the primary hazard at a vehicle extrication incident? - ANSWER-Traffic Which victims should receive the highest priority for extrication? - ANSWER-Seriously injured victims What should be done if none of the doors in a vehicle extrication incident open normally? - ANSWER-Use a tool to release one of the locks Which rescue tool is typically used when objects must be pushed farther than the maximum opening distance of hydraulic spreaders? - ANSWER-Extension rams Which vehicle component consists of a vertical panel wall in front of the A-post that is enclosed by several structural members? - ANSWER-Kick panels When assisting with trench rescue: - ANSWER-eliminate sources of vibration such as apparatus and heavy equipment. Why is removing windshields no longer standard practice during extrication? - ANSWER-Many automobiles use the windshield as a structural component. Why should any brightly colored cables never be touched, cut, or opened on electric vehicles? - ANSWER-They contain intermediate or high-voltage charges. Which type of rescue has limited means of entry and exit, is not designed for continuous occupancy, and may include cisterns/wells and utility vaults? - ANSWER-Confined- space rescue Before entering into the hot zone, personnel must: - ANSWER-sign in to the personnel accountability system. Which heavy-duty rescue tool is usually used to support collapsed structural members? - ANSWER-Bar screw jack Firefighters should never attempt to perform rescue tasks: - ANSWER-for which they are not trained, qualified, and equipped. If the ignition is not accessible in nonelectric vehicles, shut down the electrical system by disconnecting the negative cables to the vehicle's 12-volt battery by cutting or removing: - ANSWER-the negative cable first. Which type of collapse occurs when exterior walls collapse simultaneously, causing the roof and upper floors to collapse on top of each other? - ANSWER-Pancake What vehicles have danger associated with the high voltage stored within the batteries and running through wiring connected to the vehicle's motor? - ANSWER-Electric and hybrid vehicles From an extrication standpoint, every vehicle can be considered to have: - ANSWER- eight sides. Which vehicle component consists of body material that surrounds the area of the rear tire? - ANSWER-Quarter panels Which is true of polar solvent fuels? - ANSWER-They are flammable liquids that mix readily with water. What action should be taken if a pressurized vessel containing flammable gas is exposed to flames? - ANSWER-Apply a solid stream of water Mixing water with foam concentrate to form a foam solution is referred to as: - ANSWER-proportioning. At a bulk transport incident, firefighters must: - ANSWER-identify the material involved. Which type of foam proportioner can compromise firefighter safety by slowing firefighters down since it requires the concentrate to be available where the nozzle is being operated? - ANSWER-Foam nozzle eductor Which factor is important when selecting the appropriate foam proportioner to use? - ANSWER-Available water pressure High-quality foam bubbles are created through the process of: - ANSWER-aeration At an incident involving flammable liquids or gases, firefighters should immediately retreat to a safe location: - ANSWER-if the sound of escaping gas starts to get louder. Which method of foam application would be well suited for a flammable liquid spill near the exterior wall of a building? - ANSWER-Bank-down method Fog nozzles can be used with foam solution to produce: - ANSWER-low-expansion, short-lasting foam. Most fire fighting foams are intended to be mixed with: - ANSWER-94 to 99.9 percent water. What is a disadvantage of using fog nozzles to apply fire fighting foam? - ANSWER- Operator error is more likely to produce lower quality foam. What happens when a BLEVE occurs? - ANSWER-Violent rupture of a pressurized container The amount that fire fighting foam expands depends on the type of foam concentrate used and: - ANSWER-accurate proportioning of the foam concentrate in the solution. What is an advantage of using a foam nozzle to apply fire fighting foam? - ANSWER- Produces higher quality foam than a fog nozzle What is likely to cause poor quality fire fighting foam to be produced? - ANSWER- Mixing different types of foam concentrates in the same tank Class A foam acts as a surfactant, which means that it: - ANSWER-lowers the surface tension of water, allowing better penetration into the fuel. If the foam being produced is poor quality, the firefighter should: - ANSWER-check to make sure there are no air leaks in the proportioning device. Class B foams are especially effective on: - ANSWER-hydrocarbon fuels. Which is an appropriate safe action to take at an incident involving a BLEVE? - ANSWER-Fight fire from the maximum distance possible Any valve operation must be performed in coordination with: - ANSWER-facility personnel supervision. Which method of foam proportioning involves using an external pump to force foam concentrate into the fire stream? - ANSWER-Injection If a large pool of flammable liquid is burning in an open area, the _____ method of foam application may be the most effective method to use. - ANSWER-rain-down In order to create high-quality foam: - ANSWER-foam concentrate, water, and air must be mixed in the correct ratio. Which method of foam application is only suitable for use on a pool of liquid fuel on open ground? - ANSWER-Roll-on method Which is a characteristic of foam nozzles? - ANSWER-Shorter stream reach than fog nozzles Which statement accurately describes pressurized vessels? - ANSWER-They should be marked with placards or stickers identifying the contents. Which type of foam proportioner is directly attached to the pump panel outlet or connected at some point in the hose lay? - ANSWER-In-line eductor Because of environmental concerns about fire fighting foam, firefighters should: - ANSWER-try to prevent the foam from entering bodies of water. Which type of substances have a flash point less than 100°F (38°C)? - ANSWER- Flammable liquids In order to prevent reignition of a liquid fuel fire after foam has been applied, do NOT: - ANSWER-apply a solid or straight stream of water to the foam blanket. If fire is present in an underground space, such as a trench or subway,: - ANSWER-only specially trained rescue units should enter to attack the fire. When dealing with an electrical emergency involving a downed power line,: - ANSWER- establish an exclusion zone equal to 1½ times the distance between power poles in all directions away from the line. Unit leaders must be capable of communicating within the department's IMS system, which includes providing status reports and updates to personnel in charge of the incident and: - ANSWER-relaying orders from incident leaders to unit personnel. Why is it important that incident reports are accurate and complete? - ANSWER-They are legal documents Which type of hose appliance is useful when one attack line has been laid, but two are needed for fire attack? - ANSWER-Wye appliance If communications have been correctly established, the incoming IC should be able to handle communications such as change in Command Post location and: - ANSWER- periodic progress reports. To establish command, a firefighter should: - ANSWER-make initial assignments to available resources. Interior fire attack crews advancing hoselines must carry tools and equipment needed to open interior doors, make an emergency exit, or: - ANSWER-check concealed spaces for fire extension. After conducting a risk-benefit analysis, you should select an offensive strategy when: - ANSWER-lives or property are savable. When making operational assignments, the Incident Commander: - ANSWER-should only assign a crew to fire attack if enough personnel are present. When the first firefighter arrives on scene, he or she should: - ANSWER-act as the Incident Commander and establish command. Before entering the structure to conduct fire attack, the crew should: - ANSWER-ensure they have the required forcible entry and communication equipment. Which statement describes evacuation signals? - ANSWER-Evacuation signals are used when the IC determines that interior crews must withdraw due to hazardous conditions. As part of size-up, what information should a firefighter consider while en route to an incident? - ANSWER-Weather conditions and their potential effects on fire behavior When determining which type of operational strategy to use at an incident, the Incident Commander conducts a risk/benefit analysis to: - ANSWER-determine if lives can be saved without unnecessary risk to firefighters. What must the acting Incident Commander know in order to forecast fire growth and development? - ANSWER-Building construction type Which type of operational strategy involves keeping personnel outside of the IDLH environment? - ANSWER-Defensive The backup hoseline at an incident: - ANSWER-should be the same size and provide the same flow rate as the attack line. When making initial assignments, the acting Incident Commander: - ANSWER-may place the company into action with a crew member serving as an acting company officer. The firefighter in command of the incident must understand alarm assignment, which means that they must know the: - ANSWER-number and type of units that respond to each alarm. What should the attack crew do if the front door is opened and fast moving smoke and air indicate that the fire is active in the area? - ANSWER-Apply water to the hot gas layer, wait, then observe changes before entering Why must ventilation crews always know the location of interior attack crews? - ANSWER-Ventilation crews can take actions that change the flow path and endanger interior crews. For which kind of electrical emergency would it be safe and appropriate to use a Class C portable fire extinguisher? - ANSWER-Fire in a desktop computer The information contained in postincident reports is used to assess departmental needs and: - ANSWER-determine trends in fire cause. Command should never be transferred to: - ANSWER-someone who is not on scene. Because postincident reports are public legal documents: - ANSWER-there may be legal consequences if they are incomplete or incorrect. Which piece of information must be communicated to crew members and dispatch when establishing command? - ANSWER-Who the acting Incident Commander is Which scenario would prompt the Incident Commander to choose a defensive fire attack? - ANSWER-Amount of fire exceeds available trained personnel and available resources at the scene What is the purpose of the United States Fire Administration's National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS)? - ANSWER-Collect data for analysis to help prevent future fires When a transition is made from an offensive interior strategy to a defensive strategy and crews must withdraw from the interior, they should: - ANSWER-use the hoseline to protect themselves and guide their withdrawal. What action should you take if you are leading the attack line crew and you discover a person in need of rescue? - ANSWER-Communicate this to the IC and/or rescue crew What information should be included in the arrival report? - ANSWER-First impression of hazardous conditions at the scene Which question would the first arriving firefighter ask during initial size-up? - ANSWER- What does the visible fire and smoke indicate? Which factor would be included in the initial size-up of an incident that is conducted by the first-arriving firefighter? - ANSWER-Type of building construction The size and location of a fire may be indicated by: - ANSWER-flames that are visible from outside the structure. The most important variable when choosing the correct hoseline to use is: - ANSWER- flow rate. A crew leader is responsible for: - ANSWER-selecting the tools the crew needs to perform their duties. When a firefighter acting as the Incident Commander needs to transfer Command to someone,: - ANSWER-face-to-face transfer of Command is preferred. Which type of information is typically included on a postincident report? - ANSWER- Number of personnel and apparatus that responded Which duty would a firefighter perform if he or she were acting as crew leader? - ANSWER-Coordinating resources with other resources at the scene What factors must fire investigators identify before classifying fire cause? - ANSWER- Ignition source, material first ignited, ignition sequence Evidence preservation is the responsibility of: - ANSWER-all firefighters on scene. Which action should be carefully conducted, because it can cause destruction or contamination of evidence at a fire scene? - ANSWER-Overhaul Which would be classified as an incendiary fire? - ANSWER-Setting a business on fire to collect insurance money Why is it important to determine the cause of a fire? - ANSWER-It can help prevent similar fires from happening in the future. At a fire scene, firefighters should NOT: - ANSWER-share their opinion of the probable fire cause with media or bystanders. When trying to locate the area of origin of a ground cover fire, you must know: - ANSWER-how wind and topography can affect fire spread. When examining the interior of a structure for the area of origin,: - ANSWER-work from the area of least damage to the area of greatest damage. Which duty would a fire investigator perform at a fire scene investigation? - ANSWER- Interviewing firefighters on scene To be secure, a fire scene must have: - ANSWER-a recognizable perimeter and someone to maintain that perimeter. Which type of fuel source would require the greatest amount of heat to ignite because it must undergo pyrolysis in order to burn? - ANSWER-Wood Which is a responsibility of a Fire Fighter II concerning evidence at a fire investigation? - ANSWER-Restricting access to the scene in order to protect evidence Which action could be considered illegal at a fire scene? - ANSWER-Fire department personnel giving up control of the scene, but then re-entering without probable cause without a warrant Which action can firefighters take to protect evidence at the fire scene? - ANSWER- Cover items with salvage covers or tarps Lightning striking a tree and setting it on fire would be an example of a(an) _____ fire. - ANSWER-natural The events that lead up to a fuel package being ignited and starting a fire are known as the: - ANSWER-ignition sequence. Which would be a responsibility of a Fire Fighter II at a structural fire? - ANSWER-Take note of unusual fire behavior Which piece of equipment is used to prevent pressurized hose from dangerously whipping back and forth if it ruptures? - ANSWER-Hose test gate valve Which pieces of equipment are necessary to service test a fire hose? - ANSWER-Hose- testing machine, portable pump, or fire department pumper When maintaining portable lighting equipment, it is safest to: - ANSWER-connect each light to the generator one at a time. Replace any spark plug that: - ANSWER-shows signs of arcing. What should you do if you find a problem when maintaining a portable generator? - ANSWER-Consult the manual to determine the proper action After completing equipment maintenance, it is important to clean the work area and: - ANSWER-document maintenance per local SOPs. Which duty would be performed by a qualified technician instead of a Fire Fighter II? - ANSWER-Detailed maintenance of lighting equipment When testing fire hose, it is important to: - ANSWER-close valves slowly to prevent water hammer. When would a fire hose service test be performed? - ANSWER-After a vehicle has run over the hose In order to prevent damage to a portable generator, always: - ANSWER-avoid starting it with equipment plugged into it and turned on. Which statement describes the proper cleaning methods for power tools? - ANSWER- Different power tools require different cleaning agents, so refer to the manufacturer's guidelines for cleaning instructions. All gas-powered or diesel-powered equipment should be started and operated: - ANSWER-in a well-ventilated area. When service testing a fire hose, the: - ANSWER-testing area should be kept as dry as possible. When would a fire hose be tagged for repair? - ANSWER-When defects are found that can be corrected Battery packs and pneumatic air cylinders should be kept: - ANSWER-fully charged. Which piece of information should be included when recording fire hose testing results? - ANSWER-Testing date What PPE should all personnel operating in the area of a pressurized hose be wearing? - ANSWER-Helmet Which is a safety procedure related to fire hose testing? - ANSWER-Only walk near pressurized hose when necessary Which is a safety concern when service testing fire hose? - ANSWER-Pressurized hose When inspecting and maintaining powered rescue tools, it is important to: - ANSWER- check all fluid levels and ensure that batteries are fully charged. If a hose is found to have a leak during service testing, it: - ANSWER-should be removed from service. Why should test lengths of hose not exceed 300 feet (100 m) in length? - ANSWER-It is difficult to purge air from longer lengths of hose. In order to maintain good relations with the community, firefighters should: - ANSWER- try to understand customer complaints and resolve issues promptly. When conducting a preincident survey, a firefighter must be able to: - ANSWER- recognize fire alarm systems and their components. Which component of a fire alarm system allows occupants to activate the fire alarm? - ANSWER-Manual pull station The water supply for sprinkler systems: - ANSWER-is often designed to supply only a portion of the sprinklers. Why are fire and life safety programs important? - ANSWER-They encourage people to act safely and help prepare them for hazards. What is the primary focus of a fire and life safety presentation? - ANSWER-Providing information about risk-reduction strategies A _____ sprinkler system contains water under pressure in the piping and is used in locations where temperatures remain above 40°F (4°C). - ANSWER-wet-pipe When documenting a preincident survey, firefighters should: - ANSWER-use maps, drawings, and photographs to show building features and hazards. When conducting private-dwelling fire safety surveys, firefighters should: - ANSWER- focus on preventing fires and eliminating hazards. When firefighters enter a home to do a residential fire and life safety survey, one of the main objectives should be to: - ANSWER-help the occupant understand how to improve safety conditions. Which is a common cause of residential fires that should be identified during a fire safety survey? - ANSWER-Stacks of papers or clothing near a heater In most jurisdictions, residential fire and life safety surveys are: - ANSWER-conducted on a voluntary basis. Whenever possible, firefighters conducting preincident surveys should: - ANSWER-take photographs to show accurate detail. Fire and life safety presentations should be organized and: - ANSWER-audience- centered. Fire and life safety presentations will be more successful if: - ANSWER-the presenter knows the topic well and anticipates audience questions. Which type of sprinkler system valve includes a hollow metal post that houses the valve stem and a movable plate with the words OPEN and SHUT on it? - ANSWER-Post indicator valve (PIV) Which duty should firefighters perform during a private-dwelling fire safety survey? - ANSWER-Check for malfunctioning equipment and overloaded outlets What is an example of an unapproved modification to a building that could create hazardous conditions? - ANSWER-Removal of fire detection and suppression systems When presenting to young children, always: - ANSWER-avoid using baby talk, acronyms, or jargon. Which condition or feature should be identified and recorded during a preincident survey? - ANSWER-Nonworking smoke detectors When conducting a fire station tour, it is important to: - ANSWER-have a plan for where tour groups go if an alarm sounds. Which sprinkler system component is a section of vertical piping to which the sprinkler valve, fire department connection (FDC), and other components are attached? - ANSWER-Riser Private-dwelling fire safety surveys: - ANSWER-provide information about safety equipment in the home.