Final Exam Advanced Pathophysiology, Pathophysiology Finals Exams Questions with Correct A, Exams of Pathophysiology

Download Final Exam Advanced Pathophysiology, Pathophysiology Finals Exams Questions with Correct A and more Exams Pathophysiology in PDF only on Docsity! Final Exam Advanced Pathophysiology, Pathophysiology Finals Exams Questions with Correct Answers 2024. Physiologic jaundice - Correct answer a 3-day old infant is noted to have a mildly elevated unconjugated bilirubin level and icterus. Your concern is that this child may have: A. physiologic jaundice B. kernicterus C. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D. pathologic jaundice Lysosomes - Correct answer which cell component is capable of cellular auto digestion when it is released during cell injury? A. lysosomes B. ribosomes. Smooth endoplasmic C reticulum d. Golgi complex Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? A) Lysosomes B) Peroxisomes C) Ribosomes D) Ox hydrosomes - Correct answer an: B- peroxisomes Contain organelles and complex internal membranes - Correct answer the difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes is that eukaryotes: A. all of these answers are correct B. are smaller in size C. contain organelles D. have no nuclear membrane What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? A) Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthase B) Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production C) Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production D) Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure - Correct answer an: B- influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell - Correct answer which of the following is function of Golgi? a. Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell b. Produces ATP for cell function C. Contains hydrolytic enzymes d. Is the site of protein synthesis in a cell? Page 1 of 23 Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis? A) Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells B) Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm C) Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death D) Apoptosis results in benign malignancies - Correct answer an: A- apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: A) During cell injury cause by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: B) The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels C) The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane D) Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell - Correct answer an: C- the osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane Is the site of protein synthesis in a cell - Correct answer which of the following is function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. Contains hydrolytic enzymes b. Is the site of protein synthesis in a cell? c. Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell d. Produces ATP for cell function Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because: A) Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling B) The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults C) The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults D) The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively - Correct answer an: A- adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling Epigenetic modifications - Correct answer what genetic process is likely responsible for the occurrence of asthma in only one of a pair of identical twins? A. genomic imprinting B. epigenetic modifications C. methylation D. Trans generational inheritance RNA is synthesized from a DNA template - Correct answer Transcription is best defined as a process by which a. A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence b. DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on RNA. c. RNA directs the synthesis of ribosomes for protein synthesis d. RNA is synthesized from a DNA template Nondisjunction error - Correct answer what is the most common cause of Down syndrome? Page 2 of 23 Gram-negative bacteria - Correct answer one of the leading causes of death in the intensive care unit is the release of sufficient amounts of endotoxin resulting in endotoxin (septic) shock. The most common cause is: A. cachectic B. fungi C. gram-positive bacteria D. gram-negative bacteria Candida albinos - Correct answer the most common cause of fungal infections in humans are A. staphylococcus B. candida albinos C. gram-negative bacteria D. salmonella Wills tumor - Correct answer which one of the childhood cancers is associated with the tumor suppressor genes? A. wills tumor B. acute leukemia C. cerebellar hemagioblastoma D. testicular tumor Blood-forming cells - Correct answer Leukemia refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? A. connective tissue B. epithelial cells C. glandular tissue D. blood-forming cells Two "hits" are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because: A) Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent B) The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth C) tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis D) The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation - Correct answer an: A- each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent Estrogenic sarcoma - Correct answer which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue? A. adenocarcinoma B. multiple myeloma C. basal cell carcinoma D. estrogenic sarcoma What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy? Page 5 of 23 A) Infection B) Ultraviolet damage C) Pain D) Erythema - Correct answer an: A- infection Have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation - Correct answer Oncogenes are genes that: a. Encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt replacement of tissue b. Direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue c. Have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis d. Have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain? A) Pons B) Midbrain C) Cerebellum D) Medulla oblongata - Correct answer an: D- medulla oblongata The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome? A) Hypovolemic shock from blood loss during the injury B) Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm C) Head injury that likely occurred during the injury D) Spinal shock immediately after the injury - Correct answer an: B- breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm Switch on the telomerase so that cells can divide indefinitely - Correct answer how do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase? a. Use it to repair the telomere to restore somatic cell growth b. Switch on the telomerase so that cells can divide indefinitely c. Switch off the telomerase so that cells can divide indefinitely d. Use it as an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division Human papillomavirus - Correct answer the major virus involved in cervical cancer is A. human papillomavirus B. human cervical endogenous virus C. herpes simplex virus D. human immunodeficiency virus What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion? Page 6 of 23 A) Craniofacial dysreflexia B) Parasympathetic dysreflexia C) Autonomic hyperreflexia D) Retrograde hyperreflexia - Correct answer an: C- autonomic hyperreflexia Anti-oncogenes - Correct answer humor suppressor genes encode proteins that in their normal state negatively regulate proliferation. They are also called A. anti-oncogenes B. proto-oncogenes C. mutation of RAS gene D. oncogenes Multiple sclerosis is best described as: A) A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenic virus B) Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder C) The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus D) A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral- immune factors - Correct answer an: A- a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenic virus Deep venous thrombosis - Correct answer what is the usual source of this condition in the lung from an obese smoker who had sudden death? A. alular disease B. left heart failure C. endocarditis D. deep venous thrombosis Graves’ disease develops from: A) A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone B) An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones D) Ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter - Correct answer an: D- ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter A. diabetes mellitus B. hypertension C. obesity - Correct answer the risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased in patients with: (Select 3) A. diabetes mellitus B. hypertension C. obesity D. liver disease E. congenital heart defects Page 7 of 23 B. there is shift in gas exchange from the placenta to the lungs C. systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise D. systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ? A) Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina B) Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus C) Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus D) Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina - Correct answer an: D- where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina Atrial septal defect (ASD) - Correct answer an infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. There is also wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? A. ventricular septal defect (VSD) B. atrial septal defect (ASD) C. atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect D. patent ducts arteriosus (PDA) Patent ducts arteriosus (PDA) - Correct answer an infant has a continuous-machine type of murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole. The infant has a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? A. atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect B. atrial septal defect (ASD) C. patent ducts arteriosus (PDA) D. ventricular septal defect (VSD) Which statement best describes a Schilling test? A) Administration of radioactive calamine and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency B) Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia C) Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia D) administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency - Correct answer An: A- administration of radioactive calamine and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency In aplastic anemic (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following? A) Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes Page 10 of 23 B) Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes C) Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes D) Last of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes - Correct answer an: B- suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes Left to right shunts - Correct answer congenital heart defects that cause cyanotic congestive heart failure usually involve: A. obstructive lesions B. left to right shunts C. right to left shunts D. mixed lesions Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A) Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men B) It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis C) Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen D) Immunoglobulin M (Gimp) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes - Correct answer an: C- erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen Impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion - Correct answer pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by: A. creating alveolar dead space B. impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion C. creating a right to left shunt D. decreasing the oxygen in inspired gas Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: A) is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative B) is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive C) has type a blood and the fetus has type O blood D) has type AB blood and the fetus has type O blood - Correct answer an: B- is Rh- negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Pulmonary emboli - Correct answer Alveolar dead space is a result of: A. atelectasis B. pulmonary edema C. pulmonary emboli D. pneumonia Capillary permeability - Correct answer the cause of pulmonary edema in ARDS is the result of increased: A. oncotic pressure increase by fulminant trauma to the lungs B. capillary hydrostatic pressure C. levels of serum sodium and water Page 11 of 23 D. capillary permeability When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero? A) Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother's circulation is no longer possible B) Hemoglobin does now break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment C) The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form D) The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth - Correct answer an: A- excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother's circulation is no longer possible How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)? A) By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction B) By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia C) By reducing the contractility of the myocardium D) By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system - Correct answer an: C- by reducing the contractility of the myocardium Narrowed pulmonary capillaries - Correct answer pulmonary hypertension results from which of the following alteration? A. ischemia of the myocardium B. narrowed pulmonary capillaries C. narrow bronchi and bronchioles D. destruction of alveoli Premature birth - Correct answer the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RSD) of the newborn is: A. smoking during pregnancy B. premature birth C. low birth weight D. mother's alcohol consumption during the formation of lung What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung? A) Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments B) Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure, but not greater than arterial pressure C) The capillary bed collapses and normal blood flow ceases D) Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure - Correct answer an: C- capillary bed collapses and normal blood flow ceases What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac spree) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily? Page 12 of 23 Glomerular injury - Correct answer nephritic syndrome in adults is characteristic of: A. glomerular injury B. diabetic nephropathy C. acute kidney injury D. acute tubular necrosis The GFR increases, achieving adults level by what age - Correct answer Two A small kidney with decreased number of nephrons - Correct answer Hypo plastic kidney Renal cell carcinoma - Correct answer A 55 you african-american male with a hex of obesity, tobacco use, and hypertension presents to your clinic with c/o hematuria and dull, aching flank pain. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis would be: A. prostatitis B. renal cell carcinoma C. acute pyelonephritis D. diverticulitis Staph aurous - Correct answer the microorganisms usually associated with acute pyelonephritis include all EXCEPT: A. pseudomonas B. protest C. staph aurous d. E. coli Benign vs. malignant cancer tumor - Correct answer Well demarcation in benign All of the above - Correct answer GERD causes inflammatory responses in the esophageal wall resulting in: A. erosion and ulcerations B. tissue fragility C. hyperemia D. all of the above Sarcoma - Correct answer Cancers arising from the mesenchyme tissue usually have the suffix Factors that suppress ovulation increase or decrease risk of ovarian cancer - Correct answer Decrease Acute gastritis - Correct answer A 45 you female presents to the ED with abdominal discomfort, epigastria tenderness and upper GI bleeding. She has a hex of a recent H-pylori infection. Her most likely diagnosis would be: A. ileus B. hiatal hernia C. acute gastritis d. GERD Page 15 of 23 What are the important environmental and lifestyle factors correlated with breast cancer - Correct answer Radiation, diet, synthetic chemicals, and physical activity? ulcerative colitis - Correct answer The primary lesions in which disease are continuous with no skip lesions, are limited to the mucosa and are not trans mural? A. diverticulitis B. crowns disease C. irritable bowel syndrome D. ulcerative colitis IBS - Correct answer ______ is characterized by lower abdominal pain, diarrhea- predominant, constipation - predominant, alternating diarrhea/constipation, gas, bloating and nausea. A. diverticulitis b. IBS C. ulcerative colitis D. crowns disease What are several disorders collectively known as chronic myeloproliferative disorder - Correct answer Essential thrombocytosis, polycythemia Vera, chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, chronic neutrophil leukemia, and chronic eosinophilia leukemia? Most common risk factors for endocardia damage - Correct answer Trauma, CHD, alular heart disease, prosthetic valve < 25% - Correct answer Symptomatic changes in chronic kidney disease including increased creatinine, urea and potassium levels do not become apparent until renal function declines to: a. 30% B. < 25% c. 25% d. 50% Types of Angina - Correct answer stable, unstable, variant/print metal, silent Perennial - Correct answer On POD #1, your patient is noted to have an elevated creatinine. The most likely cause would be__________? A. non-oliguria B. intracranial C. perennial D. post renal Graves’ disease - Correct answer the most common form of hyperthyroidism; caused by an autoimmune defect that creates antibodies that stimulate the overproduction of thyroid hormones; exophthalmos is a featured characteristic Hypernatremia - Correct answer the features of nephritic syndrome include all EXCEPT? A. hyperlipidemia Page 16 of 23 B. infection C. orbital edema D. hypernatremia Pericarditis - Correct answer inflammation of the pericardium Myasthenia gravis - Correct answer Functional dysphagia can be seen in a patient with: A. myasthenia gravis B. tumor c. GERD D. esophageal stricture Disorders of the posterior pituitary - Correct answer SIADH and DI Alcohol abuse - Correct answer the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis Isa coagulate necrosis. Obstruction. Vascular damaged. Alcohol abuse Right heart failure most often results from: - Correct answer Severe left heart failure primary hyperthyroidism - Correct answer When examining the results of a patient's thyroid studies, what would be the correct diagnosis if the labs revealed a decreased TSH, increased free T4, increased total T4 and increased T3? A. hyperparathyroidism B. myxedema C. hypothyroidism D. secondary hyperthyroidism E. primary hyperthyroidism Types of alular dysfunction - Correct answer Stenosis, regurgitation, MVP acromegaly - Correct answer A 45 year-old female presents to your clinic with high blood pressure, increased body odor and sweating that has become offensive to her family as well as difficulty sleeping due to a feeling that her tongue is becoming larger and she feels like she has arthritis. She is diagnosed as: a. Cushing’s disease B. acromegaly C. diabetes insipid us d. DKA Early onset (childhood) allergic asthma is initiated by a - Correct answer Type I hypersensitivity Hypothyroidism - Correct answer A 38 year old female presents to your clinic with complaints of fatigue, lethargy, diastolic hypertension & weight gain. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. thyroid storm B. hyperthyroidism C. diabetes mellitus D. hypothyroidism Page 17 of 23 Pheochromocytoma - Correct answer your patient presents with HTN, palpitations, tachycardia, glucose intolerance, excessive sweating & constipation. Your most likely diagnosis is: a. pheochromocytoma b. cushing syndrome c. hypoparathyroidism d. hypocortisolism e. hyperpituitarism type I DM - Correct answer The most common form of diabetes in children is: a. type I DM b. SIADH c. type II DM d. diabetes insipidus type II DM - Correct answer HHNKS is most closely associated with a. hyperkalemia b. type II DM c. increased ketosis d. somogyi effect fallopian tube - Correct answer The usual site of fertilization of an ovum is in the ______________? a. fallopian tube b. uterus c. vagina d. ovary Progesterone - Correct answer What hormone produced by the ovary is in greatest supply during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle? a. progesterone b. follistatin c. estradiol d. estrogen red meat - Correct answer Which of the following exposures to diet can cause an increased risk of breast cancer? a. soy b. red meat c. fiber d. low fat diet varicocele - Correct answer This condition is an abnormal dilation of a vein within the spermatic cord and is classically described as a "bag of worms". a. balanitis b. hydrocele c. varicocele d. spermatoceles Page 20 of 23 endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus - Correct answer Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by: A) endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus B) exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus C) immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus D) cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus medulla oblongata - Correct answer Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain? A) pons B) midbrain C) cerebellum D) medulla oblongata breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm - Correct answer The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome? A) hypovolemic shock from blood loss during the injury B) breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm C) head injury that likely occurred during the injury D) spinal shock immediately after the injury autonomic hyperreflexia - Correct answer What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection ans sweating above the spinal cord lesion? A) craniosacral dysreflexia B) parasympathetic dysreflexia C) autonomic hyperreflexia D) retrograde hyperreflexia a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus - Correct answer Multiple sclerosis is best described as: A) a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus B) inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder C) the depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus D) a degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral- immune factors thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones - Correct answer Graves disease develops from: A) a viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone B) an autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones Page 21 of 23 D) ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis - Correct answer A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum postassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient reports that he has been sick with the "flu" for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency? A) increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space B) decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis C) increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis D) decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues - Correct answer Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as: A) resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues B) the needs for lispro intead of regular insulin C) an increase in glucagon secretion from (alpa) cells of the pancreas D) the presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy (beta) cells in the pancreas hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise - Correct answer A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: A) hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration B) the dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime C) hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise D) Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity the Somogyi effect - Correct answer Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with: A) the Somogyi effect B) the dawn phenomenon C) diabetic ketoacidosis D) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina - Correct answer Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ? A) wher the squamos epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina B) where the columnar epithelium fo the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus C) where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus D) where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina Page 22 of 23