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Firefighter 1 Practice Test Questions and Answers 2024-2025! 100% CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Safety and Fire Engineering

Firefighter 1 Practice Test Questions and Answers 2024-2025! 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 04/17/2024

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Download Firefighter 1 Practice Test Questions and Answers 2024-2025! 100% CORRECT ANSWERS and more Exams Safety and Fire Engineering in PDF only on Docsity!

  1. Which is one of the keys to improving a firefighter's physical health? A. Gender/ethnic background B. Fire Service traditions C. Health screening D. Union involvement - C National Fire Protection Association 1001 is the: A. Standard for Firefighter Professional Qualifications. B. Standard for Industrial Fire Brigades. C. Standard for Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Programs. D. Standard for Blood Borne Pathogen Training. - A Where are medical requirements for firefighters specified? A. In the AMA publication, "Specifications for Industrial Fitness" B. NFPA 1582 C. NFPA 1001 D. NFPA 1500 - B
  2. Each firefighter accident or injury must be thoroughly investigated for two reasons. One is to determine why it happened and the other is to: A. determine its classification under the S.I.M.P.L.E. system. B. preclude any civil liability situation should it happen again. C. determine whether or not a de-facto feasance occurred. D. determine how it can be avoided in the future. - D Information on the training and performance qualifications for firefighters is located in which National Fire Protection Association Standard? A. NFPA 1001 B. NFPA 1002 C. NFPA 1500 D. NFPA 1401 - A

firefighter 1 practice test exam guide

questions and answers 2024

  1. What is an alerting system for a staffed fire station? A. Knox box C. Duplex System B. Fax machine D. Radio with alert tone - D In fire departments that have access to multiple radio channels, fireground operations should be: A. on multi-channels also. B. run by cell phone so as not to tie up the radio. C. assigned a separate dedicated channel. D. on the original dispatch channel only. - C
  2. What is another term for communications center dispatchers'? A. Gall originators C. Public interface officials B. Telecommunicators D. Signals technicians - B
  3. Telecommunication Device and Teletype are: A. location finders on so-called smart, enhanced 9-1-1. B. routers that allow calling the 9-1-1 system in another city. C. devices to help hearing-impaired people use telephones. D. chips that go into PDAs and PCs respectively, to allow them to call 9-1-1. - C
  4. What should be on the mind of a firefighter who answers the telephone in a fire department facility? A. That the firefighter is a representative of the fire department B. To be brief, so that the incoming phone line will be open to receive emergency calls C. Obtain all information; then hang up first to avoid tying up the phone line. D. Leaving the person on hold for as long as it takes to relay and verify information received - A
  5. The standardized term used to signal the immediate need to clear the radio and transmit critical information is. A. Emergency Traffic. C. Signal 2.

B. 10-99.

D. Critical Alert. - A

  1. What should call-takers do if a call comes in that is about issues not handled by the fire department? A. Try to direct the caller to the appropriate agency, even providing contact information, if available. B. Take the caller's information and advise them that this is a non-criminal offense for which there will be a small fine. C. Quickly and politely tell the caller this is not a fire department issue and hang up to free up the line. D. Transfer the call immediately to the recording for inappropriate calls. - A
  2. First arriving companies broadcast reports to incoming units. A. arrival B. urgent C. status D. select - A
  3. The only time the callout is used is in a situation where there is immediate danger to the lives of firefighters. A. attention B. emergency traffic C. urgent traffic D. mayday - D
  4. A trunked digital radio system allows: A. only one agency on the system. B. different agencies on different systems. C. different agencies on the same system. D. fewer users to communicate. - C
  5. Radio signals are either: A. simple or duplex. C. simple or complex. B. analog or digital. D. private or public. - B
  6. Which is considered to be a hazardous atmosphere encountered during fires? A. Oxygen @ 20.5 percent C. Smoke B. Water vapor D. Nitrogen oxide - C
  1. Which statement about protective breathing apparatus is correct? A. Beards or facial hair is allowable as long as they are neat and trim. B. Beards or facial hair cannot be in the seal area. C. Eyeglasses with side frames passing through the seal area of the self-contained breathing apparatus mask are allowable. D. Firefighters do not need to maintain a tight seal as the mask maintains positive pressure. - B
  2. As the oxygen supply in any given area falls below percent, unconsciousness can occur. A. 21 B. 17 C. 12 D. 9 - D
  3. A firefighter is susceptible to poisoning or irritation from carbon monoxide through: A. ingestion. B. absorption. C. inhalation. D. injection. - C
  4. What are the two general types of self-contained breathing apparatus? A. Demand and pressure-demand B. Open-circuit and closed-circuit C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration approved National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health approved D. Compressed air and liquid oxygen - B
  5. Inhaled toxic gases can directly cause: A. impaired lung function. B. muscle cramps in the lower extremities. C. blurred vision, leading to blindness. D. amnesia. - A
  6. Atmospheres are classified as oxygen deficient when they fall below percent oxygen. A. 25 B. 19.5 C. 16 D. 13.5 - B
  7. Toxic substances found in smoke include: A. hydrogen cyanide. C. oxygen. B. water vapor. D. sulphuric acid. - A
  1. One-self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) limitation that the firefighter should be aware of is: A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration prohibits spectacles in SCBA masks. B. SCBA and personal protective equipment add approximately 60-70 pounds of weight to the firefighter. C. the degree of training or experience users have with SCBA affects their level of self- confidence. D. low air alarms frequent malfunction. - C
  2. Which statement regarding the two self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) types in fire service use is correct? A. In an open-circuit SCBA, inhaled air is vented to the outside atmosphere. B. In an closed-circuit SCBA, inhaled air stays in the system for filtering, cleaning, and circulation. C. The closed-circuit type is commonly used for structural firefighting. D. SCBAs for fire service use are designed and built in accordance with NFPA Standards. - D 27 Some self-contained breathing apparatus cylinders for fire service use are made out of: A. aluminum. B. stainless steel. C. titanium. D. plastic composite. - A
  3. Carbon composite cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every years. A. 6-8 B. 3-5 C. 1-2 D. 12-15 - B
  4. What should a firefighter do if their self-contained breathing apparatus becomes damaged or malfunctions? A. Use the protective hood as a filter. B. Deactivate the PASS device. C. Remain calm and stay with their team. D. Run for the nearest exit as quickly as possible. - C
  5. The purpose of a PASS device is to: A. sound an alarm if certain fire or asphyxiate gases are detected. B. warn firefighters when their air supply is low. C. sound an alarm if a firefighter is motionless for a set period of time. D. keep track of elapsed time in deteriorating conditions. - C
  6. Which is true regarding self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)?

A. Tighten the top straps of the SCBA facepiece first. B. All SCBA facepieces must be fit-tested. C. Hoods should be worn under the SCBA straps and facepiece. D. Positive pressure should not be tested by breaking the regulator seal. - B

  1. Firefighters must be trained to exit the immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) environment: A. before the activation of their low air alarm. B. when the cylinder reads 45 percent. C. when their low air alarm activates. D. when the cylinder reads 30 percent. - A
  2. Which is true regarding the physical limits of wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)? A. Physical and emotional stress has little effect on firefighters wearing SCBAs. B. Different firefighters consume air at the same rates based on physical activities. C. Company officer should assign strenuous activities to the youngest firefighters to help older firefighters conserve air. D. Firefighters consume air at different rates based on their aerobic fitness. - D
  3. Fire department standard operating procedures/standard operating guides should be established in the most commonly accepted order of fireground priorities, which is: A. life safety, property conservation, and fire control. B. property conservation, life safety, and fire control. C. fire control, life safety, and property conservation. D. life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation. - D
  4. While responding, a firefighter should: A. always wear their seat belts. B. don their personal equipment while holding the handrails. C. stand up to don their self-contained breathing apparatus. D. unbuckle and be ready to dismount upon arrival. - A
  5. Firefighters should make sure their personal protective equipment is dry before engaging in structural firefighting because: A. Nomex is rendered non-flame-resistant when wet and heated. B. the outer shell becomes brittle and tears easily when wot. C. water trapped in the fabric can cause steam burns in fire conditions. D. water trapped in the fabric greatly enhances its thermal protection and that cuts off abruptly when the fabric dries. - C
  1. The most common danger that the firefighter experiences occurs: A. during non-fire emergencies. B. while riding the apparatus to and from emergency calls. C. during training. D. at emergency medical calls. - B
  2. Wearing damp or wet clothing: A. provides better thermal protection. B. can lead to reduced thermal resistance and burns. C. makes the wearer less susceptible to fatigue. D. does not affect thermal protection. - B
  3. Personal protective equipment provides a level of protection to firefighters. A. maximum B. minimum C. mid D. low - B
  4. Which is a hazard associated with riding fire apparatus? A. Donning seat-mounted self-contained breathing apparatus while the apparatus is in motion B. Donning personal protection equipment after arriving at the emergency C. Always being seated with seat belts and/or harnesses fastened while the vehicle is in motion D. Holding on to the side of the moving vehicle. - D
  5. Which is a safety practice to be followed while responding to an emergency? A. Dressing while the apparatus is in motion B. Properly fastening seat belts before the apparatus begins to move C. Jumping onto the apparatus D. Standing on responding apparatus only in designated areas - B
  6. A disadvantage in wearing gloves that meet National Fire Protection Association standards for structural firefighting is: A. thermal protection. B. protection from puncture. C. protection from scrapes and cuts. D. reduced dexterity. - D
  7. Which is a prohibited practice while responding to an emergency call? A. Walking briskly to the apparatus B. Donning personal protective equipment after arriving at the emergency

C. Donning seat-mounted self-contained breathing apparatus while the apparatus is on the road D. Dressing while the apparatus is responding - D

  1. When mounting fire apparatus, always: A. have at least one hand firmly grasping a hand hold, and at least one foot firmly placed on a foot surface. B. jump up and immediately grasp a hand hold. C. jump up and immediately grasp a hand hold with both hands. D. maintain two-hand and two-foot placement until apparatus starts to move. - A
  2. One type of device that should be placed to warn traffic at emergency highway or roadway scenes is/are: A. smudge pots. C. traffic cones. B. flagman. D. traffic saw horses. - C
  3. What is one source of facts about a structure? A. Eyewitness accounts C. A preincident plan B. Caller information D. Generalized assumption - C 47 , relates to the number of personnel an individual can effectively supervise. A. Staff rule C. Rule of thumb B. Span of control D. Line rule - B
  4. The serves to coordinate the flow of personnel into and out of the the fire area with the Incident Commander. A. safety officer C. operations officer B. planning officer D. accountability officer - D
  1. Traffic control and are essential to protect firefighters operating on highways. A. police C. good weather B. staging D. apparatus placement - D
  2. What is the first step in developing any fire attack plan? A. Having a good department Standard Operating Procedure B. Conducting an accurate size-up C. Stretching hose lines D. Securing a water supply. - B
  3. Property designated as a target hazard poses what risk to firefighters? A. None B. Decreased C. Same as any other property D. Increased - D
  4. The proper sequence of information and command flow describes: A. chain of command. C. span of control. B. discipline. D. unity of command. - A
  5. The process of dividing large jobs into smaller jobs to make them more manageable is described as: A. chain of command. C. span of control. B. division of labor. D. unity of command. - B
  6. A permits firefighters to gain access during an emergency. A. lockout C. Baker box B. tagout

D. key box/lock box - D

  1. Once overhead doors have been forced, they should be: A. removed. C. locked. B. unlocked to prevent relocking. D. blocked open. - D
  2. After the cylinder has been removed, use a(n) to move the locking bolt to the open position. A. key tool B. K-tool C. J-tool D. A-tool - A
  3. The preferred way to force an overhead folding door is to: A. pry up from the bottom at both outside edges. B. break out a panel and operate the latch from the inside. C. pry open from either side at approximately waist height. D. drive a wedge into the bottom center. - B
  4. Opening concrete block walls is often referred to as: A.breaching. B. barreling. C. mauling. D. tunneling - A
  5. Fire axes should be carried: A. over the shoulder. B. by the handle with the blade hanging close to the ground. C. by the handle with the blade toward the body. D. with the axe blade pointed away from the body and the pick-end shielded. - D
  6. The tool that has two retractable blades that depress as the head is driven through an obstruction and then reopens is the: A. pike pole. C. battering ram B. plaster hook. D. Kelly tool. - B
  7. What is one example of a hand-powered hydraulic spreader tool? A. Spanner tool B. Pompier tool

C. Rabbet tool D. Come along tool - C

  1. Which is one of the major lock categories? A. Mortise locks C. Rabbeted locks B. Oval D. Tumbled locks - A
  2. Which statement regarding the K tool is correct? A. The front of the tool is shaped like the letter K and slides over the lock cylinder. B. The K tool is designed to cut lock cylinders in order to open the lock. C. The back of the tool is shaped like the letter K and slides over the lock cylinder. D. The front of the tool has a block for striking with a flat-head axe. - C
  3. The tool that is specifically designed to open double swinging doors equipped with panic bars is a(n): A. i-rench curve C. opening strip. B. J tooi. D. claw tool. - B
  4. To force entry into an outward-swinging door, where is the Halligan bar applied? A. On either side of each hinge in turn B Space between the door and the door jamb near the lock C. Between the door and the frame near each hinge in turn D. Between the door and the frame on the latch side, but at hinge height, each in turn - B
  5. A set of irons is the combination of what two tools? A. Flat head axe and Halligan C. Claw tool and pry bar B. Crow bar and pick head axe D. Kelly tool and flat head axe - A
  6. If you became trapped by a floor collapse inside a burning structure, where would be the best safe haven? A. A void adjacent to an exterior wall

C. On top of the uncollapsed portion of the floor D. A closet on the floor below the collapse - A

  1. In the term LUNAR, the L stands for: A. location. B. low on air. C. lead firefighter is coming out. D. ladder Side A for firefighter coming out. - A
  2. Placing the butt of the ladder too close to the building reduces the of the ladder and tends to cause the tip to from the building. A. weight, slide down C. curvature, rub down B. stability, pull away D. width, slip down - B
  3. The parts of an extension ladder that prevent the fly section from being overextended are called: A. guides. C. anchors. B. locks. D. stops. - D
  4. When a ladder is raised, it should be placed at an angle of approximately to ensure a safe climb. A. 5° B. 75° C. 60° D. 45° - B
  5. Other than a ladder safety belt, a firefighter can be safely secured to a ground ladder using: A. a rope. B. an elbow lock. C. hose strap. D. a leg lock. - D
  6. An upper section or top section of an extension ladder is known as a: A. truss. B. bed C. fly. D. main. - C
  7. If 40 feet of a 50-foot extension ladder is used, the butt of the ladder should be placed approximately feet from the building. B. The center of the floor below the collapse

A.8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 15 - B

  1. What is the recommended minimum number of firefighters required to carry and safely raise a 35-foot extension ladder? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 - B
  2. During a two-firefighter raise of a single ladder, it is the responsibility of the to determine the proper placement from the building. A. driver/operator C. company officer B. firefighter at the butt D. incident commander - B 77 While working from a ground ladder, the hook on the safety harness should be: A. attached to a rung. C. secured to a lifeline. B. attached to a beam. D. attached to the halyard. - A
  3. The purpose of a sensor label on a fire department ladder is that it: A. has been dropped and may have suffered structural damage. B. has been exposed to potentially damaging heat levels. C. has been exposed to subfreezing temperatures that may have structurally damaged the ladder. D. is placed on an angle that makes working from it unsafe. - B
  4. The type of ladder that is usually 12 to 20 feet, and is also known as a wall ladder is a(n): A. straight ladder. C. combination ladder. B. roof ladder. D. A-frame ladder. - A
  5. The proper distance the butt of a ladder should be from a building is of the working distance of the ladder from the base of the wall. A. one-half B. one-quarter C. one-third D. one-eighth - B

81 What are butt spurs on a ladder? A. Protrusions that attach the hose strap to the ladder B. The teeth of the cam system that extends the fly sections C. Bumps and dents on the foot pad D. Spikes on the base that keep it from slipping - D

  1. How many methods are there for properly heeling a raised ground ladder? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four - B
  2. When conducting a primary search within a structure, a firefighter should: A. always begin in the center of the room. B. move quickly to search all areas. C. always start with right hand pattern. D. check under or behind furnishings first. - B
  3. Primary search crews should always carry: A. an extra self-contained breathing apparatus. B. a positive pressure device. C. a portable radio. D. utility rope for lifeline. - C
  4. Which forcible entry tool would typically be used to extend a firefighter's reach while sweeping across floors and under furniture? A. K-tool B. Bolt cutters C. Flat-head axe D. Barn-barn tool - C
  5. In the extremity carry: A. both firefighters face each other. B. both firefighters face the same direction. C. firefighters will hold a victim by his ankles and wrists. D. the victim and firefighters keep low to the ground. - B
  6. Immobilizing a victim who is suspected of having a spinal injury on a long backboard requires rescuers. A.2 B. 3 C. 4 D.5 - C
  7. In times of stress, most people leave a building:

A. by the closest exit. B. by the same routes they use every day. C. by the route designated in the fire preplan. D. only if given specific instructions to do so. - B

  1. A primary search is: A. a rapid search of high-priority areas. B. the most thorough search possible. C. impossible to conduct during suppression activities. D. slow and methodical. - A
  2. Which is considered one of the basic tasks of the ladder company crew? A. Advancing hose lines to extinguish the fire B. Forcible entry to gain access to the fire C. Establishing the rehabilitation area D. Establishing the rapid intervention crew - B
  3. The most appropriate search technique for a warehouse or supermarket is: A. light scan search. C. rope-guided search. B. perimeter search. D. hose line search. - C
  4. When being recalled during a rope-guided search, you should: A. maintain control of the bag and take it out with you. B. reverse your direction on the line and search along the rope until you get back to the point of entry. C. disregard any knots you come across. D. reverse your direction on the line and proceed directly back to the point of entry. - D
  5. When advancing a dry hose line up a Iadder, firefighters should position themselves on the Iadder: A. on opposing sides of the beam. B no more than six feet apart. C. with no more than one firefighter per section. D. within arms' reach of each other. - C
  6. Firefighters' risk of injury or collapse increases as they: A. operate at wildland fires.

B. are assigned to forcible entry C. become tired and/or dehydrated. D. get older. - C

  1. The type of construction where the exterior walls and structural members are made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials and the interior is completely or partially made of wood is: A. Type I construction. C. Type III construction. B. Type II construction. D. Type IV construction. - C
  2. The most common injuries for firefighters are: A. strains. B. bruises. C. burns. D. fractures. - A
  3. Convection is the transfer of heat through: A. space by infrared rays. B. a solid medium. C. friction or compression. D. liquids or gases by circulating currents. - D
  4. When the concentration of a gas is within the range where it can ignite, it is said to: A. be at its ignition temperature. B. have reached its boiling point. C. be within its flammable/explosive range. D. be at its flash point. - C
  5. The principle which most closely describes how water extinguishes fire is: A. removal of fuel. C. exclusion of oxygen. B. reduction of temperature. D. inhibition of chain reaction. - B
  6. Combustion is the result of a reaction. A. mechanical B. chemical C. dielectrical D. replenishment - B
  7. What are toxic products of combustion? A. convection, conduction, radiation, and direct contact

B. fire gases, flame, chemical chain reaction C. water vapor and soot D. carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide. - D

  1. How are flammability limits and explosive limits related? A. Flammability limits are used to calculate explosive limits. B. Explosive limits are used to calculate flammability limits. C. The two terms are neither mathematically nor conceptuality related. D. They are interchangeable terms meaning the same thing. - D
  2. If a gas has a vapor density greater than one, when it escapes from its container: A. it will rise. B. it will float on water. C. its movement will be dependent on temperature. D. it will sink and collect at low points. - D
  3. Which is a mode of heat transfer'? A. Conduction B. Evaporation C. Latent heat D. Pyrolysis - A
  4. A class A fire is fueled by: A. electricity. C. liquids. B. ordinary combustible materials. D. gases. - B
  5. The stages/phases of solid fuel fire development are: A. initial, growth, developed, decline. B. incipient/ignition, growth, fully developed, decay. C. origin, intermediate, growth, decline. D. spontaneous, incipient, growth, decay. - B
  6. The temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion once the fuel is ignited is the: A. fire point. C. ignition point. B. flash point. D. vapor density. - A
  1. Vapors and gases with vapor densities less than 1 will tend to: A. rise up in the air. C. drop to the ground. B. dissipate as they mix. D. float as a cloud. - A
  2. It is important that a firefighter understand the four stages/phases of fire growth which are: A. ignition/incipient, pre-flashover, post-flashover, and decay. B. growth, flashover, post-flashover, and decay. C. ignition, growth, pre-flashover, and decay. D. ignition/incipient, growth, fully developed, and decay. - D
  3. A type of wood framing that has vertical channels going from floor to floor. allowing a fire to travel uninterrupted is a frame. A.platform B. open C. balloon D. box - C
  4. At °F, the length of a steel structural member will begin to elongate. A. 800 B. 1100 C. 1400 D. 1000. - D
  5. The most common type of building material in use today is: A. steel. B. wood. C. concrete. D. plastics - B
  6. For firefighters working in or around a structure, a lightweight truss presents what type of hazard? A. Minimal access hazard B. Collapse hazard C. Wall failure will cause the adjacent structure to fall D. Minimal electrical hazard - B
  7. What danger is suggested by the observation of smoke puffing in and out of a structure? A. Impending structural collapse B The presence of backdraft conditions C. Weak structural roofing members D. Untempered, unreinforced glazing in windows - B
  8. What does the observation of a steel beam bending under fire suggest? A. Nothing, this is normal and it will bend back when it cools.

B. Imminent failure C. Imminent ignition D. Underway release of toxic ferrous oxalate - B

  1. While no exact temperature is associated with flashover, a range from approximately degrees Fahrenheit is widely accepted. A. 400-900 B. 900-1200 C. 1200-1500 D. 1500-1900 - B
  2. Which statement best describes Type I construction? A. Structural members are noncombustible and have little or no fire resistance. B. Structural members are comprised of massive wood columns and beams. C. Most of the entire structure is made of combustible products. D. Structural members are protected from fire's heat to prevent loss of integrity. - D
  3. The dangerous situation in which a hidden or smoldering fire reignites after departure of fire crews is called: A. backdraft. B. rollover. C. fire point. D. rekindle. - D
  4. Which method of gaining entry into a structure is the least destructive? A. Try before you pry B. Breaking a small window in a door and reaching in through the window to unlock the door C. Removing the stop on a non-rabbeted door frame and prying the latch clear of the frame. D. Forcing an outward opening door with a Halligan tool - A
  5. Water normally extinguishes fire by: A. cooling. B. suffocating. C. disrupting the chemical reaction. D. removing the fuel. - A
  6. Water is the most common extinguishing agent because: A. the flow can be periodically interrupted without consequences. B. it has the ability to reflect. C. it is expensive. D. of its cooling properties. - D
  7. All portable extinguishers are classified according to their: A.size B. freeze potential. C. intended use. D. conductivity. - C
  1. Fires involving flammable liquids and gases where applied foam and/or dry chemical agents will be needed are fires. A.Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D - B
  2. A fire extinguisher bearing the symbols shown below would be suitable for extinguishing fires. A. Class A, B, and C B. Class B, C, and D C. Class A, B, and K D. Class A, B, C, and D - A
  3. It is dangerous to apply a stream of water to energized electrical equipment because. A. burning electricity intensifies when struck by water. B. water can conduct electricity back to the extinguisher. C. electricity extracts the oxygen from the water and uses it as more fuel. D. cyanide gas is evolved when water hits electricity. - B
  4. The greatest concern associated with selecting too small of an extinguisher is that: A. the contents will expel too quickly. B. delicate equipment could be damaged by over application. C. the operator has to get closer to the fire. D. excessive amounts of dry chemical result in poor visibility. - C 127, The use of halon agents is strictly controlled because it: A. is mutagenic. B. is carcinogenic. C. pollutes the water. D. damages the ozone layer. - D
  5. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) extinguishing agents are applicable to fires. A. Class C C. both Class A and B B. Class D D. Class A, B, and C - C
  6. What extinguisher may be required to extinguish a restaurant kitchen fire involving the fryers? A. Dry chemical B. Type K C. Water D. Carbon Dioxide - B
  1. Class C fires involve: A. combustible materials. B. flammable liquids. C. energized electrical equipment. D. metals. - C
  2. What is one limitation of inverters? A. They can only operate for a few minutes. B. They have limited power and mobility. C. They jam any nearby radio traffic. D. Their voltage output is erratic. - B
  3. Generators used for emergency services are usually: A. portable and wheeled. B. 110 or 220 DC current C. 12 or 24-volt AC current. D. portable or vehicle mounted. - D
  4. Utility rope should be used for: A. rappelling. B. belaying. D. life safety. C. hoisting tools. - C
  5. The kern of a kernmantle rope is the: A. core. B. sheath. C. end. D. weave. - A
  6. From which end of the rope can a clove hitch accept tension without coming untied? A. From either end C. The running end only B. The working end only D. Before the loop - A
  7. The knot used to tie two ropes of unequal diameter together is the:

A. clove hitch. B. square knot. C. becket/sheet bend. D. half hitch. - C

  1. The clove hitch is commonly used in the fire service for: A. stringing lines together. C. hoisting fire equipment. B. forming the rescue knot. D. splicing - C
  2. The end of the rope that is used to be a knot is called the: A. running end. B. standing part. C. safety end. D. working end. - D
  3. The drawing below depicts one of the three elements of a knot or hitch. It is known as a: A. bight. C. round turn. B. loop. D. becket/sheet bend. - A
  4. Which statement regarding ropes and knots is correct? A. Use a bowline knot to form a secure loop under tension. B. Dry ropes in a top-loading dryer. C. The rescue knot can only be used on an unconscious patient. D. Ropes can be dried in direct sunlight. - A
  5. Which is true regarding hoisting tools and equipment? A. Use hand over hand method to control rope when hoisting. B. Fire extinguishers and self-contained breathing apparatus should not be hoisted. C. Use with webbing over sharp edges to prevent physical damage to rope. D. When working with heights, use additional ropes for added safety. - B
  6. The is tied as illustrated below: A. bowline C. clove hitch B. becket/sheet bend

D. figure-eight - D

  1. Fiberglass and Kevlar self-contained breathing apparatus cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every: A.year. B. three years. C. six years. D. ten years. - B
  2. What is one of the parts to the maintenance formula for ropes? A. Store B. Shore C. CoiI D. Curl - A
  3. Defective self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) cylinder units should be: A. repaired by the person who discovers the defect. B. removed from service. C. put on reserve fire apparatus. D. filled to 80 percent capacity. - B
  4. Proper care for a tool with a fiberglass handle is: A. lightly sand and follow with boiled linseed oil. B. pain the handle regularly. C. varnish the handle at least annually. D. wash the handle with mild detergent and rinse. - D
  5. Manufacturers should provide users of personal protective equipment with what information? A. Cleaning instructions C. Shelf life duration B. MSDS information D. Liability protection - A
  6. When cleaning and caring for personal protective equipment (PPE), the firefighter should: A. clean the outer shell at least once a year. B. hang PPE to dry in direct sunlight. C. wash PPE in station washer and dryers. D. decontaminate after interior firefighting and medical calls. - D
  7. Once rope has been washed, it should be:

A. dried out of direct sunlight. C. dried with hot, moist air. B. dried in direct sunlight. D. bagged while still wet. - A

  1. What is one item that would be included in a life safety rope's record? A. Each time it was used C. Who purchased the rope B. Cost D. The rope's life expectancy - A