FIREFIGHTER 2 FINAL ACTUAL 2024 EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE EXAM WITH DETAILED VE, Exams of Nursing

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FIREFIGHTER 2 FINAL ACTUAL 2024 EXAM 150

QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE EXAM WITH

DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS (100%

CORRECT) /A+ GRADE ASSURED

When a company officer arrives first on a fire scene, the officer is in command until: A.the fire is declared under control. B. a chief officer arrives and may choose to assume command. C. the chief of the department arrives. D. arrival of the senior shift officer. - CORRECT ANSWER-a chief officer arrives and may choose to assume command. An employee becomes frustrated because he/she cannot comply with conflicting orders from different bosses. This situation was caused by a violation of: A. chain of command. B. division of labor. C. span of control. D. unity of command. - CORRECT ANSWER-unity of command. In the fire service, division of labor is necessary to: A. assign responsibility. B. prevent duplication of effort. C. make specific and clear-cut assignments. D. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER-All of the above. Policies are examples of standing plans designed to provide: A. staffing requirement guidelines. B. guidance for decision making. C. problem-solving. D. communications. - CORRECT ANSWER-guidance for decision making.

A procedure is a(n): A. guide to thinking. B. detailed guide to action. C. guide to decision making. D. interpretation. - CORRECT ANSWER-detailed guide to action. Which of the following is one of the major functions of the Incident Management System? A. PIO B. Planning C. Liaison D. Safety Officer - CORRECT ANSWER-Planning The Incident Management System has a number of components that provide the basis for an effective IMS operation. Which of the following is not one of these components? A. Common terminology B. Unified command C. Modular organization D. Prefire plans - CORRECT ANSWER-Prefire plans Which of the following is not a major functional area of the Incident Management System? A. Groups B. Planning C. Logistics D. Operations - CORRECT ANSWER-Groups NFPA __________ is the standard that contains minimum requirements and procedures for a safety and health program. A. 1901

B. 1932

C. 1001

D. 1500 - CORRECT ANSWER- 1500

Passengers and drivers/operators of responding emergency vehicles should do all of the following except: A. wear hearing protection when noise levels exceed 90 decibels. B. ride on the tailboard. C. remain seated in their seats with their seat belts fastened. D. ride inside a fully enclosed portion of the cab whenever possible. - CORRECT ANSWER-ride on the tailboard. Under normal conditions, only a(n) __________ may order multiple alarms or additional resources for large-scale incidents. A. logistics officer B. planning officer C. safety operations officer D. incident commander - CORRECT ANSWER-incident commander As it relates to the Incident Management System (IMS), a division refers to: A.firefighters assigned to a single task. B. a part of a strike team. C. a geographic location or designation. D. a supporting branch for the logistics team. - CORRECT ANSWER-a geographic location or designation. Which of the following is not a component of an Incident Management System? A. Integrated communications B. Predesignated facilities C. Modular organization D. Independent action plans - CORRECT ANSWER-Independent action plans

The Incident Management System should: A. be fully implemented for all situations. B. be initiated by the first fire unit on the scene. C. provide procedures that perfectly fit all departments. D. eliminate the need for mutual aid assistance. - CORRECT ANSWER-be initiated by the first fire unit on the scene. The tracking of personnel working at an incident requires a system that is standardized for every incident to establish: A. accountability. B. chain of command. C. unity of command. D. span of control. - CORRECT ANSWER-accountability. In the Incident Management System, the __________ has authority over the ordering, releasing, and controlling resources. A. Incident Commander B. Logistics Officer C. Operations Officer D. Staging Officer - CORRECT ANSWER-Incident Commander In the Incident Management System, __________ are functional crews assigned to perform a specific task such as ventilation or rescue. A. divisions B. groups C. single resources D. branches - CORRECT ANSWER-groups Within the Incident Management System, the positions of Safety, Liaison, and Information are:

A. divisions. B. groups. C. functional areas. D. command staff positions. - CORRECT ANSWER-command staff positions The Incident Management System is best defined as: A. the overall plan developed and used to control an incident. B. an organized, systematic method for the command, control, and management of an emergency incident. C. the ability to start small and expand if an incident becomes more complex. D. one designated leader or officer to command an incident. - CORRECT ANSWER-an organized, systematic method for the command, control, and management of an emergency incident. What is the optimal number of individuals that one person should be supervising at an emergency incident? A. Eleven B. Three C. Five D. Seven - CORRECT ANSWER-Five In order for the Incident Management System to function properly, it must contain all of the following components except: A. common terminology. B. integrated communications. C. all personnel from a single agency. D. consolidated incident action plans. - CORRECT ANSWER-all personnel from a single agency. Under the Incident Management System, the __________ is responsible for determining the strategic goals for control of an incident.

A. Incident Commander B. Operations Officer C. Planning Officer D. Administration Officer - CORRECT ANSWER-Incident Commander Under the Incident Management System, the __________ is responsible for implementing the tactical assignments to meet the strategic goal. A. Incident Commander B. Operations Chief C. Planning Chief D. Safety Officer - CORRECT ANSWER-Operations chief Under the Incident Management System, the __________ Officer is responsible for providing factual and accurate information to the media. A. Safety B. Liaison C. Staffing D. Public Information - CORRECT ANSWER-Public Information The arrival report should contain: A. a situation evaluation. B. the attack mode selected. C. the person in command. D. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER-All of the above United States fire loss statistics show that most structure fires, most fire damage, and most injuries and fatalities occur in __________ occupancies. A. commercial B. industrial C. institutional

D. residential - CORRECT ANSWER-residential Which of the following items would not be found in the risk/benefit philosophy of a risk management plan? A. Where no life can be saved, no risk shall be taken by firefighters. B. Situations endangering valued property shall cause firefighters to take a calculated and weighted risk. C. Where no life or valued property can be saved, risk shall be taken by firefighters. D. Significant risk to the life of a firefighter shall be limited to those situations where the firefighter can potentially save endangered lives. - CORRECT ANSWER-Where no life or valued property can be saved, risk shall be taken by firefighters. Risk management is: A. a collection of documents that includes all federally promulgated regulations for all federal agencies. B. the process of minimizing the chance, degree, or probability of damage, loss, or injury. C. the result of a series of events and conditions that lead to an unsafe situation resulting in injury and/or property damage. D. a formal gathering of incident responders to help defuse and address stress from a given incident. - CORRECT ANSWER-the process of minimizing the chance, degree, or probability of damage, loss, or injury. The type of call, action taken, number of injuries or fatalities, and the property usage information are all entries to be included on an __________ report. A. USFA B. IMS C. ACLS D. NFIRS - CORRECT ANSWER-NFIRS A uniform data collection system used by most departments to track incident information is known as the: A. National Fire Incident Reporting System. B.National Fire Incident Recording System. C. First National Incident Reporting System.

D. First National Incident Response System. - CORRECT ANSWER-National Fire Incident Reporting System. Of the following, the information that would not be contained on a fire report is the: A. number of personnel who responded. B. time call was dispatched. C. IDLH conditions prior to fire attack. D. number of apparatus used on scene. - CORRECT ANSWER-IDLH conditions prior to fire attack. Which of the following statements regarding fire reports is incorrect? A. Information found in fire reports can be used by insurance companies. B. Information reported on fire reports is used by private manufacturing companies. C. Fire reports are public records. D. NFIRS do not need to be completed for EMS runs. - CORRECT ANSWER-NFIRS do not need to be completed for EMS runs. Which of the following statements regarding fire incident reports is incorrect? A. All states in the U.S. participate in the NFIRS program. B. They are a legal document even if they are not signed. C. The address location must include both owner and occupant. D. Local fire information becomes part of the national database. - CORRECT ANSWER-All states in the U.S. participate in the NFIRS program. Fire incident information is reported to the: A. U. S. Fire Administration. B. State Fire Marshal's office. C. insurance companies, if requested. D. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER-All of the above

The two most common ways the incident commander orders firefighters to evacuate a structure are to broadcast a radio message and: A. page all firefighters to respond. B. implement an accountability system. C. contact dispatch to activate PASS device. D. sound an audible warning. - CORRECT ANSWER-sound an audible warning. Audible warning devices for emergency evacuation should be: A. broadcast several times. B. heard for at least 500 feet. C. used to announce the need for multiple alarms. D. used to give an "all clear" on scene. - CORRECT ANSWER-broadcast several times. It is important that the communication center be kept advised of the actions taken at emergency scenes. Progress reports should include all of the following except: A. change in command location. B. exposures present. C. direction of fire spread. D. number of units in staging. - CORRECT ANSWER-number of units in staging. Fire departments that operate radio equipment must hold radio licenses from the: A. Federal Central Communications. B. National Emergency Broadcasting. C. Federal Communications Commission. D. National Radio Communications. - CORRECT ANSWER-Federal Communications Commission. A(n) __________ System tracks fire department units on a map as they move around city or town streets. A. Low-Jack B. Automatic Global Positioning (AGP)

C. AutomaticVehicleLocating(A.V.L.) D. VehicleDown-Link(V.D.L) - CORRECT ANSWER-Automatic Vehicle Locating(A.V.L.) The __________ System can significantly shorten response time or enable a dispatcher to handle a greater volume of calls. A. Voice Recording B. Radio Logging C. Wireless Fax D. Computer-Aided Dispatch - CORRECT ANSWER-Computer-Aided Dispatch In fire departments that have access to multiple radio channels, emergency operations should be: A. on multichannels also. B. run by cell phone so the radio is not tied up. C. assigned a separate channel dedicated for use on that scene only. D. Both A and C are correct. - CORRECT ANSWER-Both A and C are correct. Which of the following is not true of cellular phones in reporting emergencies? A. There is wide availability to a cross section of citizens. B. Callers are more likely to know the exact location. C. Cell phones are more mobile. D. Calls are routed to a predetermined answering point. - CORRECT ANSWER-Callers are more likely to know the exact location. The important difference between Basic 911 and Enhanced 911 is that: A. enhanced systems have the capability to provide the caller's telephone number and address. B. enhanced systems are used only in rural areas. C. basic systems are more reliable than enhanced. D. basic systems have the capability to provide the caller's telephone number and address. - CORRECT ANSWER-enhanced systems have the capability to provide the caller's telephone number and address.

Computer-aided dispatch is: A. a computer-based, automated system that assists the telecommunicator in assessing dispatch information and recommends responses. B. an organized collection of similar facts. C. typically used by operations chief officers in the fire service. D. an emergency alerting device primarily used by volunteer department personnel to receive reports of emergency incidents. - CORRECT ANSWER-a computer-based, automated system that assists the telecommunicator in assessing dispatch information and recommends responses. The communications center is: A. the ideal place to put unskilled employees. B. the hub of the operation. C. a low-stress work environment. D. the least needed branch of the fire service. - CORRECT ANSWER-the hub of the operation. The benefit of a good scene size-up is all of the following except: A. the incoming units can anticipate their assignment. B. the effects of initial fire attack on the fire. C. identification of command. D. confirmation of the address. - CORRECT ANSWER-the effects of initial fire attack on the fire. Emergency communications backup power sources should: A. be installed only if finances allow. B. be tested on a regular basis. C. never have a fuel supply on-site. D. be installed at a remote location from the center. - CORRECT ANSWER-be tested on a regular basis. Status reports should be made ten minutes into the incident and at __________ minute intervals thereafter until the incident is under control. A. 5 - 10

B. 20 - 30

C. 10 - 15

D. exactly 30 - CORRECT ANSWER-C. 10 - 15 The initial report given by first arriving companies is called a: A. progress report. B. status report .C. size-up. D. personnel arrival report. - CORRECT ANSWER-size-up. The report given to the I.C. from an interior crew which tells the I.C. the fire is controlled would be a(n): A. size-up report. B. progress/status report. C. all clear notification. D. staging report. - CORRECT ANSWER-progress/status report. Which of the following is important to remember in placing a foam line in service using an in-line proportioner? A. Check the eductor and nozzle to make sure they are hydraulically compatible (rated for the same flow). B. Check to see that the foam concentrate listed on the foam container matches the eductor percentage rating. C. Select the proper foam concentrate for the burning fuel involved. D. Attach the eductor to a hose capable of efficiently flowing the rated capacity of the eductor and thenozzle. - CORRECT ANSWER-Select the proper foam concentrate for the burning fuel involved. Which is the most common type of foam proportioner used in the fire service? A. Balanced pressure proportioners B. In-line eductors C. Around-the-pump proportioners

D. Automatic eductors - CORRECT ANSWER-In-line eductors A __________ nozzle is used with a foam solution to produce a low-expansion, short-lasting foam. A. adjustable fog B. mechanical blower C. solid-bore D. water-aspirating foam - CORRECT ANSWER-adjustable fog The elements needed to produce quality firefighting foam include: A. mechanical aeration, air, water, and concentrate. B. air, concentrate, eductor, and CO2. C. proportioner, CO2, and eductor. D. aspiration, subsurface injection, and air. - CORRECT ANSWER-mechanical aeration, air, water, and concentrate. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) is used in ___________ percent concentrations. A. 0.1 and 0. B. 1, 3, and 6 C. 9, 10, and 12 D. 10, 12, and 15 - CORRECT ANSWER-1, 3, and 6 Class A foams are essentially wetting agents that __________ of water. A. increase the viscosity B. increase the resistance C. reduce the surface tension D. create a higher vaporization point - CORRECT ANSWER-reduce the surface tension Alcohol resistant AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam) can be utilized on hydrocarbon fires at __________ percent proportions.

A. two B. three C. ten D. nine - CORRECT ANSWER-three Of the following characteristics, which is not an advantage of Class A foams? A. They may be used with regular water stream equipment. B.They can be premixed with water in the booster tank. C. They have out standing insulating qualities. D. They can be used on Class A and B fires. - CORRECT ANSWER-They can be used on Class A and B fires. Which one of the following is not a method by which foam acts as a suppression agent? A. Smothering B. Cooling C. Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction D. Separating - CORRECT ANSWER-Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction Which of the following is not a polar solvent? A. Alcohol B. Acetone C. Kerosene D. Ketone - CORRECT ANSWER-Kerosene Petroleum-based fuels are __________ and float on water. A. inorganic B. hydrocarbons C. polar solvents D. polymers - CORRECT ANSWER-hydrocarbons

In cases where a basement fire is inaccessible, __________ may be used to extinguish the fire. A. dry chemical B. low-expansion foam C. high-expansion foam D. AFFF - CORRECT ANSWER-high-expansion foam To produce the proper rate of foam on flammable liquids fire, a(n) __________ is necessary. A. high-volume pump B. proportioner C. fog nozzle D. aspirating tip - CORRECT ANSWER-proportioner For application of aqueous film-forming foam, eductors or proportioners operate on a(n) __________ principle. A. Bernoulli's B. Venturi C. induction D. pressure - CORRECT ANSWER-Venturi When making foam, in order for the nozzle and eductor to work properly: A. both should come from the same manufacturer. B. the nozzle must have a lower flow rating than the eductor. C. the nozzle must have a higher flow rating than the eductor. D. both should have the same flow rating. - CORRECT ANSWER-both should have the same flow rating. An in-line eductor should not be positioned more than __________ above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate in the container. A. 18 inches B. 2 feet

C. 5 feet D. 6 feet - CORRECT ANSWER-6 feet Foams in use currently are of the mechanical type and must be __________ and __________ before they can be used. A. proportioned, blended B. stirred, aerated C. mixed, proportioned D. proportioned, aerated - CORRECT ANSWER-proportioned, aerated Production of an adequate amount of bubbles to form an effective foam blanket is the definition of: A. proportioning B. aeration C. mixing D. blending - CORRECT ANSWER-aeration To ensure maximum effectiveness, use foam concentrates __________ the specific percentage for which they are intended to be proportioned. A. within 10% greater than B. only at C. plus or minus 5% of D. within plus or minus 2% of - CORRECT ANSWER-only at Firefighting foam solution is __________ percent water. A. 95to98. B. 80to85. C. 94to99. D. 80to90.7 - CORRECT ANSWER-94 to 99.

The most effective type of foam for use on polar solvents is: A. alcohol-resistant B. Class A foam. C. low/high expansion foam. D. FFFP. - CORRECT ANSWER-alcohol-resistant Foams designed for Class B fuel fires are used at __________ percent concentration. A. 6 to 10 B. 2 to 8 C. 5 to 12 D. 1 to 6 - CORRECT ANSWER-1 to 6 Regarding the application of firefighting foam, the major difference between hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels is that: A. hydrocarbons are miscible. B. polar solvents float on water. C. polar solvents are water soluble. D. Both A and C are correct. - CORRECT ANSWER-polar solvents are water soluble. Application rate in relationship to a flammable liquids fire is: A. amount of water needed to extinguish a fire. B. amount of foam or foam solution needed to extinguish a fire. C. ratio of air to water needed to extinguish a fire. D. ratio of foam to water to generate an effective foam blanket. - CORRECT ANSWER-amount of foam or foam solution needed to extinguish a fire. Fuel resistance is: A. the ability of the foam to stand up to the heat of the fire. B. how fast the foam spreads across the surface of a fuel.

C. the ability to contain or control the production of fuel vapors. D. the ability to tolerate the fuel and to avoid being saturated. - CORRECT ANSWER-the ability to tolerate the fuel and to avoid being saturated. Which of the following is not one of the ways foam is applied using a nozzle? A. Raindown or snowflake technique B. Bank-in or roll-on technique C. Sub-surface injection technique D. Bank-down or off the wall technique - CORRECT ANSWER-Sub-surface injection technique Solubility is defined as: A. having the ability to mix with water. B. the study of fluids at rest and in motion. C. an aggregate of gas-filled bubbles formed from aqueous solutions. D. referring to evidence gathered at arson scenes. - CORRECT ANSWER-having the ability to mix with water. Friction loss is: A. the amount or volume of water that a nozzle will provide. B. the force of nature that makes the nozzle move in the opposite direction of the water flow. C. the forward pressure of water as it leaves an opening. D. that part of total pressure that is lost while water moves through a hose line. - CORRECT ANSWER- that part of total pressure that is lost while water moves through a hose line. In what type of fire might it be better to allow the fire to burn itself out, rather than applying water as an extinguishing agent? A. Wood and natural fiber B. Pesticides and gases C. Fires involving plastics D. Alloftheabove. - CORRECT ANSWER-Pesticides and gases

The preferred method of controlling flammable liquid fires is: A. the use of foam. B. the use of large amounts of water. C. the use of unmanned nozzles. D. letting the fire burn undisturbed. - CORRECT ANSWER-the use of foam. Liquids that have flash points less than __________ are __________ liquids. A. 1°F, hydrocarbon B. 10°F, noncombustible C. 100°F, flammable D. 1000°F, combustible - CORRECT ANSWER-100°F, flammable Unburned flammable liquid vapors are usually __________ than air and __________. A. heavier, will form pools in low areas B. lighter, will dissipate into the air C. less combustible, will not ignite D. more combustible, will easily ignite - CORRECT ANSWER-heavier, will form pools in low areas At flammable liquid spills, fire apparatus should be positioned: A. down hill and downwind. B. down hill and upwind. C. uphill and downwind. D. uphill and upwind. - CORRECT ANSWER-uphill and upwind. Combustible liquids are those that have a flash point higher than __________o F. A. 60 B. 70 C. 90

D. 100 - CORRECT ANSWER- 100

One of the most important problems that must be addressed during a flammable liquids incident is: A. to control all ignitions sources. B. to place attack lines near the apparatus for protection. C. to contact the hazardous materials team on call. D. to establish the staging area near the command post. - CORRECT ANSWER-to control all ignitions sources. Water can be used at fires involving a flammable liquid as a cooling agent, mechanical tool, protective cover, and: A. mixing agent. B. substitute medium. C. vapor containment. D. wicking action. - CORRECT ANSWER-substitute medium. Once the valve on a container of flammable liquids has been shut off, the hose crew should: A. shut off the nozzles and exit the area. B. continue to apply water as they exit the area. C. continue to apply water and wash down the area. D. shut off the water and monitor the area. - CORRECT ANSWER-continue to apply water as they exit the area. Directions: Match the following terms regarding use of water on Class B fire in Column A with the definitions in Column B. Column A Column B

88. Cooling agent
89. Mechanical tool
90. Substitute medium

A. Displace fuel from pipes B. Fire attack C. Most useful for exposure protection D. Move flammable product to another area - CORRECT ANSWER-C,D,A The four basic methods by which foam may be proportioned are: Injection, Premixing, Induction, and: A. Venturi. B. Batch-mixing. C. Patch-mixing. D. Aeration. - CORRECT ANSWER-Batch-mixing. After extinguishing a Class B fire with foam, the area should be: A. washed down. B. covered with sand. C. monitored for reignition. D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER-monitored for reignition Which of the following is not a hydrocarbon? A. Ketone B. Kerosene C. Gasoline D. Fuel/heating oil - CORRECT ANSWER-ketone The safest recommended means for a firefighter to disconnect electrical service to a building is to: A. cut the service entrance wire. B. pull the meter. C. locate the nearest transformer and deactivate it.

D. shut off the main power breaker/fuse in the panel box. - CORRECT ANSWER-shut off the main power breaker/fuse in the panel box. The only effective measure for protecting firefighters from an imminent building collapse is to: A. provide them with OSHA-approved personal protective equipment. B. remove personnel from the building. C. position them at least two rooms from the expected area of collapse. D. have them work in small groups in large undivided spaces. - CORRECT ANSWER-remove personnel from the building. A roof that is elevated in the center and with an angular slope to the edges is called a __________ roof. A. butterfly B. dome C. pitched/gabled D. double-angle - CORRECT ANSWER-pitched/gabled Upon arrival at the scene of a fully-involved building fire, a firefighter observes large metal stars mounted on the exterior walls and tie rods. The firefighter should: A. disregard such decorative hardware in his/her assessment. B. take special precautions with respect to possible building collapse. C. use these cut-in areas in the event that breaching is required. D. avoid this section of the building since this reinforcement indicates the possible storage of explosives.

• CORRECT ANSWER-take special precautions with respect to possible building collapse. The primary fire hazard in fire resistive construction is the: A. structure members. B. contents of the structure. C. lack of walls. D. non-fire resistive construction. - CORRECT ANSWER-contents of the structure.

Horizontal extension of fire includes all of the following means of heat transfer except through: A. wall openings by direct flame contact. B. open space by radiant heat. C. ceilings and floors by direct flame contact. D. walls by conduction of heat through pipes. - CORRECT ANSWER-ceilings and floors by direct flame contact. The type of construction that has the greatest resistance to structural damage by fireis __________ construction. A. heavy timber B. ordinary C. fire resistant D. noncombustible - CORRECT ANSWER-fire resistant Spalling of concrete could lead to early collapse in Type I buildings because: A. loss of moisture in concrete reduces its fire rating. B. the added weight of broken pieces may cause overload. C. it could create void spaces. D. reinforcing steel is exposed to the heat of the fire. - CORRECT ANSWER-reinforcing steel is exposed to the heat of the fire. What type of construction has structural members (including walls, columns, beams, floors, and roofs) that are made of noncombustible or limited-combustible materials? A. Type I B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type V - CORRECT ANSWER-Type I Firefighters should know that fire in Type V construction presents: A. shortening of steel components.

B. breakdown of the concrete members due to the heat buildup. C. extensive spalling. D. high potential for fire extension within the building. - CORRECT ANSWER-high potential for fire extension within the building. What type of building construction is made up of solid heavy timber or laminated wood? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type IV D. Type V - CORRECT ANSWER-Type IV Which of the following is a hazard associated with truss and lightweight construction? A. If one member fails, the entire truss is likely to fail. B. Once a truss fails, the one next to it is likely to fail. C. Trusses will begin to fail after five to ten minutes of exposure to fire. D. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER-All of the above. One of the most serious building construction hazards facing firefighters today is the: A. increased use of noncombustible materials. B. increased use of lightweight and trussed support systems. C. heavy content of fire loading. D. presence of combustible furnishings and finishes. - CORRECT ANSWER-increased use of lightweight and trussed support systems. One thing common to all types of trusses is that if one member fails: A. only that member will fail. B. the truss next to it will keep it from failing completely. C. the entire truss is likely to fail. D. it is unlikely to have a total collapse. - CORRECT ANSWER-the entire truss is likely to fail.

If firefighters inside a building believe that the collapse of a building is imminent, what is the first action that should be taken? A. They should wait until the chief gives the order to pull out. B. They should have the safety officer inspect the building. C. They should have all personnel within the building evacuated. D. They should try to extinguish the fire before leaving. - CORRECT ANSWER-They should have all personnel within the building evacuated. Which of the following is not an indicator of potential building collapse? A. Prolonged fire operations in fire building B. Deteriorated mortar between the masonry C. Walls that appear to be leaning D. Large amounts of steam coming from ventilation openings - CORRECT ANSWER-Large amounts of steam coming from ventilation openings What is a common problem found when water is used to extinguish chimney flue fires? A. Water used for extinguishment may freeze due to the cold weather. B. The water causes the flue liner or firebricks to crack. C. The steam created causes excess pressure to build up inside the chimney. D. Too much water may accidently close the damper. - CORRECT ANSWER-The water causes the flue liner or firebricks to crack. Wire reinforced glass may provide some thermal protection as a separation. However, for the most part, conventional glass: A. is not an effective barrier to fire extension. B. is a good barrier to fire extension. C. will not crack due to the heat. D. will contain the fire within that area. - CORRECT ANSWER-is not an effective barrier to fire extension. A(n) __________ is designed to prevent the spread of fire within a structure or between adjacent structures.