FIREFIGHTER 2 FINAL EXAM 2 LATEST VERSION (A &B)AND PRACTICE EXAMS, Exams of Nursing

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FIREFIGHTER 2 FINAL EXAM 2 LATEST VERSION

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FIREFIGHTER 2 FINAL EXAM VERSION A

Hybrid vehicles that use color-coded wiring use _____ to mark high voltage wiring. (510) A. red B. black C. green D. orange

D. Orange

Which of the following is a duty that is part of assessing the immediate area around a vehicle during an extrication operation? (511) A. Assess condition and position of vehicles B. Check for involved vehicles that might not be visible C. Assess damage to structures that may present a hazard D. Check for victims who might have been ejected from vehicles

A. Assess condition and position of vehicles

Which of the following BEST describes who should assess the extent of entrapment while assessing the need for extrication? (511) A. Incident commander B. First firefighter on scene C. Highest ranking officer at the incident D. Firefighter trained in emergency medical care

D. Firefighter trained in emergency medical care

Which of the following BEST describes the goal of stabilizing the vehicle? (513) A. To assess the extent of entrapment B. To prevent further damage to the vehicle C. To prevent the vehicle from moving unexpectedly D. To determine extrication tasks that may be required

C. To prevent the vehicle from moving unexpectedly

Chocking can be accomplished with standard: (514) A. tools and cribbing. B. cribbing or lifting bags. C. wheel chocks or cribbing. D. lifting bags or wheel chocks.

C. Wheel chocks or cribbing

Where should a firefighter place chocks if the direction of grade is undetermined? (514) A. Behind tires B. In front of tires C. On both sides of tires D. On the downhill side of tires

C. On both sides of tires

What type of rescue equipment is used to raise a vehicle resting on its roof or side? (515) A. Pulling devices B. Lifting devices C. Stabilizing devices D. Passenger safety devices

B. Lifting devices

When using a strut and buttress tension system, firefighters must ensure all parts have a safety margin that is: (516) A. the same as the weight being secured. B. in excess of the weight being secured. C. within 5 pounds (2.26 kg) of the weight being secured. D. within 10 pounds (4.53 kg) of the weight being secured.

B. In excess of the weight being secured

What type of extrication method is used to stabilize a vehicle that is upside down or lying on its side? (516) A. Lifting jack system B. Buttress tension system C. Adjustable struts system D. Pneumatic lifting bag system

B. Buttress tension system

When cutting power cables in a nonelectric vehicle cut: (517) A. before unlocking power doors. B. before lowering power windows. C. the negative first, then the positive. D. the positive first, then the negative.

C. The negative first, then the positive

How long is the electrical system in an electric vehicle considered unsafe after the ignition has been shut down? (518) A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 25 minutes

A. 10 minutes

Which of the following passenger safety systems can deploy at up to 200 mph (322 km/h), generating potentially lethal force? (519-520) A. Seat belt pretensioners B. Head protection systems C. Extendable roll over protection systems D. Supplemental passenger restraining systems

D. Supplemental passenger restraining systems

Which of the following passenger safety systems can be found either behind the front seat in small sports cars or in the rear window deck of convertibles? (521) A. Seat belt pretensioners B. Head protection systems C. Extendable roll over protection systems D. Supplemental passenger restraining systems

C. Extendable roll over protection systems

Which of the following describes the BEST method to gain access to a victim during vehicle extrication? (522) A. The method more firefighters know. B. The method that is simplest and fastest. C. The method that requires the least amount of responders. D. The method that uses the least amount of equipment on scene.

B. The method that is simplest and fastest

Which of the following BEST describes where safety glass is commonly used in vehicle windows? (522) A. Mirrors B. Side windows C. Windshields and side windows D. Windshields and rear windows

D. Windshields and rear windows

Using your opposite hand to support the hand holding the center punch prevents: (525) A. glass from breaking without warning. B. glass shards from entering the vehicle.

C. glass from falling straight down onto victims. D. the center punch from hitting the victim close to the glass.

D. The center punch from hitting the victim close to the glass.

What method of gaining access to victims can be accomplished by cutting hinges, breaking a latch mechanism, or compromising locks? (526) A. Prying a door open B. Removing a window C. Cutting through posts D. Removing the vehicle roof

A. Prying a door open

When removing a roof, firefighters cut just below roof level to avoid cutting which of the following? (527) A. Fuel lines B. Live electrical wires C. Side airbag gas cylinders D. Space victims may occupy

C. Side airbag gas cylinders

Which of the following statements about cutting posts made from exotic metals is MOST accurate? (528) A. Hand tools can be used but take much longer. B. Posts made from exotic metals cannot be cut. C. Reciprocating saws can be used without damage to blades. D. Hand tools cannot be used to cut posts made from exotic metals.

D. Hand tools cannot be used to cut posts made from exotic metals

Which of the following extrication methods is common after front-end collisions? (528) A. Prying open a door B. Removing a window C. Displacing the dashboard D. Removing the vehicle roof

C. Displacing the dashboard

Which of the following BEST describes the role of a Firefighter II at a technical rescue incident? (531) A. Replace technical rescue team members if needed B. Perform tasks identical to those of rescue team members C. Observe the incident and provide assistance in the cold zone D. Assist technical rescuers with tasks related to specific incidents

D. Assist technical rescuers with tasks related to specific incidents

What initial action is the next priority after stabilizing the scene? (533) A. Stabilize the victim

B. Size-up the situation C. Establish scene security D. Communicate information

A. Stabilize the victim

What initial action is performed to ensure the use of a personnel accountability system? (534) A. Stabilize the victim B. Size-up the situation C. Establish scene security D. Communicate information

C. Establish scene security

Which of the following personnel are allowed in the hot zone? (534) A. Those personnel who are working the incident B. Those directly involved in resolving the emergency C. Those members of the general public watching the incident D. Those directly supporting the personnel resolving the emergency

B. Those directly involved in resolving the emergency

What type of structural collapse pattern occurs when the exterior walls of a structure collapse? (536) A. Pancake B. Lean-to C. V-shaped D. Cantilever

A. Pancake

What type of structural collapse occurs when the floor and/or roof assemblies on both sides of a load- bearing wall collapse, allowing a good chance of victim survival? (538) A. A-frame B. Pancake C. V-shaped D. Cantilever

A. A-frame

What type of technical rescue involves physical hazards such as debris that is sharp, jagged, or unstable as well as exposed wiring and rebar? (538) A. Water rescue B. Vehicle rescue C. Confined-space rescue D. Structural collapse rescue

D. Structural collapse rescue

Firefighters without confined-space rescue training are limited to which of the following duties? (539) A. Performing non-entry rescues

B. Performing less complex confined-space rescues C. Identifying physical hazards while performing rescue D. Relaying information about atmospheric hazards while performing rescue

A. Performing non-entry rescues

During confined-space rescue, all rescuers must have a _____ attached to a harness that is constantly monitored. (540) A. search line B. PASS device C. portable radio D. supplied-air respirator

A. Search line

In the OATH method of signaling on a search line, two tugs represents: (540) A. O - ok B. H - help C. A - advance D. T - take-up slack

C. A- Advance

What is the first step during water rescue operations size-up? (541) A. Establish scene security B. Decide what rescue tasks may be required C. Assess the types of undercurrents on scene D. Determine if incident requires rescue or recovery

Determine if incident requires rescue or recovery

Which of the following BEST describes hazards specific to ice rescue operations? (542) A. Victims unlikely to help with own rescue B. Oxygen deficiency due to inadequate ventilation C. Rescue must happen in rugged, inaccessible terrain D. Hazard created by debris trapped against upstream face

A. Victims unlikely to help with own rescue

During trench rescue operations exit ladders should be placed no more than _____ apart. (543) A. 25 feet (7.62 m) B. 30 feet (9.14 m) C. 50 feet (15.24 m) D. 65 feet (19.81 m)

C. 50 ft (15.24 m)

What type of technical rescue requires the use of lock out/tag out devices to secure power switches? (545) A. Water rescue

B. Vehicle rescue C. Elevator rescue D. Machinery rescue

D. Machinery rescue

What type of device BEST fits the following characteristics: small, accelerates quickly, and may have automatic controls? (545) A. Escalator B. Freight elevator C. Passenger elevator D. Construction elevator

C. Passenger elevator

Hydraulic elevator operating systems are used in structures less than _____ stories high. (546) A. six B. eight C. ten D. twelve

A. six

During an elevator rescue, extrication should begin immediately if occupants: (546) A. seem prone to panic. B. require medical attention. C. condition is medically stable. D. request immediate extrication.

B. Require medical attention

If an elevator is equipped with a _____ it will return to the ground floor by inserting a key into the control panel. (546) A. recall system B. fire safety system C. hand crank system D. communication system

A. Recall system

Which of the following BEST describes the location of an escalator's manual stop switch? (547) A. Next to the closest exit door B. On a handrail at the top of the unit C. In an equipment room located in the building D. On nearby wall or handrail at top or bottom of unit

D. On the nearby wall or handrail at top or bottom of unit

Which of the following BEST describes the cause of the majority of escalator rescues? (547) A. Electrical issues that cause malfunctions

B. Mechanical issues that cause malfunctions C. Clothing becoming caught between step treads D. Fingers and toes becoming caught between step treads

D. Fingers and toes becoming caught between step treads

When responding to electrical rescue operations, always assume that electrical lines or equipment are: (548) A. energized. B. de-energized. C. safe to work with immediately. D. safe to work with after five minutes.

A. energized

When an energized wire is in contact with the ground, the current: (549) A. does not flow into the ground. B. flows straight down into the ground. C. flows in all directions from point of contact. D. flows into the ground but only for five minutes.

C. flows in all directions from point of contact

What is one of the basic types of powered hydraulic tools used in rewcue incidents? A. Come-along B. Shers/cutters C. air impact wrench D. Struts

B. shears/cutters

Hydraulic jacks: A. have a lifting capacity in excess of 40 tons. B. must be positioned on a hard surface. C. are used for heavy lifting applications. D. lack compression for shoring but work well for stabilizing.

C. are used for heavy lifting applications

When using airbags in a rescue situation: A. lift an inch, crib a foot. B. bags should never be stacked more than three feet high. C. bags should not contact materials hotter than 220°F. D. bags should be inflated quickly to keep the load from shifting.

C. bags should not contact materials hotter than 220°F

To maintain safety while lifting a vehicle using air bags, the rescuers should: A. never stack high-pressure lift bags more than three high. B. refrain from stabilizing with cribbing.

C. be thoroughly familiar with the equipment. D. place plywood only between or above lift airbags.

C. Be thoroughly familiar with the equipment

When performing disentanglement procedures, the firefighter should: A. gain access trough the front windshield. B. remove the patient before beginning patient care. C. wear personal protective equipment (PPE) appropriate for the hazards. D. remove the patient from the vehicle, not the vehicle from the patient..

C. wear personal protective equipment (PPE) appropriate for the hazards.

When using a spring-loaded center punch to open a window, the firefighter should press the center punch at the: A. center of the window. B. lower corner of the window. C. upper corner of the window. D. at the top of the window.

B. Lower corner of the window

What guide should be used when cleaning power tools? A. The applicable National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard B. The American national Standards Institute (ANSI) guides on tool maintenance C. The manufacturers instructions D. Common sense and a thorough job

C. the manufacturers instructions

The preferred method for forcing a tempered glass door is to: A. strike a sharp blow to the glass with a blunt tool. B. use the through-the-lock technique. C. use a saw to cut the frame. D. use a saw to cut the wall next to the door.

B. Use the through-the-lock technique

The amount of water used to contro la fire indicates: A. that there may be additional weight on walls and floors. B. the likelihood that the fire was a result of arson. C. how many firefighters will be needed for overhaul. D. how many salvage covers will be needed.

D. How many salvage covers will be needed

Whenever possible, forced mechanical ventilation should be directed: A. on the upward side. B. on the windward side.

C. in the same direction as the wind. D. in the same direction as mater stream operations.

C. In the same direction as the wind

Natural roof ventilation openings consist of: A. cutting a 4 ft. X 4 ft. hole. B. trench cutting and smoke ejectors. C. scuttle hatches, skylights, stairwell openings and bulkheads. D. fire streams from aerial ladders directed across a ventilation opening.

C. Scuttle hatches, skylights, stairwell openings and bulkheads

Which is considered a natural or normal roof opening? A. Parapet B. Skylight C. Soffit D. Fire stop

B. Skylight

To localize a fire and create a chimney effect, the primary ventilation hole should be placed: A. at the far end of the roof on the leeward side. B. directly over the fire. C. at the far end of the roof on the windward side. D. in an area where the supplemental forced or mechanical ventilation can easily be added later if needed.

B. Directly over the fire

Which is a warning sign of unsafe roof conditions? A. A spongy feel as you walk on the roof B. Flat roofs with masonry walls C. multiple layers of roofing materials built upon itself, adding weight to the structural members D. Fire in incipient stage

A. a spongy feel as you walk on the roof

Positive pressure ventilation is effective: A. when the opening of doors and windows in the structure can be controlled. B. only if you can create a lower pressure zone in the structure. C. if the exhaust opening is smaller than the entry point, creating a Venturi effect. D. if an entire floor is ventilated at a time, starting at the highest floor and working down.

B. only if you can create a lower pressure zone in the structure

Which statement regarding duct systems is true? A. The heating, ventilation, and air-conditiong system (HVAC) should be shut down immediately by fire department personnel to alleviate the spread of heat/smoke and fanning of hidden fire. B. Firefighters should be familiar with manual controls of a building's HVAC system.

C. Firefighters should turn the system in reverse mode to exhaust products of combustion. D. Only the blowers should be activated for ventilation purposes.

B. Firefighter should be familiar with manual controls of a buildings HVAC system

Which is a consequence of opening windows on the windward side prior to opening leeward side windows? A. There is no consequence; this is the recommended procedure. B. The fire may forced into uninvolved areas of the structure. C. There is no consequence; doing so eliminates the need to perform vertical ventilation later.. D. The need to effect ventilation on the leeward side through excessive window glass breakage.

B. The fire may forced into uninvolved areas of the structure

In a water supply system, the size of the water mains from the largest to the smallest are: A. primary, distributor, secondary. B. distributor, secondary, primary. C. secondary, primary, distributor. D. primary, secondary, distributor.

D. Primary, secondary, distributor

The types of main control valves found in water supply distribution systems are: A. indicating and non-indicating. B. ball and check. C. in-line and out-flow. D. primary and secondary.

A. indicating and non-indicating

The smaller internal grid arrangement of a water distribution system that feeds hydrants as well as the domestic and commercial requirements best describes: A. primary feeders. B. secondary feeders. C. distributors. D. grid network.

C. distributors

A network of intermediate-sized pipe that reinforces the overall grid system by forming loops that interconnect primary feeders best defines: A. primary loop. B. secondary feeders. C. distributors. D. grid network.

B. secondary feeders

Dry pipe systems are used: A. in areas where water supply is limited.

B. in buildings that store valuable items. C. in applications where freezing temperatures occur. D. where rapic activation is required.

C. in applications where freezing temperatures occur

When checking hydrants to ensure their effectivelness, firefighters should check that: A. the Post Indicator Valve is fully open B. a minimum of 12 inches exists from the center of a hose outlet to the finished grade. C. large steamer connections are facing the street. D. all check valves are functional.

C. Larger steamer connections are facing the street

Which is one of the three common systems for water system ditribution? A. Artesian B. Indirect pumping C. Gravity-feed D. Suction-supplied

C. Gravity-feed

Water wells and springs are considered what types of water supply? A. Surface water supply B. Ground/natural water supply C. Lake supply D. River supply

B. Ground/natural water supply

Functional components of a modern water system are: A. source, mains, feeders, and risers. B. primary, secondary, standpipes, and fire department connections. C. pipes, valves, hydrants, and pumps. D. source, means of moving, treatment plant, and distribution system.

D. Source, means of moving, treatment plant, and distribution system

Which action of fire fighting foam creates a barrier between the fuel and the fire? (967) A. Cooling B. Aerating C. Separating D. Penetrating

C. Separting

Foam lowers surface tension of water, allowing it to ___ fires in Class A materials. (967) A. cool B. smother

C. suppress D. penetrate

D. penetrate

Class A foam extinguishes and/or prevents ignition by: (967) A. allowing water to penetrate fuels. B. creating a barrier between the fuel and the fire. C. preventing air from reaching the fuel or mixing with vapors. D. lowering the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces.

A. allowing water to penetrate fuels

Which of the following statements about fire fighting foams is MOST accurate? (967) A. The majority of fire fighting foams are Class A and Class K. B. Class A foam is especially effective on hydrocarbon fuels and polar solvents. C. Foam works by forming a blanket of foam on the surface of burning liquid and solid fuels. D. Foam works by increasing the surface tension of water, making fire streams more cohesive to reach a greater distance.

C. Foam works by forming a blanket of foam on the surface of burning liquids and solid fuels

When applied to solid fuels, Class A foam blankets the fuel, controls flames, then: (967) A. changes the pH of the water. B. expands at a ratio of 20-to-1. C. dissipates into the air, leaving no residue. D. breaks down, releasing water to cool the fuel.

D. Breaks down, releasing water to cool the fuel

Class B foams are especially effective on: (968) A. wildland and brush fires. B. unignited hazardous liquids. C. fires of ordinary combustibles. D. hydrocarbon fuels and polar solvents.

D. Hydrocarbon fuels and polar solvents

Which of the following statements about fire fighting foams is MOST accurate? (968) A. Proper aeration produces bubbles in a variety of sizes. B. Air is added to the foam solution by chemical reaction. C. Air is added to the foam solution by mechanical agitation. D. When foam bubbles dissipate, no foam remains on the surface of the fuel.

C. air is added to the foam solution by mechanical agitation

The degree of foam expansion depends on the type of foam concentrate, accurate proportioning, quality of the foam concentrate and: (968) A. method of aeration. B. outside air temperature.

C. length of discharge hose. D. wind direction and velocity.

A. method of aeration

Which classification of foam is used to suppress vapors from hazardous materials spills? (969) A. Low-expansion foam B. High-expansion foam C. Medium-expansion foam D. Minimal-expansion foam

C. Medium-expansion foam

Which of the following statements about Class A foam concentrates is MOST accurate? (971) A. Class A foam is used for structural fires, but is not suitable for wildland fires. B. Class A foam is used to prevent ignition of fires involving flammable and combustible liquids. C. Class A foam reduces the surface tension of water, allowing better water penetration into the fuel. D. Class A foam concentrate coats and protects application equipment; equipment should not be flushed after use.

D. Class A foam concentrate coats and protects application equipment; equipment should not be flushed after use

Flammable liquids that mix readily with water are: (972) A. polar solvents. B. viscous liquids. C. fluorosurfactants. D. hydrocarbon fuels.

A. Polar solvents

Which Class B foams are made from a mixture of fluorosurfactants? (972) A. Synthetic foams B. Specialized foams C. Protein-based foams D. Alcohol-resistant foams

A. synthetic foams

Which foams are required to extinguish fires of ethanol or ethanol-based fuels? (972) A. Class A foams B. Synthetic foams C. Protein-based foams D. Alcohol-resistant foams

D. Alcohol-resistant foams

Which of the following statements about foam concentrates is MOST accurate? (973) A. A foam blanket is of little benefit on unignited fuels. B. Foam application rates are different for each type of polar solvent.

C. The minimum rate of application will be marked on the foam concentrate container. D. Foam should be applied in short bursts, with the operator pausing to observe its effect on the fire.

B. Foam application rates are different for each type of polar solvent

Why are specialized foams designed solely for use on unignited spills of hazardous liquids? (973) A. The roll-on method is ineffective for hazardous liquids. B. A thick, viscous foam can form a heat-resistant blanket over burning liquid surfaces. C. The US Department of Agriculture Forest Service requires specialized foams for hazardous materials. D. Unignited chemicals tend to change the pH of water or remove the water from fire fighting foam, making the foam ineffective.

D. Unignited chemicals tend to change th pH of water or remove the water from fire fighting foam, making the foam ineffective

Most foam concentrates are intended to be mixed with ___ percent water. (974) A. 0.1 to 6. B. 10 to 25. C. 40.5 to 50 D. 94 to 99.

D. 94 to 99.

Which of the following statements about foam proportioning is MOST accurate? (974) A. Most Class A foams are mixed in proportions of 3 to 6 percent. B. Most Class B foams are mixed in proportions of 1 percent or less. C. Mixing Class A foam at a higher recommended percentage results in a thick, dry foam. D. The percentage rate for proportioning foam is determined by the authority having jurisdiction.

C. Mixing class A foam at a higher recommended percentage results in a thick, dry foam

Multipurpose Class B foams are normally mixed at a 6 percent rate when: (974) A. applied to polar solvents. B. applied to hydrocarbon fuels. C. thinner (wetter) foam is desired. D. fuel is burning near a body of water.

A. applied to polar solvents

Factors to consider in selecting a foam proportioner include solution flow requirements, intended use, and: (974) A. stage of the fire. B. available water pressure. C. length of the discharge hose. D. proximity to bodies of water.

B. available water pressure

Which of the following proportioning methods depends on the Venturi Principle to draw foam through a hose connected to the foam concentrate container and into the water stream? (975)

A. Injection B. Eduction C. Premixing D. Batch-mixing

B. Eduction

The proportioning method which uses an external pump or head pressure to force foam concentrate into the fire stream is: (975) A. injection. B. eduction. C. premixing. D. batch-mixing.

A. injection

Which of the following proportioning methods makes it difficult to refill an apparatus water tank due to excessive bubbling from residual foam solution? (977) A. Injection B. Eduction C. Premixing D. Batch-mixing

D. Batch-mixing

Because the foam solution goes through the pump, the ___ proportioning method may cause the pump to require additional maintenance. (977) A. injection B. eduction C. premixing D. batch-mixing

D. batch-mixing

Which of the following statements about foam proportioners and delivery systems is MOST accurate? (978) A. The foam proportioner adds air into the foam solution to produce finished foam. B. The foam proportioner and delivery system must be compatible to produce usable foam. C. Either a foam proportioner or a foam generating system is needed to produce a foam fire stream. D. The foam-generating system introduces the appropriate amount of foam concentrate into the water to form foam solution.

B. The foam proportioner and delivery system must be compatible to produce usable foam.

Which of the following foam proportioners may compromise firefighter safety since it is difficult to quickly relocate the components? (979) A. In-line foam eductor B. Foam nozzle eductor

C. Around-the-pump proportioner D. Compressed air foam system (CAFS)

B. Foam nozzle eductor

When using an in-line eductor, which of the following might cause foam concentrations to be too lean? (979) A. Solid agent stick too cold to dissolve effectively. B. Air compressor filter clogged, dirty, or water-soaked C. Too little hose between eductor and discharge nozzle D. Foam concentrate inlet too far above surface of foam concentrate

D. Foam concentrate inlet too far above surface of foam concentrate

Installed in-line eductors, around-the-pump proportioners, and balanced pressure proportioners are examples of: (980) A. portable foam proportioners. B. master stream delivery devices. C. apparatus-mounted proportioners. D. compressed air foam systems (CAFS).

C. apparatus-mounted proportioners

Which of the following statements about compressed air foam systems (CAFS) is MOST accurate? (981) A. An air-aspirating nozzle adds air to the foam solution. B. There is little to no nozzle reaction when using CAFS. C. Foam produced by CAFS adheres well to vertical surfaces. D. Hoselines filled with CAFS are heavier than those filled with water only.

C. Foam produced by CAFS adheres well to vertical surfaces

Which of the following statements about foam delivery devices is MOST accurate? (982) A. Smooth bore nozzles are used only with Class B foam. B. Solid agent foam concentrates may be used on Class A fires only. C. Fog nozzles use an apparatus-mounted air compressor to generate foam. D. Air-aspirating foam nozzles are the most effective appliance for generation of low-expansion foam.

D. Air-aspirating foam nozzles are the most effective appliance for generation of low-expansion foam

Which of the following foam generators produces foam by pumping foam solution through the nozzle in a fine spray? (983) A. Fog nozzle B. Air-aspirating type nozzle C. Water-aspirating type nozzle D. Mechanical blower generator

C. Water-aspirating type nozzle

Which of the following BEST describes emergency incident priorities? (1057) A. Extinguishment, overhaul, ventilation

B. Property conservation, salvage, life safety C. Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation D. Incident stabilization, environmental conservation, confinement

C. Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation

A Firefighter II should use additional training to: (1058) A. predict victim responses to on-scene hazards. B. open a debate on the best attack strategy to use. C. gather votes from others on-scene to select attack strategies. D. recognize and predict the effects of changes on surroundings.

D. recognize and predict the effects of changes on surroundings.

Which of the following BEST describes open communication? (1058) A. It is a step taken to prepare for a blitz attack. B. It is not meant as an opportunity for a debate or vote. C. It allows firefighters to influence the selection of attack tactics. D. It is a way to communicate the situation to other responding units.

B. It is not meant as an opportunity for a debate or vote.

Which of the following defines the actions taken by the first-arriving engine company? (1058) A. Chief officer B. Department SOPs C. Incident Commander D. Pre-incident surveys

B. Department SOPs

What rule can be amended if a life safety hazard to a victim that can be saved without undue risk to firefighters is present on scene? (1059) A. SAR rule B. SCBA rule C. Two-in, two-out rule D. Situational awareness rule

C. Two-in, two-out rule

What fireground role is MOST likely to finish hose lays begun by the first-arriving company? (1060) A. Incident Commander B. Rapid intervention crew/team C. Fireground support company D. Second-arriving engine company

D. Second-arriving engine company

Which of the following BEST describes what the size and quantity of hoselines can impact on-scene? (1060) A. The need for other resources.

B. The location of apparatus on-scene. C. The use of the two-in, two-out rule. D. The need to pump hoselines from a hydrant.

D. The need to pump hoselines from a hydrant.

When is simultaneous entry performed by a fireground support company? (1062) A. When the first-arriving company has too many personnel on-scene. B. When search and rescue operations must be done at the same time as fire attack. C. When the area closest to the fire poses a severe risk to firefighters. D. When the average water pressure in the distribution system is low

B. When search and rescue operations must be done at the same time as fire attack

Which of the following BEST describes where search patterns are started? (1062) A. In areas where other exposures are at risk. B. Where specialized equipment can be used easily. C. Where the fewest number of victims are located. D. In the area closest to the fire if it will not put firefighters at risk of severe injury.

D. In the area closest to the fire if it will not put firefighters at risk of severe injury.

Which of the following BEST describes safety considerations during a blitz attack? (1062) A. Steam can assist in suppression efforts. B. Specialized rescue tools can injure teams. C. Poorly directed streams can force teams to retreat. D. This type of attack is only coordinated with the Incident Commander.

C. Poorly directed streams can force teams to retreat.

What fireground role is defined as the one that works to locate and assist firefighters trapped during operations? (1063) A. Incident Commander B. Second-arriving company C. Rapid intervention crew/team D. Fireground support company

C. Rapid intervention crew/team

What fireground role should be two or more members wearing complete PPE and respiratory protection, with the purpose of locating firefighters incapacitated during operations? (1063) A. Incident Commander B. Second-arriving company C. Rapid intervention crew/team D. Fireground support company

C. Rapid intervention crew/team

Which of the following BEST describes when a chief officer may assume a role other than Incident Commander (IC) on-scene? (1064)

A. When a fast-attack suppression operation is needed. B. When the incident organization needs to be improved. C. Never, the original IC should always stay in control of operations. D. When the original IC has made reasonable progress toward stabilization.

D. When the original IC has made reasonable progress toward stabilization.

What Command approach is used when the problem is not obvious to the first-arriving unit? (1064) A. Formal B. Combat C. Fast-attack D. Nothing showing

D. Nothing showing

Which of the following BEST describes when to withdraw when using the fast-attack command approach? (1065) A. When formal command ends. B. When combat command is required. C. When the incident is finalized and the Incident Command Post is no longer needed. D. When the incident is not stabilized, but but the establishment of an ICP outside of the hazardous area is required.

D. When the incident is not stabilized, but but the establishment of an ICP outside of the hazardous area is required.

What BEST describes the preferred method of transferring Command? (1066) A. Face-to-face B. Over the radio C. Through the IAP protocol D. Through the NIMS protocol

A. Face-to-face

Which of the following is an atmospheric hazard that can be expected at a fire in an underground space? (1067) A. Toxic gases B. Standing water C. Limited means of entry and egress D. Cave-ins or unstable support members

A. Toxic gases

Which of the following is a physical hazard that can be expected at a fire in an underground space? (1067) A. Toxic gases B. Explosive dusts C. Oxygen deficiencies D. Cave-ins or unstable support members

D. Cave-ins or unstable support members

Which of the following BEST describes where the Command Post is established at in an underground fire? (1068) A. Near the hot zone, limiting entrance pathways B. Near the hot zone, 100 feet (30 m) from the entrance C. Outside of the hot zone, 100 feet (30 m) from the entrance D. Outside of the hot zone, near but not obstructing the entrance

D. Outside of the hot zone, near but not obstructing the entrance

Which of the following BEST describes the flash point of flammable liquids? (1068) A. Less than 100°F (38°C) B. Greater than 100°F (38°C) C. Each varies, but it is never less than 50°F (10°C) D. Each varies, but it is always higher than 50°F (10°C)

A. Less than 100°F (38°C)

Which of the following BEST describes ignition of combustible liquids? (1068) A. These can be ignited without pre-heating. B. These need pre-heating and vapor for ignition. C. These require foam and an external fuel source for ignition. D. These must be heated above the flash point before igniting.

D. These must be heated above the flash point before igniting.

Where should apparatus be located at a Class B fire? (1068) A. Upwind and uphill of the incident B. Upwind and downhill of the incident C. Downwind and uphill of the incident D. Downwind and downhill from the incident

A. Upwind and uphill of the incident

Increased intensity of sound or fire from a relief valve indicates that the: (1070) A. valve is safely relieving excess pressure. B. valve is reacting to the change of a gas to liquid. C. vessel is overheating and a rupture is imminent. D. vessel is releasing vapor to prevent overloading.

C. vessel is overheating and a rupture is imminent.

Which of the following BEST describes a hazard particular to carbon dioxide fixed suppression systems? (1070) A. Skin irritation B. Oxygen depletion C. Increased visibility D. Depletion of water supply

B. Oxygen depletion

Which of the following BEST describes how operating pressure can be maintained for water-based suppression systems? (1071) A. Using the lowest possible pressure for all attack lines B. Requesting utilities shut off water to nearby structures C. Turning system water off and on periodically during suppression efforts D. Deploying supply hoses from hydrant to fire department connection (FDC)

D. Deploying supply hoses from hydrant to fire department connection (FDC)

Which of the following occupancies are non-water-based systems MOST likely to be found? (1072) A. Covered malls B. Recreational boats C. Multi-family dwellings D. Industrial occupancies

D. Industrial occupancies

When activated clean agent systems suppress the fire by: (1072) A. blanketing the fire. B. deploying both water and another agent. C. cooling nearby objects eliminating radiant heat. D. filling the compartment with extinguishing agent.

D. filling the compartment with extinguishing agent.

What type of fixed system can allow deployment of attack hoselines in large area structures or industrial sites? (1071) A. Foam system B. Standpipe system C. Water-based system D. Automatic sprinkler system

B. Standpipe system

Water as a cooling agent must be combined with ___ to be effective on lighter petroleum distillates. (1073) A. chemicals B. clean agents C. carbon dioxide D. foam additives

D. foam additives

Water as a mechanical tool can move ___ to where they can burn safely. (1073) A. Class A fuels B. Class B fuels

C. Class C fuels D. Class K fuels

B. Class B fuels

When pressure vessels are exposed to flame impingement, a minimum of ___ must be applied at each point of flame impingement. (1074) A. 500 gpm (2 000 L/min) B. 1000 gpm (4 000 L/min) C. 1500 gpm (6 000 L/min) D. 2000 gpm (8 000 L/min)

A. 500 gpm (2 000 L/min)

Techniques for extinguishment at bulk transport vehicle fires are similar to fires in: (1075) A. high-rise structures. B. underground tunnels. C. residential occupancies. D. flammable fuel storage facilities.

D. flammable fuel storage facilities.

Which of the following BEST describes a way to determine the nature of cargo at a bulk transport vehicle fire? (1076) A. Use past experience to predict B. Use bills of lading or placards C. Estimate based on type of container D. Estimate using information from witnesses

B. Use bills of lading or placards

Which of the following BEST describes approach and staging techniques used at flammable gas incidents? (1076) A. Approach from and stage on the upwind side B. Approach from and stage on the downwind side C. Approach from downwind and stage on upwind side D. Approach from upwind and stage on the downwind side

A. Approach from and stage on the upwind side

Which of the following BEST describes the process taken at flammable gas incidents if gas is burning? (1076) A. Extinguish burning flame B. Request mutual aid extrication teams C. Use hose streams to protect exposures if needed D. Monitor, but do not shut off pressurized gas supply

C. Use hose streams to protect exposures if needed

A component of Nationa Incident Management System (NIMS) that should be used on every incident, which is either written or unwritten, is:: A. the use of an incident Commander. B. the Public Information Officer. C. an incident action plan D. a Safety officer.

C. an incident action plan

Allowing the fire to burn itself out, rather than applying water as an extinguishing agent, is a strategy sometimes appropriate for: A. wood and natural fiber. B. pesticides or flammable liquids. C. fires involving plastics. D. fires in stacked materials.

B. pesticides or flammable liquids.

Once the valve on a container of flammable gases has been shut off, the hose crew should: A. shut off the nozzles and exit the area. B. continue to apply water as they exit the area. C. continue to apply water and wash down the area. D. shut off the water and monitor the area.

B. continue to apply water as they exit the area.

The safest recommended means for a firefighter to disconnect electrical service to a building is: A. cut the service entrance wire. B. pull th meter. C. locate the nearest transformer and deactivate it. D. shut off the main power breaker/fuse in the panel box.

D. shut off the main power breaker/fuse in the panel box.

Risk-benefit analysis is: A. a collection of documents that includes all federally promulgated requlations. B. a formal gathering of incident responders to help defuse and address stress. C. the process of maximizing the chance, degree, or probability of damage, loss, or injury. D. a weighing of positive results that can be achieved against the probability and severity of potential negative consequences.

D. a weighing of positive results that can be achieved against the probability and severity of potential negative consequences.

In high-rise firefighting situations, typically the fire attack will be initiated from: A. the fire floor. B. one floor below the fire. C. one floor above the fire. D. two floors below the fire.

B. one floor below the fire.

The term used for areas adjacent to a building is: A. rotundas. B. exposures. C. sectors. D. stages.

B. exposures

Hidden fires can be checked by using a. A. detector for different levels of carbon monoxide and oxygen. B. Halligan tool to remove the whole wall. C. plaster tool from the opposite side of the wall. D. thermal imaging device.

D. thermal imaging device.

Before beginning overhaul, it is vital to make sure the building is: A. completely saturatedwith water. B. structurally safe. C. free of toxic gases and smoke. D. thoroughly dewatered.

C. free of toxic gases and smoke.

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate about types of evidence? (1165) A. There are four primary evidence categories B. Physical evidence is the most important evidence C. Evidence is presented to prove or disprove a hypothesis D. Evidence cannot speak for itself and rarely supports a testimony

C. Evidence is presented to prove or disprove a hypothesis

Which category of evidence supports inference formed from direct evidence? (1165) A. Natural B. Indirect C. Physical D. Circumstantial

D. Circumstantial

Which of the following would be an example of physical evidence? (1165) A. Noise B. Lighting C. Odor or smell D. Fire patterns

D. Fire patterns