FISDAP EMT READINESS EXAM Questions and Answers Latest Versions 2024 TOP RATED A+, Exams of Nursing

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Fisdap emt readiness exam 2

FISDAP EMT READINESS EXAM Questions

and Answers Latest Versions 2024 TOP

RATED A+

1. The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called(Answer) a. duty to act b. scope of practice c. advanced directives d. good samaritan laws(Answer) B
2. Legislation that governs the skills and medical interventions that may be performed by the EMT is(Answer) a. standardized (uniform) throughout the country b. different from state to state c. standardized for regions within a state d. governed by the US Department of Transportation(Answer) B
3. When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a prior- ity, this is considered a(n) of the EMT. a. advanced directive b. protocol c. ethical responsibility d. legal responsibility(Answer) C
4. Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or action by an EMT? a. child and mentally incompetent adult b. implied c. applied d. expressed(Answer) C
5. When you informed the adult patient of the procedures were about to perform and its associated risks, you are asking for his or her(Answer) a. expressed consent b. negligence c. implied d. applied(Answer) A

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6. You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the stairwell. Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the EMT's life-saving interventions is called(Answer) a. expressed b. negligence c. implied d. applied(Answer) C

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7. Your record of a patient's refusal of medical care (aid) or transport should include all of the following EXCEPT(Answer) a. informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal b. documenting the steps you took c. signing of the form by the medical director d. obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature(Answer) C
8. Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital agains his or her will may result in charges against the EMT. a. abandonment b. assault and battery c. implied consent d. negligence(Answer) B
9. Which of the following is an action you should not take if a patient refuses care? a. leave phone stickers with emergency numbers b. recommend that a relative call the family physician to report the incident c. tell the patient to call his or her family physician if the problem reoccurs d. call a relative or neighbor who can stay with the patient(Answer) C. In all cases of refusal you should advise patients to call EMS back at any time if there is a problemor they wish to be transported.
10. Another name for a DNR order is(Answer) a. deviated nervous response b. duty not to react c. refusal of treatment d. advanced directive(Answer) D
11. There are varying degrees of DNR orders, expressed through a variety of detailed instructions that may be part of the order such as(Answer) a. allowing CPR only if cardiac or respiratory arrest was observed b. allowing comfort-care measures such as intravenous feeding c. disallowing the use of long-term life-support measures d. specify that only five minutes of artificial respiration will be attempted(Answer) A.The other options are part of a living will and not a DNR order. DNR orders generally do not specify procedures that are improper such as specifying that onlyfive minutes of artificial respiration will be attempted.
12. In a hospital, long-term life support and comfort care measures would

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consist of intravenous feeding and(Answer) a. routine inoculations b. the use of a respirator

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c. infection control by the healthcare providers d. hourly patient documentation(Answer) B. Once a patient is considered terminal, routine inoculations will not be needed. Infection control by the healthcare providersis a given. Documentation needs to be the same as it would be had the patient nothad an advance directive.

13. If an EMT with a duty to act fails to provide the standard of care, and if this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of(Answer) a. res ipsa loquitur b. negligence c. abandonment d. assault(Answer) B
14. Leaving a patient on the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without giving report with a healthcare professional is an example of(Answer) a. liability infraction b. battery c. abandonment d. breach of duty(Answer) C
15. The EMT should not discuss information about the patient except to re- late pertinent information to the physician at the ED. Information considered confidential includes(Answer) a. patient history gained through the interview b. assessment findings c. treatment rendered d. all of the above(Answer) D
16. The EMT can release confidential patient information in all of the follow- ing circumstances EXCEPT to(Answer) a. inform other health care professionals who need to know information to continue care b. report incidents required by state law, such as rape or abuse c. comply with the legal subpoena d. protect the other victims of a motor vehicle collision(Answer) D
17. A medical identification device that indicates serious patient medical conditions, allergies, and/or medications they are currently prescribed comes in the form of each of the following except(Answer)

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a. bracelets b. necklaces c. cards d. patches(Answer) D

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18. You responded to a high-speed collision involving a motorcycle and automobile. The 22 - year-old male cyclist has a severe head injury and is not likely to live through the evening. When treating this critical patient, who happens to have an organ donor card, the EMT should(Answer) a. transport without delay and document a DNR b. treat the patient with the same care as any other patient and inform the ED physician c. withhold oxygen therapy from the patient to keep the organ hypoxic d. all of the above(Answer) B
19. You are at the scene of a home invasion where the homeowner was shot to death by the perpetrators. At this crime scene, you should(Answer) a. avoid disturbing any evidence at the scene unless emergency care re- quires it b. immediately remove the patient from the scene c. move all obstacles from around the patient to make more room to work d. search the house for clues to find the cause of the crime(Answer) A
20. Commonly required reporting situations include all the following EX- CEPT(Answer) a. child and elder abuse b. crimes in public places c. sexual assault d. domestic abuse(Answer) B
21. The extent of limits of the EMT's job is called the(Answer) a. ethical dilemma b. national curriculum c. scope of practice d. regional protocol(Answer) C
22. You were called to the scene of an incident where a 21 - year-old male was knocked unconscious in a bar fight. Upon arrival, the patient is awake and has a broken nose but no life threats. He admits to drinking six beers in the last hour. He wants to refuse medical attention. Why should you discourage a refusal? a. he is not legally old enough to consent b. he may not be mentally competent at this time c. he is unable to actually sign the release d. the patient may die from a broken nose(Answer) B

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23. The federal law designed to protect the patient's private medical informa- tion is the(Answer) a. NHTSA b. ANSI c. HIPPA d. OSHA(Answer) C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
24. You are on the scene of a call where a patient barricaded himself and his wife in their home and is threatening to do harm. The police have been at the scene for hours and, after the wife escaped, they rushed in. It is now your responsibility to transport this now-restrained patient to the local ED. What should be your highest priority? a. monitoring the patient's mental status and vital signs b. making sure your documentation shows you did not apply the handcuffs c. restraining the patient so he is not able to move d. explaining to the patient that he no longer has any rights to refuse care(Answer) A
25. Abandonment(Answer) leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before thepatient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training
26. Advanced directive(Answer) a DNR order
27. Confidentiality(Answer) the obligation not to reveal information obtained about a pa-tient except to other healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care, or under subpoena, or in a court of law, or when the patient has signed a release
28. Consent(Answer) permission form the patient for care or other action by the EMT
29. Crime scene(Answer) the location where a crime has been committed or any place theevidence relating to a crime may be found
30. DNR order(Answer) legal documentation, usually signed by the patient and his or her physician, that states the patient does not wish to prolong life through resuscitativeefforts
31. Duty to act(Answer) an obligation to provide care to a patient
32. Expressed consent(Answer) consent given by adults who are of legal age and men-tally competent to make a rational decision in regard to the medical well-being

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33. Good Samaritan Laws(Answer) series of laws, varying in each state, designed to provide limited legal protection for citizens and some healthcare personnel whoare administering emergency care

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34. HIPPA(Answer) federal law protecting the privacy of patient specific healthcare infor- mation and providing the patient with control over how this information is used anddistributed
35. Implied consent(Answer) consent that is presumed that a patient or patient's parent or guardian would give if they could, such as for an unconscious patient or a minorpatient whose parent cannot be contacted when care is needed
36. Liability(Answer) being held legally responsible
37. negligence(Answer) a finding of failure to act properly in a situation in which there wasa duty to act
38. Scope of practice(Answer) a set of regulations and ethical considerations that definethe scope, or extent and limits, of the EMTs job.
39. The scene size up is the first part of the patient assessment process. it begins as you approach the scene, firstly surveying it to determine(Answer) a. if there are any threats to your safety b. the number of injured c. personal safety of all those involved in the call d. the mechanism of injury(Answer) A
40. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size up? a. it takes place as you are approaching the scene b. it is replaced by patient care once you arrive at the scene c. it occurs during the first part of the assessment process d. it continues throughout the call(Answer) D
41. If you arrive at a collision scene where there are police, fire vehicles, and other ambulances already present, you should(Answer) a. immediately begin patient care b. conduct your own scene size up c. ensure that no bystanders are injured d. all of the above(Answer) B
42. Which of the following is not an appropriate action when you near the scene of a traffic collision? a. look and listen for other EMS units as you near intersections b. look for signs of collision-related power outages c. observe traffic flow to anticipate blockage of the scene

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d. attempt to park your vehicle downhill from the scene(Answer) D

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43. When you are in sight of the collision scene, you should watch for the signals of police officers and other emergency service personnel because(Answer) a. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured per- sons b. the first ones on the scene are considered to be in charge c. federal law requires you to follow the command of other responders d. they are considered the medical care experts on the scene(Answer) A
44. When there are no apparent hazards, consider the danger zone to extend at least feet in all directions from the wreckage. a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 (Answer) B
45. When a collision vehicle is on fire, consider the danger zone to extend at least feet in all directions. a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 (Answer) C
46. It is essential that the EMT do a good scene size up. Your scene size up should identify(Answer) a. the potential for a violent situation b. the name and amount of toxic substances c. the number of patients and their diagnoses d. all of the above(Answer) A
47. The EMT's Standard Precautions equipment during the scene size up may include all the following except(Answer) a. eye protection b. disposable gloves c. face mask or eye shield d. nonrebreather mask(Answer) D
48. Standard Precautions should be taken with all patients. The key element of the Standard Precautions is to(Answer) a. always wear all protective clothing b. always have personal protective equipment readily available

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c. place equipment on the patient as well as the rescuer d. determine which body fluids are a danger to the EMT(Answer) B

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49. Certain injuries are common to particular situations. Injuries to bones and joints are usually associated with(Answer) a. fights and drug usage b. falls and vehicle collisions c. fires and explosions d. bullet wounds(Answer) B
50. Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in(Answer) a. immobilizing the patient's spine b. determining which Standard Precautions to use c. Predicting various injury patterns d. All of the above(Answer) C
51. The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, states that(Answer) a. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight b. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss c. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force d. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an injury(Answer) C
52. You are treating a patient who was involved in a head on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up and over" pathway. To which part of her body would she have most likely sustained injuries? a. skull b. fibula c. knees d. femur(Answer) A
53. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered a MOI for a patient who was involved in a head-on collision in which they were unrestrained and took the "up and over" pathway? a. steering wheel b. windshield c. Brake pedal d. dashboard(Answer) C
54. You are on the scene of a car crash. Your patient has stable vital signs and is complaint of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the

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front seat of the car and did not have his seatbelt on. What type of collision did he most likely experience? a. head- on, up and over

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b. rear end c. head-on, down and under d. rotational impact(Answer) C

55. Which type of collision is most serious when the occupant is not re- strained because it has the potential for multiple impacts? a. side impact b. rear end impact c. head-on, up and over d. roll-over(Answer) D
56. You are walking around a vehicle that was involved in a collision. All of the following are examples of MOI except a(Answer) a. patient who fell 3 times her height b. spiderweb crack in the windshield c. broken steering column in a collision d. flat rear tire(Answer) D
57. A severe fall for an adult is(Answer) a. over 20 feet b. over 15 feet c. less than 10 feet d. always fatal(Answer) A
58. You are evaluating a patient who sustained a penetrating injury. The injury is usually limited to the penetrated area in a injury. a. low velocity b. medium velocity c. high velocity d. super velocity(Answer) A
59. The pressure wave around the bullet's track through the body is called(Answer) a. exsanguination b. gas penetration c. cavitation d. pressure damage(Answer) C
60. You are evaluating a patient who sustained an injury cased by a blow that hit the body but did not penetrate the skin. This type of injury is called a(n)(Answer) a. inertia trauma

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b. cavitation c. blunt force trauma d. rotational impact(Answer) C

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61. In which of the following situations would it be necessary for you and your partner to call for additional assistance? a. You are treating a patient with flulike symptoms and the toddler also has similar symptoms b. your patient is a 350 pound male who fell down the stairs and has a broken leg c. you are treating a patient with a deep laceration in his right forearm d. your patient loses consciousness while you are carrying her to the en- gines(Answer) B
62. While in the living room of a private home treating a patient for nausea, headache, and general body weakness, your eyes begin to tear. Three family members have the same symptoms. You should immediately(Answer) a. evacuate all people from the building b. call for three additional ambulances c. notify police d. begin to flush out everyone's eyes(Answer) A
63. If the number of patients is more than the responding you can effectively handle, the EMT should(Answer) a. involve bystanders in care of injured b. call for additional EMS resources immediately c. advise medical direction that assistance is needed d. all of the above(Answer) B
64. When arriving at the scene of a collision, the EMT should(Answer) a. start placing flares across the road b. don head protection, bunker coat, and an ANSI- approved reflective vest c. immediately request additional units d. contact medical direction on the radio(Answer) B
65. A significant danger faced by the EMT is violence. On arriving at the scene of a private home, you hear screaming from inside; there are beer cans piled up on the front porch; and, as you knock on the door, it suddenly gets very quiet inside. What should you do next? a. enter the residence and search for weapons b. contact the dispatcher to inquire if they have ever had violence at this location c. retreat to a safe area and ask the police to secure the scene d. yell into the house that you are EMS and not the police(Answer) C

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66. You arrived on the scene of a large fire. If the personnel at the scene are using the incident command/ management system, you should(Answer)

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a. follow the instructions of the person in charge b. drive past the scene and park off the road c. transport the first patient you come across d. tag all the patients(Answer) A

67. Scene size up(Answer) steps taken by ambulance crew when approaching the sceneof an emergency call
68. Danger zone(Answer) the area around a wreckage of a vehicle collision or otherincident within which special safety precautions should be taken
69. MOI(Answer) a force or forces that may have caused injury
70. penetrating trauma(Answer) injury caused by an object that passes through the skinor other body tissues
71. blunt force trauma(Answer) injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skinor other body tissues
72. index of suspicion(Answer) awareness that there may be injuries
73. nature of illness(Answer) What is medically wrong with the patient.
74. Which of the following steps is not part of the primary assessment of a responsive patient with a medical problem? a. assess the patient's mental status b. assess the adequacy of breathing c. determine the patient's priority d. obtain the patient's blood pressure(Answer) D
75. The general impression is an evaluation of all the following except(Answer) a. the patient's chief complaint b. appearance c. the environment d. past medical history(Answer) D
76. You are assessing a patient and making observations about the scene. Finding drug-use paraphernalia at the scene of an emergency is an example of(Answer) a. an indication of the patient's chief complaint b. an environmental part of the general impression c. an assessment of the scene safety

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d. a medical history of drug addiction(Answer) B

77. When the patient tells you, in his own words, why he requested that an ambulance be called, this is referred to as the(Answer)

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a. general impression b. chief complaint c. primary assessment d. secondary assessment(Answer) B

78. During the general impression, the EMT should(Answer) a. look b. listen c. smell d. do all of these(Answer) D
79. You are assessing a patient who fell off his bike and landed on his right shoulder. First you determine his mental status using AVPU. What does the "A" stand for? a. action b. airway c. assess d. alert(Answer) D
80. You have determined that your patient is a V as far as mental status goes. What does the "V" stand for? a. violent b. very painful c. verbal d. venous(Answer) C
81. You are concerned because your patient may have a depressed mental status. What does the "P" stand for in AVPU? a. priority b. painful c. position d. patient(Answer) B
82. One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is(Answer) a. the assessment is done more quickly on the responsive patient b. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport c. there is no difference between the two assessments d. a jaw thrust maneuver should always be used on the responsive patient(Answer) B

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83. You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8 per minutes.

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As the EMT in charge you should(Answer) a. give high concentration oxygen via a nonreabreather mask b. evaluate the patient's circulation and treat for shock c. suction the patient and perform rescue breathing d. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100% oxygen(Answer) D

84. During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a breathing rate the is greater than 24 breaths per minutes, you should provide the patient with(Answer) a. positive pressure ventilations with 100% oxygen b. high concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask c. low concentration oxygen via bag valve mask d. medium concentration oxygen via nasal(Answer) B
85. In primary assessment, the circulation assessment includes evaluating all the following except(Answer) a. pulse b. skin c. severity of bleeding d. blood pressure(Answer) D
86. If the patient's skin is warm, dry, and normal color, it indicates(Answer) a. sunburn b. heat exposure c. alcohol abuse d. good circulation(Answer) D
87. Your patient has no-life threatening external hemorrhage but has skin that is cool, pale, and moist. This could be an indication of(Answer) a. increased perfusion b. high blood pressure c. poor circulation d. cold exposure(Answer) C
88. To evaluate skin color in a dark-skinned patient, the EMT should also(Answer) a. evaluate the tissues of the lips and nail beds b. evaluate the tissues of the heels of the feet c. check the pupils of the eyes d. do all of the above(Answer) A
89. When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT

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should check for and control severe bleeding. This is important to do be- cause(Answer)