FISDAP OPERATIONS EXAM 2024/2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST 150 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED, Exams of Nursing

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FISDAP OPERATIONS EXAM 2024/2025 ACTUAL EXAM

TEST 150 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED

ANSWERS GRADED A

Medical control has ordered you to administer one tube of oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient. Immediately after receiving this order, you should: A) document the order on the prehospital care report. B) administer the medication and reassess the patient. C) ask medical control to repeat the order word for word. D) repeat the order back to medical control word for word. D) repeat the order back to medical control word for word. The EMT should avoid focusing all his or her attention on a single critical patient during the triage process because: A. three EMTs are required to effectively manage a critical patient B. other patients may die from causes that could have been prevented C. all of his or her supplies will likely be depleted on that one patient D. the patient will most likely die before he or she can be transported B. other patients may die from causes that could have been prevented Following a call in which a 6-week-old infant in cardiac arrest did not survive, your partner has severe anxiety and is irritable. What should you do? A) Allow him to voice his feelings to you. B) Tell him that he needs psychiatric help. C) Recommend at least 12 hours of sleep. D) Report his behavior to the medical director. A) Allow him to voice his feelings to you. If the EMT could initially only take two pieces of equipment to the side of a patient in cardiac arrest, which of the following should he or she select? A) AED and suction device

B) AED and oxygen cylinder C) Pocket mask and oxygen cylinder D) Bag-mask and suction devices ID#EMT- 435 ← PREVIOUSPAUSE/END TESTNEXT → A) AED and suction device During the triage process, which of the following injuries or conditions would classify a patient as a high priority? A) Pulselessness and apnea B) Unilateral femur fracture and tachycardia C) Partial-thickness burns with no respiratory difficulty D) A large avulsion to the arm and an altered mental status D) A large avulsion to the arm and an altered mental status What are the recommended dimensions for a helicopter landing zone? A) 50 feet by 50 feet B) 75 feet by 75 feet C) 100 feet by 100 feet D) 200 feet by 200 feet C) 100 feet by 100 feet When arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you determine that the safest place to park the ambulance is in a direction that faces oncoming traffic. What should you do? A) Position road flares around the front of the ambulance. B) Turn all emergency lighting off to avoid blinding the traffic. C) Turn the high-beam headlights on to alert oncoming traffic. D) Turn your headlights off, but keep the emergency lights on. D) Turn your headlights off, but keep the emergency lights on. The set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent or limits of an EMT's job is called: A) a duty to act.

B) confidentiality. C) the scope of practice. D) the Medical Practices Act. C) the scope of practice. When driving in emergency mode on a multilane highway, the emergency vehicle operator should keep to the: A) right shoulder so that traffic flow is not disrupted. B) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right. C) extreme right lane so motorists can yield to the left. D) center lane so the traffic can flow around the ambulance. B) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right. Which of the following statements regarding the use of an escort vehicle when en route to an emergency call is correct? A) An escort vehicle will allow you to arrive at the scene more quickly. B) To avoid getting separated from the escort vehicle, you should follow it closely. C) An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patient's location. D) With an escort vehicle, the risk of an accident at an intersection is reduced significantly. C) An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patient's location. Upon returning to quarters after working a major car accident involving an entire family, a member of the press calls and requests information regarding the call. What should you do? A) Disclose the general extent of the patient's injuries, but avoid disclosing which facility they were transported to B) Disclose the ages of the patients and the facility to which they were transported, but avoid discussing their injuries C) Inform him that the patients were transported to the hospital, but that you cannot disclose the extent of their injuries D) Provide information requested on the patients who are not minors, but avoid disclosing your name or badge number

C) Inform him that the patients were transported to the hospital, but that you cannot disclose the extent of their injuries Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or her blood pressure may constitute: A) battery. B) negligence. C) abandonment. D) assault. A) battery. When sizing up a motor vehicle crash in which a small passenger car struck a bridge pillar and sustained severe damage, you should: A) immediately approach the vehicle and determine if it is stable. B) break the driver's-side window and gain rapid access to the patient. C) disconnect the battery cables and then request heavy extrication tools. D) ensure that there are no hazards and then try to open one of the doors. D) ensure that there are no hazards and then try to open one of the doors. While functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the EMT to: A) use triage and base patient care on available resources. B) identify the person or persons responsible for the event. C) begin immediate treatment of the most critically injured patients. D) avoid placing any casualty in a "delayed" treatment status. A) use triage and base patient care on available resources. You are dispatched to a call for an unresponsive patient. Which of the following is the MOST important information that you should initially obtain from the dispatcher? A) The exact location of the patient B) The call-back number of the caller C) The patient's sex and approximate age D) Whether the patient is breathing A) The exact location of the patient

A man armed with a shotgun has taken two people hostage and has shot one of them. Upon arriving at the scene, you should: A) be sure and turn up your portable radio loud enough so that you can remain aware of the entire situation. B) leave your lights and siren on because this will let the injured person know that you have arrived and are there to help. C) have the incident commander guide you to a shielded staging area and wait for the tactical team to bring the patient to you. D) inform the incident commander that you will assume responsibility for the entire incident since there is a confirmed patient. C) have the incident commander guide you to a shielded staging area and wait for the tactical team to bring the patient to you. While transporting a patient in non-emergency mode, the ambulance operator notices another motorist following too close behind. The ambulance operator should: A) gently tap on the brakes to cause the motorist to slow his speed. B) slow the speed of the ambulance to encourage the motorist to pass. C) increase the speed of the ambulance to increase the cushion of safety. D) stop the ambulance and ask the motorist to maintain a safe distance. B) slow the speed of the ambulance to encourage the motorist to pass. Upon arriving at a scene in which a tanker truck overturned and is spilling an unknown liquid on the ground, you should: A) quickly identify the material. B) stay downhill from the scene. C) turn off your warning lights. D) park upwind from the scene. D) park upwind from the scene. You are the first ambulance to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. As you approach the scene, you see three patients: two have been ejected from their vehicles and the other is still in his vehicle. You should: A) begin triaging and treating the most critically injured patients.

B) request additional ambulances to respond to the scene. C) call medical control and apprise him or her of the situation. D) notify the local trauma center so personnel there can prepare for the patients. B) request additional ambulances to respond to the scene. Which of the following is an example of the EMT providing care based on standing orders? A) Following assessment of a patient with a terminal illness, the EMT contacts the patient's personal physician to determine whether he or she requires any special care. B) Prior to administering oral glucose to a patient with hypoglycemia, the EMT confirms the proper dosage and requests authorization from the base station physician. C) The EMT defibrillates a patient with the automated external defibrillator, directs immediate resumption of CPR, and then contacts medical control for further guidance. D) After confirming that a patient's blood pressure is adequate, the EMT contacts medical control and requests permission to assist the patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin. C) The EMT defibrillates a patient with the automated external defibrillator, directs immediate resumption of CPR, and then contacts medical control for further guidance. At the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the incident command system has been established, an EMT arrives in his personal vehicle and begins treating patients independently. This EMT's action would MOST likely lead to: A) reduced efficiency of the operation. B) faster treatment of critical patients. C) rapid identification of critical patients. D) faster transport of the critically injured. A) reduced efficiency of the operation. Upon arriving at a mass-casualty incident, the EMT is assigned to the treatment area. Upon completion of duties in the treatment area, the EMT should: A) notify the incident commander and return to service. B) report to the treatment officer for further instructions. C) report to the transportation area to assist with transport. D) report to the triage section to check for remaining patients.

B) report to the treatment officer for further instructions. A conscious and alert 92-year-old woman with chest pain is refusing EMS treatment and transport to the hospital. Her family insists that you transport her. What should you do? A) Transport the patient as the family wishes. B) Advise the patient of the risks of refusing care. C) Obtain a signed refusal from a family member. D) Transport the patient as you explain your actions. B) Advise the patient of the risks of refusing care. You arrive at the scene of a traffic accident in which multiple vehicles are involved. You see at least two patients who are lying on the road and are not moving. You should: A) begin triaging the patients. B) begin immediate patient care. C) notify medical control for advice. D) request additional ambulances. D) request additional ambulances. The safest emergency vehicle operator is one who: A) is physically fit. B) has a positive attitude. C) drives with due regard. D) drives with lights and siren. C) drives with due regard. When using the power lift to lift a stretcher, you should: A) maintain a slight inward curve to your back. B) bend at the waist and keep your back straight. C) ensure that you lift with your palms facing up. D) maintain a slight outward curve to your back. C) ensure that you lift with your palms facing up.

A patient injured his arm and asks to be transported to a specific hospital because he has been there before. The EMT states that he does not feel the doctors there are competent and recommends a different hospital. The EMT's behavior is: A) legal and ethical. B) ethical, but illegal. C) legal, but unethical. D) illegal and unethical C) legal, but unethical. When requesting medical direction for a patient who was involved in a major motor vehicle accident, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT: A) use radio codes to describe the situation. B) question an order if it seems to be inappropriate. C) use proper medical terminology when speaking. D) describe the severity of damage to the patient's vehicle. A) use radio codes to describe the situation. When arriving at a chemical plant fire, the incident commander should expect a plant representative to present a/an: A) bill of lading (freight bill). B) material safety data sheet. C) company policy handbook. D) Emergency Response Guidebook. B) material safety data sheet. When the incident command system is activated at the scene, you should expect to: A) receive instructions and then function independently. B) be immediately directed to the established treatment area. C) report back to your section officer in between assignments. D) be assigned one responsibility for the duration of the incident. C) report back to your section officer in between assignments.

At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you notice a bystander who is emotionally upset. An appropriate action to take would be to: A) tell the bystander to leave the scene at once. B) have the bystander assist you with patient care. C) notify the police and have the bystander removed. D) assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task. D) assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task. You are caring for a man with terminal cancer when his caretaker presents you with a Physician Order for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST) form. The purpose of this form is to: A) advise medical providers that resuscitation is not to be attempted. B) describe acceptable patient interventions in the form of medical orders. C) enable the caretaker to make healthcare decisions on the patient's behalf. D) limit the treatment provided to the patient to basic life support care. B) describe acceptable patient interventions in the form of medical orders. When called to the scene of a structural fire to stand by in case any injuries occur at the scene, you should: A) park the ambulance close to the fire so you can rapidly access any patients. B) ensure that your ambulance does not block or hinder other arriving fire apparatus. C) depart the scene and return to service after the fire has been completely extinguished. D) enter the structure with the firefighters so you can provide immediate care to any victims. B) ensure that your ambulance does not block or hinder other arriving fire apparatus. A red placard indicates that the material inside a tanker is: A) radioactive. B) explosive. C) corrosive. D) flammable. D) flammable. A 30-year-old woman crashed her car into a tree at a high rate of speed. She is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. She has some small lacerations and abrasions to her arms and face, but no

obviously life-threatening injuries. As you are loading her into the ambulance, she tells you that she does not want to go to the hospital. You should: A) advise her that she is probably too emotionally upset to be able to refuse EMS treatment and transport. B) ask a law enforcement officer to administer a breathalyzer test to determine if she has been drinking alcohol. C) advise the patient that she should be transported to the hospital because of the seriousness of the crash. D) obtain a signed refusal from the patient and ask a law enforcement officer to transport her to the hospital. C) advise the patient that she should be transported to the hospital because of the seriousness of the crash. In which of the following situations is an emergency move of a patient from his or her wrecked vehicle clearly indicated? A) The patient appears unresponsive and a high-power line is lying across the hood. B) Your primary assessment reveals that the patient has signs and symptoms of shock. C) The patient has an altered mental status; diaphoresis; and rapid, shallow breathing. D) Gas is leaking from the vehicle and there is a small fire in the engine compartment. D) Gas is leaking from the vehicle and there is a small fire in the engine compartment. Which of the following patients has the highest priority at the scene of a mass-casualty incident? A) 29-year-old man who is pulseless and apneic with an abdominal evisceration B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe burns C) 38 - year-old woman who remains apneic after you manually open her airway D) 44-year-old unresponsive man with an open head injury and agonal gasps B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe burns Which of the following components is NOT part of an injury or illness prevention program? A) Inspecting the home of young parents for child safety locks B) Teaching new parents how to properly install a child safety seat C) Educating teenage students on the dangers of drinking and driving D) Training a group of daycare employees on infant and child CPR

D) Training a group of daycare employees on infant and child CPR At the scene of a hazardous materials incident, medical monitoring of patients and emergency personnel should occur: A) in the hot zone. B) In the warm zone. C) In the cold zone. D) before decontamination. C) In the cold zone. While responding to a call for a child in cardiac arrest, the ambulance approaches a school bus that is stopped and has its red lights flashing. The ambulance operator should: A) use a different siren tone, slow the ambulance to 20 mph, and carefully pass the bus on the left. B) turn the siren off and wait for the bus driver to close the doors and turn the red flashing lights off. C) use the public address (PA) system to alert the children to remain in the bus until the ambulance passes. D) turn off the lights and siren and carefully pass the bus on the right while watching carefully for children. B) turn the siren off and wait for the bus driver to close the doors and turn the red flashing lights off. The ultimate goal of any EMS quality improvement program is to: A) deliver a consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered. B) ensure that all personnel receive an adequate number of continuing education hours. C) provide protocols to all EMTs and hold them accountable if protocols are not followed. D) recognize all EMTs who demonstrate consistency in providing competent patient care. A) deliver a consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered. A man who was recently diagnosed with advanced cancer tells the EMT that he doesn't think that chemotherapy is necessary because his cancer is "not that bad." What stage of the grieving process is this consistent with? A) Anger B) Denial

C) Bargaining D) Acceptance B) Denial When providing care to multiple patients at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, your goal should remain focused on: A) transporting patients to the hospital. B) immobilizing all patients at the scene. C) initiating CPR for those patients in cardiac arrest. D) keeping all bystanders at a safe distance. A) transporting patients to the hospital. A 52-year-old woman crashed her minivan into a tree. She is pinned at the legs by the steering wheel and is semiconscious. After gaining access to the patient, you should: A) perform a primary assessment and provide any life-saving care before extrication. B) immediately apply high-flow oxygen to the patient and allow extrication to begin. C) rapidly assess her from head to toe, obtain vital signs, and apply a cervical collar. D) have the fire department disentangle the patient and quickly remove her from the car. A) perform a primary assessment and provide any life-saving care before extrication. A 10-year-old child was struck by a car while crossing the street. He has bilateral femur fractures and a head injury. His father has been notified and is 20 minutes away from the scene. The EMT should: A) contact medical control to see if he/she will take custody of the child. B) attempt to contact the child's mother to see if she can be there sooner. C) begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father. D) stabilize the child at the scene until the father arrives and gives consent. C) begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father. Which of the following is an example of informed consent? A) Prior to starting treatment, the EMT asks a patient if he has permission to begin treatment B) The EMT informs a conscious patient of the risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport C) The EMT informs a patient of the potential risks associated with his proposed treatment

D) EMTs treat an unresponsive patient under the assumption that he would consent if he was conscious C) The EMT informs a patient of the potential risks associated with his proposed treatment When calling in your radio report to the receiving hospital, you should: A) include the patient's name. B) be brief, concise, and factual. C) give your report only to a physician. D) break your report into 60-second increments. B) be brief, concise, and factual. Your partner, a veteran EMT of 20 years, has been showing up late to work with increasing frequency over the last several shifts. When he arrives, he is in a bad mood and is clearly not interested in being at work. His behavior is MOST consistent with: A) burnout. B) delirium. C) drug use. D) acute stress. A) burnout. You are caring for a 6-year-old child with a swollen, painful deformity to the left forearm. As you communicate with the parents of this child, you should: A) ask them repeatedly how the child was injured. B) use appropriate medical terminology at all times. C) make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing. D) tell them that the child will be transported to the hospital. C) make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing. How does a unified incident command system differ from a single incident command system? A) In a unified incident command system, a single incident commander is identified and will function as such, regardless of the type of incident. B) In a unified incident command system, a single person is in charge of the entire incident, even if multiple agencies respond to the scene.

C) In a unified incident command system, plans are made in advance by all agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making. D) In a unified incident command system, one agency with several incident commanders has the majority of responsibility for incident management. C) In a unified incident command system, plans are made in advance by all agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making