FISDAP OPERATIONS EXAM 2024/2025 WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Advanced Education

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FISDAP OPERATIONS EXAM

2024/2025 WITH 100% CORRECT

ANSWERS

A patient is found unresponsive in his small bathroom. He is not breathing and is sitting in the corner. Two EMTs are able to reach him, but they are unable to stand side by side. He appears to weigh about 150 pounds and there is no evidence that he has been injured. Which of the following would be the quickest and MOST practical way of moving him out of the bathroom? A) Extremity lift B) Long backboard C) Direct ground lift D) Stair chair device - CORRECT-ANSWERSA) Extremity lift When moving any patient, you should do so in the safest, most efficient way possible. If a patient is in a narrow space (ie, small bathroom, narrow hallway) and you and your partner cannot stand side by side to perform a direct ground lift, the extremity lift would be the most practical way of moving him or her. One EMT would lift by the arms and the other by the legs; the patient could then be moved to a larger working area. Two EMTs should be able to safely lift a 150-pound patient. A long backboard would clearly not work in the case of a narrow or small space because there would be little room to the patient's left or right to slide the board underneath him or her. A stair chair would also likely not be possible, or practical, because of such a confined space. Who has ultimate authority for all issues regarding patient care at the scene of a mass-casualty incident? A) Incident commander

B) Treatment officer C) Most experienced EMT D) EMS medical director - CORRECT-ANSWERSD) EMS medical director The incident commander (IC) is responsible for all logistical and operational aspects of a mass-casualty incident (MCI), such as designating section officers and working in collaboration with other agencies (eg, police, fire, EMS). For all issues regarding patient care, the EMS medical director has ultimate authority. Although the treatment officer is responsible for overseeing all emergency care provided at the scene, and EMTs working in the treatment area provide direct patient care, these personnel are still functioning under the physician's license. During an MCI, the IC (or his or her designee) is typically in contact with the medical director, who is located at the base station hospital, via mobile phone or two-way radio. In some cases, the medical director may be physically present at the incident. A 52-year-old woman crashed her minivan into a tree. She is pinned at the legs by the steering wheel and is semiconscious. After gaining access to the patient, you should: A) perform a primary assessment and provide any life-saving care before extrication. B) immediately apply high-flow oxygen to the patient and allow extrication to begin. C) rapidly assess her from head to toe, obtain vital signs, and apply a cervical collar. D) have the fire department disentangle the patient and quickly remove her from the car. - CORRECT-ANSWERSA) perform a primary assessment and provide any life- saving care before extrication. Unless there is an immediate threat of fire, explosion, or other danger, you should perform a primary assessment and begin any life-saving care as soon as you have gained access to the patient. If you wait to do this until after the patient has been disentangled, it may be too late; the patient may already be dead.

A) Stair chair B) Long backboard C) Wheeled stretcher D) Scoop stretcher - CORRECT-ANSWERSD) Scoop stretcher Of the options listed, the scoop stretcher, also called an orthopaedic stretcher or split litter, would be the most appropriate to use. The scoop stretcher is contoured and allows for the placement of straps to secure the patient; it also allows you to place padding around and under the patient. The long backboard, unlike the scoop stretcher, is flat; therefore, the patient can slide from side to side or top to bottom, even when straps are placed. The wheeled ambulance stretcher is top heavy and is not safe for patient movement down a flight of stairs or across rough terrain. Because the patient has a hip injury, the stair chair would not be appropriate to use. When calling in your radio report to the receiving hospital, you should: A) include the patient's name. B) be brief, concise, and factual. C) give your report only to a physician. D) break your report into 60-second increments. - CORRECT-ANSWERSB) be brief, concise, and factual. A radio report should be brief, concise, and factual. It should include the patient's age and sex, his or her chief complaint, associated assessment findings, vital signs, treatment that you provided, and the patient's response to your treatment. Avoid speculative statements regarding the patient's condition; report only what you know to be fact. Longer radio reports should be broken into 30- second increments; after 30 seconds, pause and ensure the listener heard your previous traffic. The patient's name is not vital to your report; thus, there is no need to disclose it. Unless you are requesting medical direction, it is

acceptable, and routine practice, to give your report to a registered nurse. At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you notice a bystander who is emotionally upset. An appropriate action to take would be to: A) tell the bystander to leave the scene at once. B) have the bystander assist you with patient care. C) notify the police and have the bystander removed. D) assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task. - CORRECT-ANSWERSD) assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task. One of the most effective ways to reduce stress in a bystander at the scene of a mass-casualty incident is to assign the bystander a task that is not related to patient care. This may involve assisting other bystanders who are having difficulties as well or providing water to the rescuers. An obviously distressed bystander should not simply be sent away from the scene, but should be looked at as a patient as well. Clearly, if the bystander becomes aggressive or violent, law enforcement personnel should get involved. Upon arriving at a mass-casualty incident, the EMT is assigned to the treatment area. Upon completion of duties in the treatment area, the EMT should: A) notify the incident commander and return to service. B) report to the treatment officer for further instructions. C) report to the transportation area to assist with transport. D) report to the triage section to check for remaining patients. - CORRECT- ANSWERSB) report to the treatment officer for further instructions. Organized operations at the scene of a mass-casualty incident are crucial in order to achieve the best possible outcome and maximize the number of lives

You must obtain consent from any mentally competent adult patient prior to initiating treatment. Just because the patient is 80 years old does not mean that she does not have decision-making capacity. Also, just because her son wants her to be transported does not mean that she agrees with this request. Ask her if she wishes to be treated and transported to the hospital. If she does, then you have obtained consent and should proceed accordingly. If she does not, you should determine if she has decision-making capacity--that is, whether she is mentally competent. If she is determined to have decision-making capacity, then you cannot legally treat or transport her. If she does not have decision-making capacity (eg, she is confused, she is under the influence of drugs or alcohol), then you may treat and transport under the law of implied consent. It is not the EMT's decision to determine, let alone recommend, that a patient be taken to the hospital via privately owned vehicle (POV}. If the patient requests EMS treatment and transport, you are legally obligated to do so. When using the power lift to lift a stretcher, you should: A) maintain a slight inward curve to your back. B) bend at the waist and keep your back straight C) ensure that you lift with your palms facing up. D) maintain a slight outward curve to your back. - CORRECT-ANSWERSC) ensure that you lift with your palms facing up. To achieve the best grip and to avoid injury to your wrists, you should lift a stretcher, backboard, or other carrying device with your palms facing up. Do not bend at the waist; rather, bend at the knees and keep your back in a straight, locked-in position. You and your partner have secured a trauma patient to a long backboard and are preparing to lift the backboard onto the stretcher. When doing so, you should: A) lift the backboard from the sides instead of from the ends.

B) be sure to lift the backboard with the powerful muscles of your back. C) recall that most of the patient's weight is at the foot end of the backboard. D) ensure that the strongest EMT is positioned at the head of the backboard. - CORRECT-ANSWERSD) ensure that the strongest EMT is positioned at the head of the backboard. Since most of the patient's weight is distributed to the head end of a backboard, you should always ensure that the strongest EMT is at that position. This will reduce the risk of injury to less strong personnel as well as the risk of dropping the patient. The backboard should be lifted from the ends, not the sides; you have less control over the board if it is lifted from the sides. When lifting any patient, you should use the powerful muscles of your thighs, not your back, to lift. Keep your back straight and in a locked-in position. Which of the following statements regarding the high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator is correct? A) HEPA respirator should be placed on any patient with tuberculosis. B) Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator. C) A surgical mask provides better protection against tuberculosis than a HEPA respirator. D) A HEPA respirator is necessary only if the patient with suspected tuberculosis is coughing. - CORRECT-ANSWERSB) Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator. If you are caring for a patient with known or suspected tuberculosis (TB) or COVID- 19, regardless of whether the patient is coughing, you should place a surgical mask (or high-flow oxygen, if indicated) on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator (N-95 or higher) on yourself. Unlike a surgical mask, the HEPA respirator is specifically designed to prevent exposure to the bacterium that causes TB; it can also filter out particles of the SARSCoV-2 virus, the virus that causes COVID-19. A surgical mask, however, will reduce the transmission of germs from the patient into the air. Do not place a

A) most knowledgeable EMS provider. B) EMS provider with the most years in EMS. C) first EMS provider who is willing to perform the task. D) EMS medical director via telephone communication. - CORRECT-ANSWERSA) most knowledgeable EMS provider. The role of triage officer should be assumed by the most knowledgeable EMS provider at the scene. Knowledge and experience will enable this person to most effectively manage the triage process. Just because a person has been in the EMS profession for a long period of time does not mean that he or she has been active or has maintained clinical competence. While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a responsive middle-aged woman with a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min. What should you do next? A) Triage her as immediate (red tag) B) Assess for bilateral radial pulses C) Administer high-flow oxygen at once D) Assess her ability to follow commands - CORRECT-ANSWERSB) Assess for bilateral radial pulses According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment {START) method, if you encounter an adult patient with a respiratory rate that is less than 10 breaths/min or greater than 29 breaths/min, you should triage him or her as immediate (red tag) and move to the next patient. However, if the patient's respiratory rate is between 10 and 29 breaths/min, you should assess his or her hemodynamic status by checking for bilateral radial pulses. If the patient's radial pulses are absent, triage him or her as immediate and move to the next patient. If the patient's radial pulses are present, assess his or her ability to

follow simple commands. If the patient is able to follow simple commands, triage him or her as delayed (yellow tag) and move to the next patient. If the patient is unable to follow simple commands, triage him or her as immediate and move to the next patient. Treatment does not occur during the initial triage process. Which of the following patients has the highest priority at the scene of a mass- casualty incident? A) 29-year-old man who is pulseless and apneic with an abdominal evisceration B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe burns C) 38-year-old woman who remains apneic after you manually open her airway D) 44-year-old unresponsive man with an open head injury and agonal gasps - CORRECT-ANSWERSB) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe burns The goal of triage is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Relative to the other patients, who are either in respiratory or cardiac arrest or have injuries incompatible with life, the woman with snoring respirations and severe burns has the best chance for survival. Therefore, she is the highest treatment priority. The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel is called: A) autoclaving. B) sterilization. C) detoxification. D) decontamination. - CORRECT-ANSWERSD) decontamination.

possible pneumonia. As you are reviewing the transfer paperwork, you see that the patient has a valid do not attempt resuscitation order. During transport, you should: A) perform CPR for only 2 minutes if the patient develops cardiac arrest. B) disregard the DNAR order because it is only valid in the hospital setting. C) provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient comfortable. D) monitor the patient because a DNAR order prohibits you from providing care. - CORRECT-ANSWERSC) provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient comfortable. A valid do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) order gives you the legal authority not to initiate resuscitative efforts if the patient develops cardiac arrest. Because laws vary from state to state, you must be familiar with the DNAR laws in the state in which you work as an EMT. Many states have adopted out-of hospital DNAR orders; these are legal documents and should be adhered to if they are valid. Generally speaking, a valid DNAR order must clearly state the patient's medical problem(s), be signed by the patient or legal guardian, and be signed by one or more physicians. In some states, DNAR orders have an expiration date, while in others, no expiration date is included. Contact medical control for guidance if the validity of a DNAR order is questionable. Even in the presence of a valid DNAR order, you are still obligated to provide supportive measures, such as oxygen, pain relief, and comfort. DNAR does NOT mean do not treat. When driving in emergency mode on a multilane highway, the emergency vehicle operator should keep to the: A) right shoulder so that traffic flow is not disrupted. B) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right. C) extreme right lane so motorists can yield to the left. D) center lane so the traffic can flow around the ambulance. - CORRECT- ANSWERSB) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right.

When traveling on a highway with more than one lane, the emergency vehicle operator should remain in the extreme left-hand (fast) lane. This allows other motorists to yield to the right as they see you approach. A motorist's typical initial reaction upon seeing an approaching ambulance is to slam on the brakes and then look for the best direction to yield; this may be to the left or right, depending on the traffic. Do not attempt to pass a motorist until he or she is clearly aware of your presence and has yielded accordingly. Passing other motorists on the right is unsafe and should be avoided. The EMT should avoid focusing all of his or her attention on a single critical patient during the triage process because: A) three EMTs are required to effectively manage a critical patient. B) other patients may die from causes that could have been prevented. C) all of his or her supplies will likely be depleted on that one patient. D) the patient will most likely die before he or she can be transported. - CORRECT- ANSWERSB) other patients may die from causes that could have been prevented. Triage is the process of rapidly assessing patients to determine their treatment priority. Focusing your attention on one patient during the triage process not only defeats the purpose of triage (to do the greatest good for the greatest number of people), but also neglects other patients who might die from injuries or conditions that could have been corrected if detected earlier. You are caring for a 6-year-old child with a swollen, painful deformity to the left forearm. As you communicate with the parents of this child, you should: A) ask them repeatedly how the child was injured. B) use appropriate medical terminology at all times. C) make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing.

document that states "do not attempt resuscitation." You should: A) stop all resuscitative efforts in accordance with the document. B) stop CPR until the document can be validated by a physician. C) continue CPR until you have contacted medical control for guidance. D) contact medical control prior to continuing any resuscitative efforts. - CORRECT- ANSWERSC) continue CPR until you have contacted medical control for guidance. Do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR} orders can be challenging for EMS providers. When presented with documentation, especially if it does not appear to be valid (in this case, an unsigned document), you should err on the side of patient care and continue resuscitative efforts until medical control orders you to stop. While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT's eyes. This is an example of: A) exposure. B) infection. C) transmission. D) indirect contact. - CORRECT-ANSWERSA) exposure. Exposure occurs when an individual comes in direct contact with blood or other bodily fluids. Examples of direct exposure include blood splashing into the eyes or mouth and an accidental stick with a contaminated needle or other sharp object. Exposure does not always result in disease transmission and subsequent infection; that depends on whether the patient has an infectious disease. Routine use of standard precautions will afford the EMT the best protection from exposure to an infectious disease.

Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or her blood pressure may constitute: A) battery. B) negligence. C) abandonment. D) assault. - CORRECT-ANSWERSA) battery. Battery is defined as unlawfully touching another person without his or her consent. Obtaining consent from every responsive patient prior to rendering care is of paramount importance. Assault is defined as instilling fear into another person, but does not necessarily involve actually touching him or her. Laws can vary from state to state as to these definitions. Negligence occurs when the EMT fa ils to act as another prudent EMT would have acted in the same or similar situation. Abandonment occurs when the EMT terminates patient care without the patient's consent or transfers care of a patient to a provider of lesser training. Which of the fo llowing is an example of informed consent? A) Prior to starting treatment, the EMT asks a patient if he has permission to begin treatment B) The EMT informs a conscious patient of the risk of refusing EMS treatment and transport C) The EMT informs a patient of the potential risks associated with his proposed treatment D) EMTs treat an unresponsive patient under the assumption that he would consent if he was conscious - CORRECT-ANSWERSC) The EMT informs a patient of the potential risks associated with his proposed treatment EMTs should obtain consent to assess and treat from every patient who is of legal age and has decision-making capacity. In order for consent to be informed,

A 10-year-old child was struck by a car while crossing the street. He has bilateral femur fractures and a head injury. His father has been notified and is 20 minutes away from the scene. The EMT should: A) contact medical control to see if he/she will take custody of the child. B) attempt to contact the child's mother to see if she can be there sooner. C) begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father. D) stabilize the child at the scene until the father arrives and gives consent. - CORRECT-ANSWERSC) begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father. The child in this scenario is critically- injured and needs immediate treatment and transport. In the interest of the child, it should be presumed that the parents would give consent to treat and transport if they were at the scene (implied consent). Begin emergency care, transport without delay, and ask a law enforcement officer to apprise the child's parents of your transport destination. At the scene of a hazardous materials incident, medical monitoring of patients and emergency personnel should occur: A) in the hot zone. B) In the warm zone. C) In the cold zone. D) before decontamination. - CORRECT-ANSWERSC) In the cold zone. The cold zone is a safe area where personnel do not need to wear any special protective clothing for safe operation. Personnel staging, the command post, EMS providers, and the area for medical monitoring, support, and/or treatment after decontamination are all located in the cold zone. The hot zone is the area immediately surrounding the release and is the most contaminated area; personnel should wear full protective clothing while in the hot zone, and the

only operation that should occur is patient rescue. Decontamination of patients and rescue personnel should occur in the warm zone. While functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the EMT to: A) use triage and base patient care on available resources. B) identify the person or persons responsible for the event. C) begin immediate treatment of the most critically injured patients. D) avoid placing any casualty in a "delayed" treatment status. - CORRECT- ANSWERSA) use triage and base patient care on available resources. During a terrorist incident, the basic foundations of triage and patient care remain the same; however, the treatment can and will vary. Terrorist incidents can produce a single casualty, hundreds of casualties, or thousands of casualties. When presented with mass casualties, you must remember the importance of situational awareness. What you do in one situation may not be appropriate for another situation. In large-scale terrorist incidents, it is important to use triage and base patient care on available resources. When triaging casualties, use the same triage process that you would for any other mass-casualty incident. Remain focused on providing the greatest good for the greatest number of people, not the person or persons responsible for the incident. In which of the following situations is an emergency move of a patient from his or her wrecked vehicle clearly indicated? A) The patient appears unresponsive and a high-power line is lying across the hood. B) Your primary assessment reveals that the patient has signs and symptoms of shock. C) The patient has an altered mental status; diaphoresis; and rapid, shallow breathing. D) Gas is leaking from the vehicle and there is a small fire in the engine compartment. - CORRECT-ANSWERSD) Gas is leaking from the vehicle and there is a small fire in the engine compartment.