Flight Paramedic Certification Exam: Questions and Answers, Exams of Space Flight Mechanics

Download Flight Paramedic Certification Exam: Questions and Answers and more Exams Space Flight Mechanics in PDF only on Docsity!

Flight Paramedic Certification Exam

questions and answers.

LAD (left anterior descending) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Anterior heart (leads V3, V4 ) Agent Aspirin (ASA) - correct answers.Antidote Bicarb Agent Benzodiazepines - correct answers.Antidote Flumazenil (Romazicon) (may cause seizures) Agent Beta Blockers - correct answers.Antidote Glucagon Agent Calcium Channel Blockers - correct answers.Antidote Calcium Gluconate Agent Cocaine - correct answers.Antidote Benzodiazepines

*DO NOT give beta-blockers to drug-induced, stimulant-related hypertensive and/ or tachycardic patients! Agent Pit Vipers - correct answers.Antidote CroFab, FabAV Agent Cyanide - correct answers.Antidote Amyl Nitrate (inhaled), Sodium Nitrate (IV), Sodium Thiosulfate (IV) Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride) has the prescense of ...? Tx? - correct answers.Cyanide. Tx with simultaneous administration of Sodium Thiosulfate IV infusion. Agent Digoxin (Digitalis) - correct answers.Antidote Digibind, Digoxin Fab May also use Magnesium, Phenytoin, and Lidocaine until Digibind or Digoxin can be give. *DO NOT use beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers for digitalis toxicity Agent Dilantin - correct answers.Antidote Supportive care Agent Ethylene Glycol (Anti-Freeze) - correct answers.Antidote Fomepizole (Antizol) Agent Ethanol toxicity - correct answers.Antidote Fomepizol (Antizol) Agent Hydrocarbons such as petroleum distillates (eg, gasoline, kerosene, mineral oil, lamp oil, paint thinners) - correct answers.Antidote Airway protection is the #1 priority due to high risk of aspiration. Intubate Agent Isoniazid (INH) - correct answers.Antidote Pyridoxine Agent Iron - correct answers.Antidote Deferoxamine

Effective iron ingestion tx characterized by... - correct answers.Urine output appears in pink in color "vin-rose urine" Agent Methanol - correct answers.Antidote IV Ethanol Agent Opiods - correct answers.Antidote Naloxone (Narcan) Agent Organophosphates - correct answers.Antidote Atropine, 2 Pam Chloride Agent Tricyclic Antidepressants - correct answers.Antidote Bicarb Agent Tylenol - correct answers.Antidote Mucomyst, Acetadote, N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) Pediatric age range Neonate - correct answers.Birth to 28 days Pediatric age range Infant - correct answers.28 days to 1 year Pediatric age range Toddler - correct answers.1 to 2 years Pediatric age range Child - correct answers.> 2 years Pediatric Normal BP formula - correct answers.90 + (2 x age) Pediatric Hypotensive BP formula - correct answers.70 + (2 x age) Neonate/Infant Emergency Fluid Resuscitation dose - correct answers.10cc/kg Toddler/Child Emergency Fluid Resuscitation dose - correct answers.20cc/kg Max number of fluid bolus infusion for a pediatric - correct answers.

Glucose management for all pediatrics - correct answers.D-Stick< 60mg/dL, all ages 2cc/kg Glucose management DOC for a neonate - correct answers.2cc/kg of D Glucose management DOC for an infant - correct answers.2cc/kg of D Glucose management DOC for a toddler - correct answers.2cc/kg of D ABG value PH - correct answers.7.35-7. ABG value CO2 - correct answers.35- 45 ABG value HCO3- - correct answers.22- 26 ABG value PaO2 - correct answers.80-100 mmhg (60 mmHg = 90%) ABG value SaO2 - correct answers.>95% ABG value Base (excess/deficit) - correct answers.(-2) to (+2) Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value Na+ (sodium) - correct answers.135 - 145 mEq/L Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value K+ (potassium) - correct answers.3.5 - 5 mEq/L Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value Cl- (chloride) - correct answers.95-105 mEq/L Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value CO2 (tCO2) - correct answers.22-26 mEq/L ***tCO2 (total CO2) contains mostly bicarbonate, CO2, and carbonic acid. 95% of tCO2 is composed of bicarbonate which is indirectly measured here. This value differs from pCO2 or EtCO2 which is 35-45) Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) - correct answers.6-24 mg/dL Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value Cr (creatinine) - correct answers..7-1.4 mg/dL

Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value Glucose - correct answers.80-120 mg/dL Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Sodium is... - correct answers.The primary extracellular cation. Helps the body keep fluids in a normal balance and has a key role in nerve and muscle function. Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Potassium is... - correct answers.The primary intracellular cation, responsible for cell excitability, resting membrane potential (MOST DANGEROUS ABNORMALITY) Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Chloride is... - correct answers.An extracellular cation, maintains osmotic pressure, helps stomach produce hydrochloric acid Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Carbon Dioxide is... - correct answers.Important for helping maintain the acid-base balance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Blood Urea Nitrogen... - correct answers.Helps provide a picture of renal clearance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Creatinine... - correct answers.Help provide a picture of renal clearance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Glucose... - correct answers.Shows how much glucose is circulating in the blood Gas Laws Boyle's Law Definition - correct answers.The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the volume of a gas at a constant temperature Gas Laws Dalton's Law Definition - correct answers.The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of all the gases in the mixture Gas Laws Charle's Law Definition - correct answers.At a constant pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas Gas Laws Gay-Lussac's Law Definition - correct answers.Directly proportional relationship between temperature and pressure DCS is related to what gas law? - correct answers.Henry's Law

DCS Type 1 S/S, Tx - correct answers.Pain Itching Swelling Recompression on TT Most common type of DCS in diving emergencies - correct answers.Pulmonary barotrauma (from holding breath duing ascent) DCS vs AGE - correct answers.DCS: delayed onset (0-36 hours) with neuro deficits manifesting in the brain and spinal cord. Occurs with "sufficient" dive time. AGE: immediate onset (< 10 minutes - 120 minutes) with neuro deficits manifesting in the brain only. Occurs with any dive. DCS Type 2 S/S, Tx - correct answers.Any neurologic sign Pain in two or more joint Pain the t-shirt or shorts area Hypovolemic Shock Recompression on TT Cutis Marmorata S/S, Tx - correct answers.Mottled Skin Recompression on TT AGE is due to what gas law? - correct answers.Boyle's Law What happens with an AGE - correct answers.Breath holding on ascent, over inflation of alveoli, possible pneumothorax, gas pushes through membrane into pulmonary capillaries, gas bubbles block vessels, lead to ischemia and infarct of tissues AGE S/S, Tx - correct answers.Any neurologic sign with Hx of hyperbaric exposure Recompression on TT Atmospheric calculations Sea level = - correct answers.1 atmosphere Atmospheric calculations

surface atmosphere (sea level) + 99ft of sea water = - correct answers.4 atmospheres absolute (4 ATA) 1 ATA = Sea level (each 33ft. thereafter equal 1 ATA) Atmospheric zones Physiologic Zone - correct answers.Sea level to 10,000 ft MSL Night vision decreased beginning at 5,000 ft MSL Atmospheric zones Physiologically Deficient Zone - correct answers.10,000 ft - 50,000 ft MSL Oxygen required to survive Atmospheric zones Physiologically Deficient Zone Time of Useful Consciousness at 30,000 ft MSL - correct answers.90 Seconds Atmospheric zones Physiologically Deficient Zone Rapid cabin depressurization leads to... - correct answers.Cutting Time of Useful Consciousness in HALF Atmospheric Zones Space Equivalent Zone - correct answers.>50,000 ft MSL Types of hypoxia Hypemic - correct answers.Reduction in O2 carrying ability Anemia, hemorrhage Types of hypoxia Histotoxic - correct answers.Poisoning of the cytochrome oxidase system Cyanide, CO, alcohol Types of hypoxia Hypoxic - correct answers.Not enough oxygen in the air altitude, deficiency in alveolar O2 exchange, pneumothorax Types of hypoxia Stagnant - correct answers.Reduced total cardiac output High G forces, cardiogenic shock Stages of hypoxia - correct answers.Indifferent - some loss of night vision Compensatory - ⇧HR, vent, slowed judgement Disturbance - drunk

Critical - death Stressors of flight Self imposed - correct answers.Dehydration Exhaustion Alcohol Tobacco Hypoglycemia Stressors of flight Inherent - correct answers.Thermal Changes ⇩ Humidity Gravitational forces Fatigue ⇩ Partial pressure of O Barometric pressure change Noise Vibration G Forces - Gx Direction of Force Toleration Example - correct answers.Anterior/Posterior Best tolerated Accelerating/decelerating in your car G Forces - Gz Direction Toleration Example - correct answers.Vertical Falling from a roof and landing on your feet G Forces - Gy Direction Toleration Example - correct answers.Lateral Least tolerated Being T-Boned in a car wreck Altitude Effects Every 1,000 ft increase causes temp to drop... - correct answers.2° Celcius Altitude Effects Barondontalgia - correct answers.Occurs on ascent Air trapped in filling expands (Boyle's Law)

Altitude Effects Barotitis - correct answers.Occurs on descent Air trapped in middle ear unable equalize due to blocked Eustachian Tube Altitude Effects Barosinusitis - correct answers.Occurs both ascent and descent Air blocked in sinuses unable to equalize CAMTS stands for... - correct answers.Commission for the Accreditation of Medical Transport Systems CAMTS Air Transport Team Members - correct answers.Flight nurse Flight Paramedic Respiratory Therapist Flight Physician CAMTS Air Medical Resources Management - correct answers.Distributes workload The operational practice of involving ALL members of the flight team in the mission planning, decision making, and mission safety Crew Resource Management in the military CAMTS Critical phases of flight - correct answers.Take off Landing (short final) Refueling Taxi (ground or air) CAMTS Distance you must be able to pull your flight suit away from your body - correct answers.1/4" CAMTS Safe operation of the air craft comes before... - correct answers.Patient care CAMTS Long range flights are anything over... - correct answers.3 hours CAMTS The only time you do not need to wear a seatbelt is... - correct answers.Straight and level flights (or when PIC (pilot in charge) directs you) CAMTS Rotary wing PIC qualifications - correct answers.2,000 hours total flight time 1,200 hours in rotary wing A/C

1,000 hours as PIC 100 hour as PIC at night Must be instrument rated Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) cert strongly encouraged Area Orientation - 5 hours total with 2 at night before solo mission CAMTS Fixed wing PIC qualifications - correct answers.2,000 hours total flight time 1,000 hours as PIC 100 hours as PIC at night Must possess Airline Transport Pilot cert Must be instrument rated CAMTS Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91 - correct answers.Applies to everyone No duty day No weather minimums CAMTS Federal Aviation Regulation Part 135 - correct answers.Applies to flying passengers for money Max duty day 14 hours 8 hours total flying time 8 hours "bottle to throttle" CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Local Day - correct answers.800' ceiling 2 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Local Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answers.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Cross Country Day - correct answers.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Cross Country

Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answers.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Local Day - correct answers.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Local Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answers.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Cross Country Day - correct answers.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Cross Country Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answers.1000' ceiling 5 mile visibility CAMTS If bad weather is encountered in flight... - correct answers.divert to the nearest facility CAMTS #1 cause of crash... - correct answers.Bad weather CAMTS #2 cause of crash... - correct answers.Night flight Diagnostic Signs S3 - correct answers.Indicates CHF (Congestive Heart Failure). S3 is normal in children and young adults. "Kentucky" Diagnostic Signs S4 - correct answers.Myocardial Infarction. S4 is heard immediately before S1. "Tennessee" Diagnostic Signs Turtles Sign - correct answers.Shoulder dystocia

When the fetus crowns and then goes back in Diagnostic Signs McRobert's Maneuver - correct answers.Shoulder dystocia Hyperflex the mother's legs to abdomen Diagnostic Signs Mauriceau's Maneuver - correct answers.Breech delivery A method of delivering the head in an assisted breech delivery in which the infant's body is supported by the right forearm while traction is made upon the shoulders by the left hand. Diagnostic Signs Steeple Sign - correct answers.Croup The radiologic image of subglottic narrowing from edema, suggestive of a steeple "The crow lives in the steeple" tx racemic epi and decadron Diagnostic Signs Waddell's Triad - correct answers.When a child is hit by a car there are 3 phases 1.the impact of the bumper, 2.followed by the impact of the windshield/hood 3.and finally, the impact on the ground Waddell's Triad involves: Femur fracture Head injury Intra-abdominal or intra-thoracic injury Diagnostic Signs Cushing's Triad - correct answers.ICP Irregular breathing Hypertension with widening pulse pressures Bradycardia Diagnostic Signs Babinski's Sign - correct answers.Spinal cord injury The big toes goes up and the toes fan out when the sole of the foot is firmly stroked Diagnostic Signs Brudzinski's Sign - correct answers.Meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage

Severe neck stiffness causes a patient's hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed. Diagnostic Signs Kernig's Sign - correct answers.Meningitis Severe stiffness of the hamstrings causes an inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees. Diagnostic Signs Grey-Turner's Sign - correct answers.Pancreatitis Bruising of the flanks Diagnostic Signs Cullen's Sign - correct answers.Pancreatitis Periumbilical swelling and bruising Diagnostic Signs Chvostek's Sign - correct answers.Hypocalcemia Tapping on the face at a point just anterior to the ear and just below the zygomatic bone leading to twitching of the ipsilateral facial muscles Diagnostic Signs Trousseau's Sign - correct answers.Hypocalcemia Inflating a sphygmomanometer cuff above systolic blood pressure for several minutes causing muscular contraction including flexion of the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, hyperextension of the fingers, and flexion of the thumb on the palm Diagnostic Signs Virchow's Sign - correct answers.DVT Hypercoagulability Hemodynamic changes (stasis, turbulence) Endothelial injury/dysfunction Diagnostic Signs Kehr's Sign - correct answers.Splenic injury Referred pain to the left shoulder Diagnostic Signs Ballance's Sign - correct answers.Coagulated blood in the abdomen

A dull percussion resonance sound heard on the right flank of a patient lying in the left decubitus position, an indication of a ruptured spleen. The sound is caused by an accumulation of liquid blood on the right side and coagulated blood on the left. Diagnostic Signs Coopernail's Sign - correct answers.Pelvic fracture Bruising of the skin of the perineum, scrotum, or labia. Diagnostic Signs Kussmaul's Sign - correct answers.Chest trauma, RVI, or cardiac tamponade Rise in venous pressure on inspiration. Diagnostic Signs Beck's Triad - correct answers.Cardiac Tamponade Hypotension (narrowed pulse pressure) Distended neck veins Muffled heart tones Diagnostic Signs Hamman's Crunch - correct answers.Mediastinal Emphysema Crunching, raspy sound that is synchronous with the heart beat Diagnostic Signs Murphy's Sign - correct answers.Cholecystitis Pain on taking a deep breath when the examiner's fingers are on the approximate location of the gallbladder. Diagnostic Signs McBurney's Sign - correct answers.Appendicitis Palpation of the McBurney's point, midway between the umbilicus and the anterior iliac crest in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen CAMTS Visual Flight Rules (VFR) means... - correct answers.You can only fly in weather conditions that you can where you are flying CAMTS Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) means... - correct answers.The weather conditions do not allow for safe flight by sight alone and the pilot must be able to use their instruments.

CAMTS

Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IIMC) means... - correct answers.The pilot started flying in VFR and the weather changed unexpectedly requiring the pilot to fly by instrument. CAMTS Hasty or Unsecured helicopter landing zones - correct answers.Must have coms with the ground generally 100' x 100' 1 approach and departure heading 2 passes required prior to landing During hours of limited visibility have 2 vehicles cross their headlights to mark HLZ CAMTS Permanent helicopter landing zones - correct answers.2 approach and departure headings Perimeter lighting Landing beacon Windsock CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land immediately - correct answers.Engine failure Fire CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land ASAP - correct answers.Low transmission pressure Chip light CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land as soon as practical - correct answers.go to the closest convenient place to "check this thing out" CAMTS Crash Procedures Pre-crash sequence - correct answers.Lay the patient flat Turn off the oxygen Assume crash position CAMTS Crash Procedures Crash position - correct answers.Seat belt secured Sit straight up

Chin strap tight/visor down Knees together, feet 6" apart, flat on floor, not under seat Arms crossed on chest Chin to chest CAMTS Crash Procedures Post-crash sequence - correct answers.Turn off throttle, fuel, battery Exit aircraft Assemble at the 12 o'clock Build a shelter, fire, water, signal CAMTS Emergency Locator Transmitter - correct answers.Self activated at 4Gs Transmit freq 121.5 MHz Upgraded transmit freq 406 MHz Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act - correct answers.You must act if someone requires emergency care to sustain life or is in active labor "150 yard" rule Sending physician is responsible until they arrive at the next facility Proof of Negligence to Standard of Care - correct answers.Presence of Duty Breach of Duty Foreseeability Causation Injury Damages Duty to Report - correct answers.Child abuse Elder abuse Violent crime Intubation indications - correct answers.Unable to swallow Patient can not ventilate GCS< Inhalation burns Anaphylaxis Apnea Obstruction Respiratory failure LEMON stands for... - correct answers.Look Evaluate 3- 3 - 2 Mallampati (I-IV) Obstructions

Neck mobility Mallampati I - correct answers.Soft palate, uvula, anterior/posterior tonsillar pillars visible Mallampati II - correct answers.Tonsillar pillars hidden by tongue Mallampati III - correct answers.Only the base of the uvula can be seen Mallampati IV - correct answers.Uvula can not be seen Macintosh blade interacts with... - correct answers.Lifts the vallecula Miller blade interacts with... - correct answers.Lifts the epiglottis Sellick's Maneuver is... - correct answers.Direct downward pressure on the thyroid cartilage BURP Maneuver is... - correct answers.Backward Upward Rightward Pressure Failed airway algorithm - correct answers.Patient requires a secured airway 3 attempts of direct laryngoscopy unsuccessful Ventilate the patient by BVM Unable to ventilate/oxygenate SaO2>90% Cricothyroidotomy indicated Chest X-ray for placement of ETT should place the tip at... - correct answers.2-3 cm above the carina T2 T3 vertebrae The distal cuff of an ETT should be inflated to _________ to _____________ - correct answers.20-30 mmHg, prevent mucosal tissue damage 7 Ps of intubation - correct answers.Preparation Preoxygenate Pretreatment Paralysis with induction Protect and position Placement with proof Post intubation management LOAD (RSI Pretreatment) - correct answers.LIDOCAINE (Head or lung injury. Blunts the cough reflex preventing ICP increase)

OPIATES

ATROPINE for infants (<1 y/o) DEFASICULATING DOSE (1/10 dose of Roc or Vec) NMB Succinylcholine - correct answers.Depolarizing Neuromuscular Blocking Agent Causes fasiculations Requires refrigeration NMB Succinylcholine Dose Onset Duration - correct answers.1-2 mg/kg 1 - 2 min onset 4 - 6 min duration NMB Succinylcholine Contraindications - correct answers.Crush injuries Eye injuries Narrow angle glaucoma History of malignant hyperthermia Burns > 24 hrs Hyperkalemia Any nervous system disorder Malignant hyperthermia S/S Tx - correct answers.Masseter spasm/trismus Sustained tetanic muscle contractions Rapid increase in temp Increased ETCO Tachycardia Mixed acidosis Dantrolene Sodium (Dantrium) 3.0 mg/kg Do not give calcium channel blockers NMB Vecuronium (Norcuron) - correct answers.Non-depolarizing NMB Does not cause fasiculations Does not need to be refrigerated NMB

Vecuronium Dose Onset Duration - correct answers.0.04-0.06 mg/kg IVP following Succ. 0.01-0.015 mg/kg maintenance 4 - 6 mins 30 - 45 mins NMB Rocuronium (Zemeron) - correct answers.Non-depolarizing NMB Does not cause fasiculations Requires refrigeration NMB Rocuronium Dose Onset Duration - correct answers.0.1-0.2 mg/kg IV maintenance q20-30 mins 4 - 6 mins 30 - 45 mins Induction agent Etomidate (Amidate) Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.0.3 mg/kg 30 - 60 seconds 3 - 12 mins No analgesia Don't use in septic shock or Addison's disease Induction agent Midazolam (Versed) Does Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.2.5-5 mg IV 60 - 90 seconds 15 - 30 mins Flumazinel for reversal Induction agent Propofol (Diprovan)

Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.1.5 mg/kg 15 - 45 seconds 5 - 10 mins Use lowest possible dose ⇩ cerebral perfusion pressure and mean arterial pressure Do not use in pts with head injuries or shock Analgesic Ketamine (Ketalar) Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.1 mg/kg IV 1.5 mg/kg IM 45 - 60 seconds 11 - 1 7 mins Increases secretions Bronchodilator Hallucinations Can be given IO Good for use in "shocky" and trauma patients. Analgesic Morphine Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.2 mg IV/IM/IO for mild pain 5 mg IV/IM/IO for moderate pain Onset within mins Last 2-3 hours Respiratory depression Requires antiemetic Naloxone for reversal Analgesic Fentanyl Dose Onset Duration

Notes - correct answers.50-100 mcg IV 1 - 2 mins 45 - 60 mins Avoid ⇧ ICP Chest wall rigidity Requires antiemetic Naloxone for reversal Vt Tidal Volume is... - correct answers.The amount of air the patient breathes in a normal breath IRV Inspiratory Reserve Volume is... - correct answers.The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled in addition to normal tidal volume ERV Expiratory Reserve Volume is... - correct answers.The amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in addition to normal tidal volume VC Vital Capacity - correct answers.IRV + Vt + ERV = VC RV Residual Volume - correct answers.The amount of air left in the respiratory tract following forceful exhalation TLC Total Lung Capacity - correct answers.IRV + Vt + ERV + RV = TLC Respiratory dead space - correct answers.The surfaces of the airway that are not involved in gas exchange Central chemoreceptors are located in the________ and are driven by ________ - correct answers.Medulla/Pons, CO2 and H+ levels Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the _______ and are driven by ________ - correct answers.Aortic arch/carotid bodies, O2, CO2, H+ Hypercarbic respiratory failure is... Evidenced by... Treated by... - correct answers.Inability to remove CO2 Respiratory acidosis ⇧ Vt, then rate

Hypoxic respiratory failure is... Evidenced by... Treated by... - correct answers.Inability to diffuse O2 Low PaO2 ⇧ Vt and O2 concentration, then rate Apneustic respirations are... - correct answers.An abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by deep, gasping inspiration with a pause at full inspiration followed by a brief, insufficient release. Decerebrate posturing Ataxic respirations are... - correct answers.An abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by complete irregularity of breathing, with irregular pauses and increasing periods of apnea Caused by damage to the medulla secondary to trauma Biots respiration are... - correct answers.An abnormal patter of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea Opioids, TBI, stroke Cheyne-Stokes respirations... - correct answers.Are a progressively deeper sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary apnea. Respirations will "crescendo" rapidly then decrease away. Decorticate posturing, Cushing △, herniation Kussmaul's respirations... - correct answers.Gradually become deep, labored, and gasping Associated with DKA Gold standard for oxygenation - correct answers.SpO2 Gold standard for ventilation - correct answers.ETCO2 Ventilator acquired pneumonia is... - correct answers.The number one cause of iatrogenic death in the U.S. Curare cleft are... - correct answers.Tick marks seen on capnography, the patient is choking, check ETT Pt needs to be resedated and reparalyzed

Ventilator settings Vt (tidal volume) - correct answers.7-8 cc/kg Ventilator settings F (rate) - correct answers.8-20/min Ventilator settings Ve (minute volume) - correct answers.F x Vt (4-8 L/min) Ventilator settings I:E (inspiratory:expiratory ratio) - correct answers.1:2 Ventilator settings FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) - correct answers.0.21 to 1.0 (21% - 100%) Ventilator settings Pplat (plateau pressure) - correct answers.<30 Ventilator settings PEEP (positive end expiratory pressure) - correct answers.5 Ventilator settings PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate) - correct answers.500 to 700 L/min males, 380 to 500 L/min females Ventilator modes Controlled mandatory ventilation (CMV) - correct answers.Sedated, apneic, or paralyzed patients Patient has no ability to initiate breaths Like "sucking on an empty bottle" Ventilator modes Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) - correct answers.Senses patient is taking breath and assists Back up rate setting possible Preferred for patients with respiratory drive Like CPAP or BPAP Ventilator modes Assist-control ventilation (AC) - correct answers.Patient can initiate Machine can initiate Full tidal volume regardless of effort Used with ARDS Can hyperventilate Ventilator modes

Pressure support ventilation (PSV) - correct answers.With support from the ventilator, the patient regulates their own respiratory rate and tidal volume. Supports the patient to overcome the ventilator circuit space. Ventilator modes Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) - correct answers.Uses mild air pressure to keep airway open Ventilator modes Bilevel continuous positive airway pressure - correct answers.Used in pneumonia, COPD, and asthma Pressure alarms Low pressure - correct answers.Disconnected from machine Chest tube leaks Circuit leaks Airway leaks Hypovolemia Pressure alarms High pressure - correct answers.Kinked line Coughing Secretions in airway Biting tube Reduced lung compliance (pneumo, ARDS) ⇧ airway resistance Pressure alarms "DOPE" - correct answers.Dislodged tube (low) Obstruction (high) Pneumothorax (high) Equipment (machine failure) Preoxygenation requirement - correct answers.Give 10L/min nia NRB for 15 mins prior to takeoff Personal protective measures Meningitis - correct answers.Gloves Mask Gown Personal protective measures TB - correct answers.Gloves Mask Gown Respirator

Eye shield Asthma "The problem is..." - correct answers."Breathing out" RCA (right coronary artery) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Inferior heart (II, III, AVf) LCX (left circumflex artery) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Lateral heart (I, AVl, V5, V6) LAD (left anterior descending) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Septal heart (V1, V2) LCX (left circumflex artery) or RCA (right coronary artery) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Posterior heart (V1-V4 with ST depression, progression of tall R waves, or inverted QRS complex) aVR, aVL, aVF - correct answers.Augmented voltage leads, unipolar, part of the 6 limb leads. R= R Arm, L= L Arm, F= Foot WPW ecg wave - correct answers.Delta wave Electrical Alternans ecg characteristics - correct answers.Amplitude of the R wave changes across the ecg. Suspect pericardial effusion or cardiac tampanode. This is due to fluid in the pericardial sac which allows the heart to more or rotate. Posterior MI ecg characteristics - correct answers.R waves increase with ST depression seen in V1-V4. Precordial leads are? - correct answers.V1-V6, chest leads, unipolar leads Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) OD ecg characteristics - correct answers.Prolonged QT with wide QRS (>0.12mm) J point location - correct answers.Connects the S & T waves Osborne ecg wave - correct answers.Indicative of hypothermia. Commonly presents at core body temperature of < 30C. Measurement of peaked/ tented T waves to represent hyperkalemia. - correct answers.>5mm Digitalis toxicity ecg characteristics - correct answers.Look for the "DIG DIP" which presents as ST depression.