Flight Paramedic Certification Exam: Questions and Answers, Exams of Space Flight Mechanics

Download Flight Paramedic Certification Exam: Questions and Answers and more Exams Space Flight Mechanics in PDF only on Docsity! Flight Paramedic Certification Exam questions and answers. LAD (left anterior descending) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Anterior heart (leads V3, V4 ) Agent Aspirin (ASA) - correct answers.Antidote Bicarb Agent Benzodiazepines - correct answers.Antidote Flumazenil (Romazicon) (may cause seizures) Agent Beta Blockers - correct answers.Antidote Glucagon Agent Calcium Channel Blockers - correct answers.Antidote Calcium Gluconate Agent Cocaine - correct answers.Antidote Benzodiazepines *DO NOT give beta-blockers to drug-induced, stimulant-related hypertensive and/ or tachycardic patients! Agent Pit Vipers - correct answers.Antidote CroFab, FabAV Agent Cyanide - correct answers.Antidote Amyl Nitrate (inhaled), Sodium Nitrate (IV), Sodium Thiosulfate (IV) Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride) has the prescense of ...? Tx? - correct answers.Cyanide. Tx with simultaneous administration of Sodium Thiosulfate IV infusion. Agent Digoxin (Digitalis) - correct answers.Antidote Digibind, Digoxin Fab May also use Magnesium, Phenytoin, and Lidocaine until Digibind or Digoxin can be give. *DO NOT use beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers for digitalis toxicity Agent Dilantin - correct answers.Antidote Supportive care Agent Ethylene Glycol (Anti-Freeze) - correct answers.Antidote Fomepizole (Antizol) Agent Ethanol toxicity - correct answers.Antidote Fomepizol (Antizol) Agent Hydrocarbons such as petroleum distillates (eg, gasoline, kerosene, mineral oil, lamp oil, paint thinners) - correct answers.Antidote Airway protection is the #1 priority due to high risk of aspiration. Intubate Agent Isoniazid (INH) - correct answers.Antidote Pyridoxine Agent Iron - correct answers.Antidote Deferoxamine Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value Glucose - correct answers.80-120 mg/dL Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Sodium is... - correct answers.The primary extracellular cation. Helps the body keep fluids in a normal balance and has a key role in nerve and muscle function. Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Potassium is... - correct answers.The primary intracellular cation, responsible for cell excitability, resting membrane potential (MOST DANGEROUS ABNORMALITY) Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Chloride is... - correct answers.An extracellular cation, maintains osmotic pressure, helps stomach produce hydrochloric acid Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Carbon Dioxide is... - correct answers.Important for helping maintain the acid-base balance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Blood Urea Nitrogen... - correct answers.Helps provide a picture of renal clearance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Creatinine... - correct answers.Help provide a picture of renal clearance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Glucose... - correct answers.Shows how much glucose is circulating in the blood Gas Laws Boyle's Law Definition - correct answers.The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the volume of a gas at a constant temperature Gas Laws Dalton's Law Definition - correct answers.The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of all the gases in the mixture Gas Laws Charle's Law Definition - correct answers.At a constant pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas Gas Laws Gay-Lussac's Law Definition - correct answers.Directly proportional relationship between temperature and pressure DCS is related to what gas law? - correct answers.Henry's Law DCS Type 1 S/S, Tx - correct answers.Pain Itching Swelling Recompression on TT5 Most common type of DCS in diving emergencies - correct answers.Pulmonary barotrauma (from holding breath duing ascent) DCS vs AGE - correct answers.DCS: delayed onset (0-36 hours) with neuro deficits manifesting in the brain and spinal cord. Occurs with "sufficient" dive time. AGE: immediate onset (< 10 minutes - 120 minutes) with neuro deficits manifesting in the brain only. Occurs with any dive. DCS Type 2 S/S, Tx - correct answers.Any neurologic sign Pain in two or more joint Pain the t-shirt or shorts area Hypovolemic Shock Recompression on TT6 Cutis Marmorata S/S, Tx - correct answers.Mottled Skin Recompression on TT6 AGE is due to what gas law? - correct answers.Boyle's Law What happens with an AGE - correct answers.Breath holding on ascent, over inflation of alveoli, possible pneumothorax, gas pushes through membrane into pulmonary capillaries, gas bubbles block vessels, lead to ischemia and infarct of tissues AGE S/S, Tx - correct answers.Any neurologic sign with Hx of hyperbaric exposure Recompression on TT6 Atmospheric calculations Sea level = - correct answers.1 atmosphere Atmospheric calculations surface atmosphere (sea level) + 99ft of sea water = - correct answers.4 atmospheres absolute (4 ATA) 1 ATA = Sea level (each 33ft. thereafter equal 1 ATA) Atmospheric zones Physiologic Zone - correct answers.Sea level to 10,000 ft MSL Night vision decreased beginning at 5,000 ft MSL Atmospheric zones Physiologically Deficient Zone - correct answers.10,000 ft - 50,000 ft MSL Oxygen required to survive Atmospheric zones Physiologically Deficient Zone Time of Useful Consciousness at 30,000 ft MSL - correct answers.90 Seconds Atmospheric zones Physiologically Deficient Zone Rapid cabin depressurization leads to... - correct answers.Cutting Time of Useful Consciousness in HALF Atmospheric Zones Space Equivalent Zone - correct answers.>50,000 ft MSL Types of hypoxia Hypemic - correct answers.Reduction in O2 carrying ability Anemia, hemorrhage Types of hypoxia Histotoxic - correct answers.Poisoning of the cytochrome oxidase system Cyanide, CO, alcohol Types of hypoxia Hypoxic - correct answers.Not enough oxygen in the air altitude, deficiency in alveolar O2 exchange, pneumothorax Types of hypoxia Stagnant - correct answers.Reduced total cardiac output High G forces, cardiogenic shock Stages of hypoxia - correct answers.Indifferent - some loss of night vision Compensatory - ⇧HR, vent, slowed judgement Disturbance - drunk 1,000 hours as PIC 100 hour as PIC at night Must be instrument rated Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) cert strongly encouraged Area Orientation - 5 hours total with 2 at night before solo mission CAMTS Fixed wing PIC qualifications - correct answers.2,000 hours total flight time 1,000 hours as PIC 100 hours as PIC at night Must possess Airline Transport Pilot cert Must be instrument rated CAMTS Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91 - correct answers.Applies to everyone No duty day No weather minimums CAMTS Federal Aviation Regulation Part 135 - correct answers.Applies to flying passengers for money Max duty day 14 hours 8 hours total flying time 8 hours "bottle to throttle" CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Local Day - correct answers.800' ceiling 2 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Local Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answers.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Cross Country Day - correct answers.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Cross Country Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answers.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Local Day - correct answers.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Local Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answers.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Cross Country Day - correct answers.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Cross Country Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answers.1000' ceiling 5 mile visibility CAMTS If bad weather is encountered in flight... - correct answers.divert to the nearest facility CAMTS #1 cause of crash... - correct answers.Bad weather CAMTS #2 cause of crash... - correct answers.Night flight Diagnostic Signs S3 - correct answers.Indicates CHF (Congestive Heart Failure). S3 is normal in children and young adults. "Kentucky" Diagnostic Signs S4 - correct answers.Myocardial Infarction. S4 is heard immediately before S1. "Tennessee" Diagnostic Signs Turtles Sign - correct answers.Shoulder dystocia When the fetus crowns and then goes back in Diagnostic Signs McRobert's Maneuver - correct answers.Shoulder dystocia Hyperflex the mother's legs to abdomen Diagnostic Signs Mauriceau's Maneuver - correct answers.Breech delivery A method of delivering the head in an assisted breech delivery in which the infant's body is supported by the right forearm while traction is made upon the shoulders by the left hand. Diagnostic Signs Steeple Sign - correct answers.Croup The radiologic image of subglottic narrowing from edema, suggestive of a steeple "The crow lives in the steeple" tx racemic epi and decadron Diagnostic Signs Waddell's Triad - correct answers.When a child is hit by a car there are 3 phases 1.the impact of the bumper, 2.followed by the impact of the windshield/hood 3.and finally, the impact on the ground Waddell's Triad involves: Femur fracture Head injury Intra-abdominal or intra-thoracic injury Diagnostic Signs Cushing's Triad - correct answers.ICP Irregular breathing Hypertension with widening pulse pressures Bradycardia Diagnostic Signs Babinski's Sign - correct answers.Spinal cord injury The big toes goes up and the toes fan out when the sole of the foot is firmly stroked Diagnostic Signs Brudzinski's Sign - correct answers.Meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage CAMTS Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IIMC) means... - correct answers.The pilot started flying in VFR and the weather changed unexpectedly requiring the pilot to fly by instrument. CAMTS Hasty or Unsecured helicopter landing zones - correct answers.Must have coms with the ground generally 100' x 100' 1 approach and departure heading 2 passes required prior to landing During hours of limited visibility have 2 vehicles cross their headlights to mark HLZ CAMTS Permanent helicopter landing zones - correct answers.2 approach and departure headings Perimeter lighting Landing beacon Windsock CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land immediately - correct answers.Engine failure Fire CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land ASAP - correct answers.Low transmission pressure Chip light CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land as soon as practical - correct answers.go to the closest convenient place to "check this thing out" CAMTS Crash Procedures Pre-crash sequence - correct answers.Lay the patient flat Turn off the oxygen Assume crash position CAMTS Crash Procedures Crash position - correct answers.Seat belt secured Sit straight up Chin strap tight/visor down Knees together, feet 6" apart, flat on floor, not under seat Arms crossed on chest Chin to chest CAMTS Crash Procedures Post-crash sequence - correct answers.Turn off throttle, fuel, battery Exit aircraft Assemble at the 12 o'clock Build a shelter, fire, water, signal CAMTS Emergency Locator Transmitter - correct answers.Self activated at 4Gs Transmit freq 121.5 MHz Upgraded transmit freq 406 MHz Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act - correct answers.You must act if someone requires emergency care to sustain life or is in active labor "150 yard" rule Sending physician is responsible until they arrive at the next facility Proof of Negligence to Standard of Care - correct answers.Presence of Duty Breach of Duty Foreseeability Causation Injury Damages Duty to Report - correct answers.Child abuse Elder abuse Violent crime Intubation indications - correct answers.Unable to swallow Patient can not ventilate GCS<8 Inhalation burns Anaphylaxis Apnea Obstruction Respiratory failure LEMON stands for... - correct answers.Look Evaluate 3-3-2 Mallampati (I-IV) Obstructions Neck mobility Mallampati I - correct answers.Soft palate, uvula, anterior/posterior tonsillar pillars visible Mallampati II - correct answers.Tonsillar pillars hidden by tongue Mallampati III - correct answers.Only the base of the uvula can be seen Mallampati IV - correct answers.Uvula can not be seen Macintosh blade interacts with... - correct answers.Lifts the vallecula Miller blade interacts with... - correct answers.Lifts the epiglottis Sellick's Maneuver is... - correct answers.Direct downward pressure on the thyroid cartilage BURP Maneuver is... - correct answers.Backward Upward Rightward Pressure Failed airway algorithm - correct answers.Patient requires a secured airway 3 attempts of direct laryngoscopy unsuccessful Ventilate the patient by BVM Unable to ventilate/oxygenate SaO2>90% Cricothyroidotomy indicated Chest X-ray for placement of ETT should place the tip at... - correct answers.2-3 cm above the carina T2 T3 vertebrae The distal cuff of an ETT should be inflated to _________ to _____________ - correct answers.20-30 mmHg, prevent mucosal tissue damage 7 Ps of intubation - correct answers.Preparation Preoxygenate Pretreatment Paralysis with induction Protect and position Placement with proof Post intubation management LOAD (RSI Pretreatment) - correct answers.LIDOCAINE (Head or lung injury. Blunts the cough reflex preventing ICP increase) Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.1.5 mg/kg 15-45 seconds 5-10 mins Use lowest possible dose ⇩ cerebral perfusion pressure and mean arterial pressure Do not use in pts with head injuries or shock Analgesic Ketamine (Ketalar) Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.1 mg/kg IV 1.5 mg/kg IM 45-60 seconds 11-17 mins Increases secretions Bronchodilator Hallucinations Can be given IO Good for use in "shocky" and trauma patients. Analgesic Morphine Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.2 mg IV/IM/IO for mild pain 5 mg IV/IM/IO for moderate pain Onset within mins Last 2-3 hours Respiratory depression Requires antiemetic Naloxone for reversal Analgesic Fentanyl Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answers.50-100 mcg IV 1-2 mins 45-60 mins Avoid ⇧ ICP Chest wall rigidity Requires antiemetic Naloxone for reversal Vt Tidal Volume is... - correct answers.The amount of air the patient breathes in a normal breath IRV Inspiratory Reserve Volume is... - correct answers.The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled in addition to normal tidal volume ERV Expiratory Reserve Volume is... - correct answers.The amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in addition to normal tidal volume VC Vital Capacity - correct answers.IRV + Vt + ERV = VC RV Residual Volume - correct answers.The amount of air left in the respiratory tract following forceful exhalation TLC Total Lung Capacity - correct answers.IRV + Vt + ERV + RV = TLC Respiratory dead space - correct answers.The surfaces of the airway that are not involved in gas exchange Central chemoreceptors are located in the________ and are driven by ________ - correct answers.Medulla/Pons, CO2 and H+ levels Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the _______ and are driven by ________ - correct answers.Aortic arch/carotid bodies, O2, CO2, H+ Hypercarbic respiratory failure is... Evidenced by... Treated by... - correct answers.Inability to remove CO2 Respiratory acidosis ⇧ Vt, then rate Hypoxic respiratory failure is... Evidenced by... Treated by... - correct answers.Inability to diffuse O2 Low PaO2 ⇧ Vt and O2 concentration, then rate Apneustic respirations are... - correct answers.An abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by deep, gasping inspiration with a pause at full inspiration followed by a brief, insufficient release. Decerebrate posturing Ataxic respirations are... - correct answers.An abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by complete irregularity of breathing, with irregular pauses and increasing periods of apnea Caused by damage to the medulla secondary to trauma Biots respiration are... - correct answers.An abnormal patter of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea Opioids, TBI, stroke Cheyne-Stokes respirations... - correct answers.Are a progressively deeper sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary apnea. Respirations will "crescendo" rapidly then decrease away. Decorticate posturing, Cushing △, herniation Kussmaul's respirations... - correct answers.Gradually become deep, labored, and gasping Associated with DKA Gold standard for oxygenation - correct answers.SpO2 Gold standard for ventilation - correct answers.ETCO2 Ventilator acquired pneumonia is... - correct answers.The number one cause of iatrogenic death in the U.S. Curare cleft are... - correct answers.Tick marks seen on capnography, the patient is choking, check ETT Pt needs to be resedated and reparalyzed Eye shield Asthma "The problem is..." - correct answers."Breathing out" RCA (right coronary artery) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Inferior heart (II, III, AVf) LCX (left circumflex artery) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Lateral heart (I, AVl, V5, V6) LAD (left anterior descending) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Septal heart (V1, V2) LCX (left circumflex artery) or RCA (right coronary artery) - correct answers.Coronary artery corresponding to the Posterior heart (V1-V4 with ST depression, progression of tall R waves, or inverted QRS complex) aVR, aVL, aVF - correct answers.Augmented voltage leads, unipolar, part of the 6 limb leads. R= R Arm, L= L Arm, F= Foot WPW ecg wave - correct answers.Delta wave Electrical Alternans ecg characteristics - correct answers.Amplitude of the R wave changes across the ecg. Suspect pericardial effusion or cardiac tampanode. This is due to fluid in the pericardial sac which allows the heart to more or rotate. Posterior MI ecg characteristics - correct answers.R waves increase with ST depression seen in V1-V4. Precordial leads are? - correct answers.V1-V6, chest leads, unipolar leads Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) OD ecg characteristics - correct answers.Prolonged QT with wide QRS (>0.12mm) J point location - correct answers.Connects the S & T waves Osborne ecg wave - correct answers.Indicative of hypothermia. Commonly presents at core body temperature of < 30C. Measurement of peaked/ tented T waves to represent hyperkalemia. - correct answers.>5mm Digitalis toxicity ecg characteristics - correct answers.Look for the "DIG DIP" which presents as ST depression. Right sided MI ecg characteristics - correct answers.Presence of ST elevation in the right-sided V4 lead. How to take Right sided ECG: Switch V1 with V2 and switch leads V3-V6 to right side of chest. Acute myocardial infarction ecg characteristics - correct answers.Q wave with ST elevation. Infarction ecg characteristics - correct answers.STE with a deep Q wave >25% of the R wave. Deep Q waves means deep shit! Coronary perfusion occurs mainly during and is majorly affected by? - correct answers.MAP, diastolic pressure, and time. i.e. Tachycardia means less time to perfuse the coronary arteries because of the decreased diastole time of the heart. IABP initiation ratio - correct answers.2:1 for synchronization against the ECG rhythm. CBC Panel Value RBCs - correct answers.4.5-5.5 million CBC Panel Value Hemoglobin (Hgb) - correct answers.15 g/dl CBC Panel Value Hematocrit (Hct) - correct answers.45% CBC Panel Value WBCs - correct answers.4,500-10,000 g/dl CBC Panel Value Platelets (Plt) - correct answers.150-450 K/mcl Value and role Total Protein (TP) - correct answers.6-8 g/dL Consists mostly of albumin and immunoglobulins. Value and role Albumin - correct answers.3.5-5 g/dL Main source of oncotic pressure. Role of amylase - correct answers.Break down starch (carbohydrates) into simple sugars. (amyl- = starch, -ase = enzyme) Role of lactate - correct answers.Lactate concentration in a blood measurement will indicate anaerobic metabolism. Elevated levels are most commonly caused by decreased blood flow to cells either systemically or locally. Role of lipase - correct answers.Breaks down fats. Deep Compression Sickness transport preferences - correct answers.1. Ground transport 2. FW with cabin pressurization 3. RW at <1,000 ft. arterial gas embolism (AGE) transport preferences - correct answers.1. Ground transport 2. FW with cabin pressurization 3. RW at <1,000 ft. Signs of loss of cabin pressurization - correct answers.Cooler temperature and windows fogging People most affected by high G forces... - correct answers.BP drop. Especially people on BP meds or who are dehydrated. The 3 respiratory failure ABG indications. - correct answers.pH <7.2, CO2 >55, PaO2 <60 (= <90% SpO2) *Only one value needs to be off to indicate the need to intubate Gold standard of ETT placement confirmation. - correct answers.Chest x-ray. Second most reliable confirmation technique is visualizing the tube going through the vocal cords. Sedatives Analgesics - correct answers.Sedatives: Etomidate, Propofol, Versed Analgesics: Ketamine, Morphine, Fentanyl Hemodynamic monitoring Central Venous Pressure (CVP)/ Right Atrial (RA) pressures - correct answers.2-6 mmHg Hemodynamic monitoring Right Ventricular Pressure (RVP) pressures - correct answers.SBP 15-25mmHg DBP 0-5mmHg Hemodynamic monitoring Pulmonary Artery Pressure (PAP) pressures - correct answers.Pulmonary Artery Systole 15-25mmHg Pulmonary Artery Diastole 8-12mmHg cardiac output, diminished systemic blood pressure and, if not corrected, possible dysrhythmias, shock and death. ETT drugs - correct answers.NAVEL Narcan, Atropine, Vasopressin, Epinephrine, Lidocaine MODS (multiple organ dysfunction syndrome) - correct answers.failure of 2 or more organ systems Levine's sign - correct answers.the global position of heart attack; a fist clenched over the chest Coronary perfusion pressure - correct answers.DBP - PWCP = CPP (coronary perfusion pressure) Normal: 50-60 mmHg Antidote Coumadin (Warfarin) overdose - correct answers.Vitamin K, FFP Antidote Heparin overdose - correct answers.Protamine sulfate 1mg IV Normal MAP value - correct answers.80-100 mmHg esophageal varices tx medication - correct answers.Sandostatin (Octreotide); reduces splanchnic and hepatic blood flow, and reduces variceal pressures. Adult urinary output Pediatric urinary output - correct answers.30-50 ml/hr 1-2 ml/ kg/ hr Elevated ammonia levels... - correct answers.indicate/ cause liver failure MAP (mean arterial pressure) formula - correct answers.[(2 x diastolic) + systolic] / 3 Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) equation - correct answers.CPP = MAP - ICP (normal ICP value is 0-10 mmHg, >20 mmHg = high mortality) Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) - correct answers.60-80 mmHg (pg. 199 BBB #14 says 70-90 mmHg Parkland Burn Formula - correct answers.BSA% x 3-4ml x kg i.e. 60% x 3ml x 80kg = 14,400ml 1/2 in 1st 8 hrs = 7,200ml (7,200ml/ 8hr = 900ml/ hr) 1/4 in 2nd 8 hrs = 3,600ml 1/4 in 3rd 8 hrs = 3,600ml Mayday radio channel - correct answers.121.5 mHz newer radio channel is 406 Cardiac output range - correct answers.4-8 L/min *it just so happens that cardiac index is exactly half of this range; 2-4 L/min. preload vs afterload - correct answers.Preload indicates volume/ fluid status. Afterload indicates pressure or systemic vascular resistance. Prinzmetal's Angina (variant angina) - correct answers.Can occur at rest, while sleeping, or after exercise. Aortic Rupture s/s - correct answers.Tearing sensation from midscapular region, chest region, or abdominal region. Upper extremities hypertensive, lower extremities with weaker BP comparable to upper extremities. Systolic mumur. oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve Represents? Left vs. right? - correct answers.Relationship between available oxygen and amount of oxygen carried by hemoglobin. Right shift = RELEASES O2; difficulty picking up O2. = Acidosis Left shift = LATCHES to the O2; difficulty letting go of O2 = ALkalosis (emphasis on the L, left, latches, aLLLLkalosis) Le Fort I - correct answers. Le Fort II - correct answers. Le Fort III - correct answers."Craniofacial dysassociation/ dysjunction" Bicarb calculation - correct answers.0.1 x (BE) x kg = mEq's of Bicarb to deliver 4 D's of high altitude injury tx - correct answers.Descend Decadron Diamox D-cyclinder (O2) Xanthopsia - correct answers.visual disturbance in which objects appear yellow or possibly even green (associated with digitalis toxicity) Hypothermia <30 C - correct answers.Medication and defibrillation will likely be unsuccessful unless the core body temperature is rewarmed to >30 C (86 F). Until then tx focus should be rapid transport, CPR, and rewarming. Active internal rewarming - correct answers.Active interal rewarming delivers heat to the body core, therby avoiding the dangers of afterdrop. Active interal rewarming includes: heated O2, IV fluids, hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, gastric, and cardiopulmonary bypass. Name muscle enzymes - correct answers.Creatinine Kinase (CK), Creatinine Phosphokinase (CPK), myoglobin. Other enzymes include SGOT, SGPT, and LDK. Lab values significant to dehydration - correct answers.Elevated hematocrit, BUN, serum protein, and concentrated urine levels. Electrical injury urine output - correct answers.50-100 ml/ hr Electrical injury with hemochromagen prescense urine output - correct answers.>100 ml/ hr Antihypertensive medications in pregnancy patients - correct answers.Labetalol Hydralazine Methyldopa HELLP syndrome - correct answers.hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets Commonly seen with PreEclampsia and Eclampsia Magnesium toxicity antidote - correct answers.calcium gluconate Neonatal/ Infant temperature change - how does this affect the HR? - correct answers.Each 1 C increase greater than 37 C (98.6 F), increases the HR by 10 bpm Increasing ICP - correct answers.raise the head of the bed (HOB) to 30 degrees Mannitol Hypertonic solutions only! Medication to Keep PDA in Infant Open - correct answers.Prostaglandin E1 "PGE Open" Medication to close PDA - correct answers.Oxygen Indocin (Indomethacin) Atresia - correct answers.absence of a normal body opening; occlusion; closure Tetralogy of Fallot tx - correct answers.surgical correction