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FLORIDA ALF Administrators CORE EXAM Expected Questions and Answers (Verified Answers), Exams of Andragogy

1. What level of background screening must be conducted? When? Ans>> Level II; upon hire, every 5 years, and upon rehire if employee has a break in service of more than 90 days 2. What paperwork should be in employee files regarding background screen- ings? Ans>> eligibility statement, affidavit of compliance, privacy notice 3. Class I Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences related to the operation and main- tenance of a provider or to the care of clients that present an *imminent danger* to the clients or a substantial probability that death or serious physical or emotional harm would result. *A fine will be imposed regardless of correction.*

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 09/14/2024

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Download FLORIDA ALF Administrators CORE EXAM Expected Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) and more Exams Andragogy in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 15 FLORIDA ALF Administrators CORE EXAM Expected Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) 1. What level of background screening must be conducted? When? Ans>> Level II; upon hire, every 5 years, and upon rehire if employee has a break in service of more than 90 days 2. What paperwork should be in employee files regarding background screen- ings? Ans>> eligibility statement, affidavit of compliance, privacy notice 3. Class I Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences related to the operation and main- tenance of a provider or to the care of clients that present an *imminent danger* to the clients or a substantial probability that death or serious physical or emotional harm would result. *A fine will be imposed regardless of correction.* 4. When must a Class I violation be resolved? 2 / 15 Ans>> Within 24 hrs unless a fixed period is required 5. Class II Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences that *directly threaten* the physical or emotional health, safety, or security of clients, other than class I violations. *A fine shall be imposed regardless of correction.* 6. Class III Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences that *potentially threaten* the phys- ical or emotional health, safety, or security of clients. A fine *may* not be imposed if violation is corrected within time specified on the citation. 7. Class IV Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences or required reports, forms, or documents that *do not have the potential of negatively affecting clients; do not threaten the health, safety, or security of clients.* A fine *may* not be imposed if violation is corrected within time specified on the citation. 5 / 15 16. Service plan Ans>> Written plan, developed and agreed upon by resident, that ad- dresses the needs and preferences of a resident receiving extended congregate care services. Includes what services shall be provided, who shall provide them, when they will be rendered, and the purpose of the service. 17. An ALF with one or more mental health resident must obtain what license?- Ans>> Limited Mental Health 18. A mental health resident receives what? Ans>> OSS 19. What physical restraint can be used at a standard licensed ALF if attained all necessary documents? Ans>> Half bed rails 20. What must you have for a resident to use a physical restraint? Ans>> Physician's order, resident's consent, order renewed annually 21. What can CNA's do beyond unlicensed caretakers under a standard li- cense? Ans>> Take vital signs under the direction of a nurse 22. Under what licenses can a CNA do everything they are certified for? Ans>> ECC 6 / 15 & LNS 23. Liability Report Ans>> ALFs must report any new lawsuits filed against them monthly to AHCA 24. What four documents should you always have on file with ACHA? Ans>> Surety bonds, liability insurance, health inspections (within 30 days of inspection), fire inspection (within 30 days of inspection) 25. Under a standard or LMH license, what services can a resident be assisted with by a nurse? Ans>> Oxygen, TED hose, and colonoscopy bag 26. When should a Health Assessment be completed? Ans>> 1) Within 60 days before admission or 30 days after and 2) every 3 years after (annually for residents attaining assistive care services) or whenever the resident experiences a significant change in condition 27. True or false, ALFs must always have liability insurance. Ans>> True 28. What forms should a resident have in an ALF with LMH? Ans>> Community Living Support Plan & cooperative agreement 29. Adverse incident Ans>> An event over which a facility could exercise control over rather than as a result of 7 / 15 the resident's condition 30. What are examples of adverse incidents? Ans>> Death, brain or spinal damage, permanent disfigurement, fracture or dislocation of bones, medical condition that resident has not given their consent for, any condition that requires resident be transferred to unit that provide more acute care, or resident elopement. 31. When must the preliminary report of an adverse incident be filed? What should it include? Ans>> One business day; includes identity of resident, type of incident, and status of investigation 10 / 15 Ans>> At least 30 days 44. A fire evacuation of three minutes or less is considered what? Ans>> Prompt 45. A fire evacuation of more than three minutes but no more than 13 minutes is considered what? Ans>> Slow 46. A fire evacuation of more than 13 minutes is considered what? Ans>> Impractical 47. Any new facilities must be equipped with what for fire safety? Ans>> Fire sprinkler system 11 / 15 48. How often must a facility conduct elopement prevention and response drills? Ans>> Twice a year (for each employee) 49. Comprehensive emergency management plan Ans>> Updated annually, a plan that addresses emergency evacuation transport, sheltering arrangements, disaster activities, supplies, staffing, emergency equipment, etc. 50. Who reviews the emergency management plan? Ans>> The local emergency man- agement agency 51. What must be included in an advertisements before facility obtains li- cense? Ans>> "License pending" 52. What must be included in all advertisements for facility? Ans>> "Assisted Living Facility" and license number 53. Significant change Ans>> A sudden or major shift in behavior or mood inconsistant with the resident's diagnosis or a deterioration in health status such as unplanned weight change, stroke, heart condition, enrollment in hospise, or stage 2, 3, or 4 pressure sore. 54. In what time period must ACHA be informed of a CHOW? Ans>> At least 60 days 55. How long does a copy of a resident's contract need to be kept? 12 / 15 Ans>> 5 years after resident leaves 56. With the exception of residents' contracts, all residents' records much be kept for how long? Ans>> 2 years after resident leaves 57. How long does an ALF have to comply with new rules/regulations adopted by ACHA? Ans>> Six months 58. When a license has been denied, revoked, or set to terminated, in order to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of clients, ACHA may extend the license expiration up to how many days? Ans>> 30 days 59. After an inspection, how long as the facility have to correct a deficiency?- Ans>> 30 days 60. True or false, the agency requires a plan of correction for any deficiencies.- Ans>> False, they may 61. How long does a facility have to file a plan of correction if required by ACHA? Ans>> 10 days, unless alternative time frame is required 15 / 15 Ans>> At least 60 days prior to date of CHOW 71. Upon receipt of application, ACHA will notify applicant of any errors or omissions in what time period? Ans>> Within 30 days 72. How long does the applicant have to file any additional information re- quested by ACHA to complete their application? Ans>> 21 days 73. ACHA has how long to approve or deny a complete application? Ans>> 60 days 74. Isolated deficiency Ans>> A deficiency affecting one or a very limited number of clients or a situation that occurred only occasionally or in a very limited number of locations 75. Patterned deficiency Ans>> A deficiency affecting more than than a very limited number of clients or occurs in several locations or have occurred repetitively but is not found to be pervasive throughout the provider 76. Widespread deficiency Ans>> Deficiency that is pervasive in the provider or repre- sents systemic failure and affects or have a potential to affect a large portion of the clients 16 / 15 77. What is the use of chemical restraints limited to in an ALF? Ans>> Prescribed doses of medication authorized by the resident's physician--must be consistent with resident's diagnosis 78. To use medication considered a chemical restraint, what must you have?- Ans>> Annual evaluation by physician to assess continued need for medication, the level of medication in resident's blood, and need for adjustment of medication. 17 / 15 79. Conditional license Ans>> Issued if AHCA determined an uncorrected violation is present at facility at time of license renewal; a license that is contingent upon agency approval or written plan of correction 80. How long is a conditional license issued for? Ans>> Only for the time period nec- essary to comply with licensing standards and complete license renewal process, not to exceed 6 months 81. When is a conditional license revoked? Ans>> If ACHA determines progress has not been made toward compliance during follow up surveys 82. For an initial application for a license, does a provisional license act as a standard license for purposes of issuing a LMH, ECC, LNS license? Ans>> No 83. For an application for license due to a CHOW, does a provisional license act as a standard license for purposes of issuing a LMH, ECC, LNS license? Ans>> Yes 84. True or false, AHCA notice of license denial following a renewal license shall be posted and visible to the public at the facility. Ans>> True 20 / 15 95. If a resident requires these nursing services, they are disqualified from admission. Ans>> Oral, nasopharyngeal, or tracheotomy suctioning; tube feeding; moni- toring of blood gases; intermittent positive pressure breathing therapy; and treatment of surgical incisions or wounds, unless the condition that causes it has been stabilized and plan of care developed 96. Can a resident require 24 hour nursing supervision upon admission? Ans>> No 97. Can a resident be admitted if they require skilled rehabilitative services?- Ans>> No 98. Who is responsible in determining the appropriateness of a resident for admission? Ans>> The administrator or owner 99. What must an administrator base their decisions of a resident's appropri- ateness of admission on? Ans>> An assessment of strengths, needs, and preferences of the individual and from the medical exam; the facility's admission policy and services provided; and the ability of the facility to meet the fire safety standards 100. What information must a facility make available to potential residents in their 21 / 15 facility statement? Ans>> Essentially, the admission and continued residency criteria, any offered activities or services, any fees attached to any services usually provided and then any fees for services that can be provided at additional cost, policy on DNRO's, policy on therapeutic diets, elopement response polices and procedures, ECC requirements if applicable (Full list Ans>> 1) facility's admission and continued residency criteria, 2) daily, weekly, or monthly charge for rent & services, 3) personal care services provided , 4) nursing services that facility can provide, 5) food services & ability for facility to accommodate spe- cialty diets, 6) availability of transport, 7) any special services 8) activities generally offered, 9) any services that is not usually provided but can be at additional cost, 10) facility rules and regs that must be followed, 11) policy concerning DNROs, 12) criteria for admission into ECC and care offered, 13) elopement response policies and procedures) 101. What must be provided before or at time of admission by facility? Ans>> Copy of the resident's contract, copy of the facility statement, copy of resident's bill of rights, ombudsman program brochure that includes phone # and address of district office 22 / 15 102. How long can a resident be bedridden? Ans>> 7 days for most licenses, 14 for ECC 103. What conditions must be met for a terminally ill resident who no longer meets continued residency criteria to stay at the facility? Ans>> Admission to hospice, the continued residency is agreeable by both resident and facility, and an interdis- 25 / 15 elopement, the facility has how long to ensure the resident's file contains a photo of the resident? Ans>> 10 days 118. How long can a facility keep abandoned/expired medication? Ans>> 30 days 119. When a resident leaves, what must the facility do with their medication?- Ans>> Give resident their medication. If resident leaves their meds, must store them for 15 days before meds are considered abandoned. 26 / 15 120. If medication is centrally stored and a medication must be refrigerated, where must that med be? Ans>> In a locked fridge, in a locked container in a fridge, or a fridge in a locked area 121. How long after a nurse gets a medication order by phone does the facility need a signed order by the doctor? Ans>> 10 days 122. How much usable floor space must be in a private room? Ans>> 80 square feet 123. How much usable floor space must be in a double occupancy room? Ans>> 120 square feet 124. OSS Ans>> Optional state supplementation 125. Total help residents can only be admitted to facilities with what license?- Ans>> ECC 126. Which residents can use pill organizers Ans>> Residents who self-administer medication 127. Can a nurse or unlicensed staff open the pill organizer? Ans>> No, resident must open the organizer themselves 27 / 15 128. Who can fill a pill organizer? Ans>> A nurse or friend or family who is not being compensated or the resident 129. How can nurses help maintain a pill organizer? Ans>> Obtain the labeled meds, fill it, sign off that the organizer was filled 130. Menu substitutions must be kept for how long? Ans>> 6 months 131. When should a facility have a surety bond? Ans>> When facility is a representative payee or power of attorney 132. What are the minimum staffing hours per week for a facility with four residents? Ans>> 168 133. For every 20 residents over 95, how many staff hours should be added per week? Ans>> 42 134. How long does staff have to show they are free of communicable dis- eases? Ans>> Within 30 days of hire 135. How often does a negative tuberculosis have to be documented/complet- ed? Ans>> Annually 136. Is an employee is suspected of having or has TB, what must the facility do? Ans>> Immediately remove employee from duty until written statement clearing of TB is 10 / 15 147. Administrators who supervise more than one facilities must appoint what? Ans>> A separate manager for each facility 148. When can an administrator not have to appoint a manager for a single facility when the administrator supervises multiple facilities? Ans>> For up to 3 facilities, when the facilities have 16 or fewer beds and are within a 15 mile radius 149. How long does a facility owner have to notify ACHA of a change in administration? Ans>> 10 days 150. During a CHOW, facility has how many days to notify residents in writ- ing? Ans>> 7 days 151. ACHA can deny or revoke a license if the ALF has two or more class I violations that are similar or identical within the past 2 years Ans>> True 152. An facility with 17 or more beds must have a functioning what? Ans>> Automat- ed External Defrillator 153. How many staff hours a week must be completed for a facility licensed for 34 beds? Ans>> 294 hours 10 / 15 154. When does a resident not count toward the required minimum staffing hours? Ans>> When the resident is an independent living resident 155. Independent living resident Ans>> Resident who occupies a bed but does not receive personal, limited nursing, and ECC services 156. True or false, a facility can lack someone who can access facility and resident records for up to 4 hours. Ans>> False, someone who can access those files must be present at all times in case of emergency 157. In facilities with or more residents, there must be a staff member awake all hours of day and night. Ans>> 17 11 / 15 158. True or false, someone with first aid and CPR training (which is currently updated and valid) must be present at all times. Ans>> True 159. During a period of temporary absence of the administrator of more than 48 hours, what must be done? Ans>> Staff who is at least 21 must be physically present and designated in writing to be in charge of facility. 160. What staff doesn't count toward minimum staffing hours? Ans>> Staff who ex- clusively deal with grounds or building maintenance, clerical, or food prep 161. When can an administrator or manager's hours be counted toward mini- mum staffing hours? Ans>> When they are actively involved in the day to day operation and is listed on the facility's staffing schedule. 162. Upon request, does a facility have to make a direct care staff's schedule available to a resident or representative? Ans>> Yes 163. When may ACHA require additional staff? Ans>> When facility fails to meet fire safety standards or ACHA decides facility doesn't 14 / 15 168. What training must an ECC admin or ECC supervisor complete? Ans>> In addi- tion to CORE training, 4 hours of initial training in ECC prior to receiving ECC license or within 3 months of employment & a minimum of 4 hours of continuing education every two years in topics relating to the needs of frail elderly or disabled persons or persons with Alzheimer & related disorders 169. ECC staff must complete what training? Ans>> 2 hours of in service training within 6 months of employment 170. LMH staff must complete what training? Ans>> 6 hours of specialized training with working with people with mental health diagnoses from DCF within 6 months of employment & a minimum of 3 hours of continuing education every 2 years in subjects dealing with mental health 171. Staff in regular contact with residents who have Alzheimer's and related disorders must complete what training and when? Ans>> Alzheimer's Disease and Related Disorders Level I Training within 3 months of employment. 172. Staff who provide direct care with residents who have Alzheimer's and related disorders must complete what training and when? Ans>> Level I within 3 months and then Alzheimer's Disease and Related Disorders Level II 15 / 15 within 9 months of employment (4 additional training hours); 4 hours of continuing education annually 173. What items must be documented for training requirements? Ans>> Title of the program; the subject matter; training program agenda; the number of hours; trainee's name, date or participation, and location of program; and training provider's name, dated signature and credentials 174. True or false, facility's meals must be offered in a variety of meals adapted to the food habits and preferences of the residents and be prepared through standardized recipes Ans>> True 175. Are standardized recipes required for facilities with 16 or fewer beds? Ans>> No 176. How often must menus be reviewed and by whom? Ans>> Annually by a licensed or registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist 177. Should portion sizes be determined and written down for the annual review? Ans>> Yes, and they must be indicated on the menus or on a separate sheet 178. How long must substitutions be kept on file? Ans>> 6 months 179. How long in advance must the menus be planned? 16 / 15 Ans>> 1 week 180. True or false, menus do not need to be posted or easily available to residents. Ans>> False 181. Therapeutic diets must be identified on the menu. Ans>> True 182. If a resident refused to comply with their therapeutic diet, what must the facility do? Ans>> Document resident's refusal and notify HCP 19 / 15 197. A service plan is required for each resident admitted under what license and program? Ans>> ECC 198. True or False, a home approved by the Department of Veteran Affairs that provides care exclusively to 3 or less veterans is exempt from acquiring a license Ans>> True 199. Can a resident chose their own roommate? Ans>> The option to chose should be given if possible. 20 / 15 200. Maximum occupancy for one room? Ans>> Two residents 201. Can a resident's room directly open into another room so that they have to pass through another resident's room to access theirs? Ans>> No. Must open directly into a common area. Cannot be considered a bedroom otherwise 202. What are the minimum finishings for a bedroom? Ans>> Closet or wardrobe, dresser, and bed. Upon request, a table, lamp, waste basket, and comfortable chair shall be provided. 203. What is the bathroom (with one toilet and sink) ratio for bathroom to residents? Ans>> 1 to six residents 204. What is the shower ratio to residents? Ans>> One bathtub or shower per 8 resi- dents. 205. What devices are required in showers and tubs? Ans>> Grab bars, non-slip safety devices 206. Do grab bars need to be installed next to toilets? Ans>> Only in newly licensed facilities 207. Residents must have access to a phone in each building residents re- side. 21 / 15 Ans>> True but only for facilities licensed for 17 or more beds 208. What should be done to the door to bathrooms with a single toilet? Ans>> In- stalled with door that can lock from the inside with no key needed 209. How long does a new facility or a facility with a new owner have to file an emergency management plan? Ans>> Within 30 days of attaining license 210. The emergency management plan must be reviewed how often? Ans>> Annually 211. In the case of an emergency, a facility may exceed its licensed capacity for how many days? Ans>> 15 days 212. Aging in place Ans>> The process of providing increased or adjusted services to a person to compensate for the physical or mental decline that may occur. 213. How long does a facility have to resubmit a emergency management plan after receiving notice that the plan must be revised? Ans>> 30 days 214. What type of changes to the emergency management plan needs to be reported annually? 24 / 15 True 225. A major change consistent with a resident's diagnosis is a significant change in condition. Ans>> False 226. A stage two pressure sore is a significant change in condition. Ans>> True 227. Cooperative agreement Ans>> Written statement of understanding between a men- tal health care provider and administrator that specifies directions for accessing emergency and after hours care for LMH residents. A single cooperative agreement may service all clients under the one provider. 228. How long does facility have to have an on site consult with a RN or pharmacist after receiving written notice by ACHA for one due to a medication deficiency? Ans>> 7 working days for class I or II; 14 for uncorrected class III 229. Assistive Care Services Ans>> Medicaid based, state plan that provides reimburse- ment for care to eligible recipients who require an integrated set of services on a 24-hour-per-day-basis (including assistance with self-administration of medication, assistance with ADLs) 230. In Adult family care homes, care must be provided in the care provider's own home. 25 / 15 Ans>> True 231. If a plan of correction is required by ACHA for a deficiency, how many days does the facility have to submit it? Ans>> 10 days