FLORIDA ALF Administrators CORE EXAM Expected Questions and Answers (Verified Answers), Exams of Ecology and Environment

Download FLORIDA ALF Administrators CORE EXAM Expected Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) and more Exams Ecology and Environment in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 15 FLORIDA ALF Administrators CORE EXAM Expected Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) 1. What level of background screening must be conducted? When? Ans>> Level II; upon hire, every 5 years, and upon rehire if employee has a break in service of more than 90 days 2. What paperwork should be in employee files regarding background screen- ings? Ans>> eligibility statement, affidavit of compliance, privacy notice 3. Class I Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences related to the operation and main- tenance of a provider or to the care of clients that present an *imminent danger* to the clients or a substantial probability that death or serious physical or emotional harm would result. *A fine will be imposed regardless of correction.* 2 / 15 4. When must a Class I violation be resolved? Ans>> Within 24 hrs unless a fixed period is required 5. Class II Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences that *directly threaten* the physical or emotional health, safety, or security of clients, other than class I violations. *A fine shall be imposed regardless of correction.* 6. Class III Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences that *potentially threaten* the phys- ical or emotional health, safety, or security of clients. A fine *may* not be imposed if violation is corrected within time specified on the citation. 7. Class IV Violation Ans>> Conditions or occurrences or required reports, forms, or documents 5 / 15 Ans>> Yes 6 / 15 16. Service plan Ans>> Written plan, developed and agreed upon by resident, that ad- dresses the needs and preferences of a resident receiving extended congregate care services. Includes what services shall be provided, who shall provide them, when they will be rendered, and the purpose of the service. 17. An ALF with one or more mental health resident must obtain what license?- Ans>> Limited Mental Health 18. A mental health resident receives what? Ans>> OSS 19. What physical restraint can be used at a standard licensed ALF if attained all necessary documents? Ans>> Half bed rails 20. What must you have for a resident to use a physical restraint? Ans>> Physician's order, resident's consent, order renewed annually 21. What can CNA's do beyond unlicensed caretakers under a standard li- cense? Ans>> Take vital signs under the direction of a nurse 7 / 15 22. Under what licenses can a CNA do everything they are certified for? Ans>> ECC & LNS 23. Liability Report Ans>> ALFs must report any new lawsuits filed against them monthly to AHCA 24. What four documents should you always have on file with ACHA? Ans>> Surety bonds, liability insurance, health inspections (within 30 days of inspection), fire inspection (within 30 days of inspection) 25. Under a standard or LMH license, what services can a resident be assisted with by a nurse? Ans>> Oxygen, TED hose, and colonoscopy bag 26. When should a Health Assessment be completed? Ans>> 1) Within 60 days before admission or 30 days after and 2) every 3 years after (annually for residents attaining assistive care services) or whenever the resident experiences a significant change in condition 27. True or false, ALFs must always have liability insurance. Ans>> True 28. What forms should a resident have in an ALF with LMH? 10 / 15 Ans>> Administer meds, take resident's vitals, manage weekly pill organizers, give prepackaged enemas ordered by physi- cian, and write nursing progress notes. 39. In emergency situations, licensed personal can do what until emergency medical personnel assume responsibility for care? Ans>> All of their professional duties 40. Assistance with the self-administration of medication does NOT include what 8 things? Ans>> 1) mixing, compounding, or calculating doses, 2) Administering injections/prepping injections, 3) administering meds via tube inserted in body's cavity, 4) administering medication through breathing device or nebulizer, 5) admin- istering of parenteral preps, 6) irrigations, 7) rectal, urethral, or vaginal preparations, 8) medications that require judgement or discretion regarding time given, frequency, amount, etc 41. Who is responsible for determining the appropriateness of admission & of continued residence of a resident? Ans>> Owner or administrator 11 / 15 42. How many days notice must a faciltiy give for relocation or termination of resident? Ans>> 45 days (unless for medication reasons, the resident is certified by a physician to require emergency location, or the resident engages in a pattern of conduct that is harmful or offensive to other residents) 43. How many days before closing should a facility give notice? Ans>> At least 30 days 44. A fire evacuation of three minutes or less is considered what? Ans>> Prompt 45. A fire evacuation of more than three minutes but no more than 13 minutes is considered what? Ans>> Slow 46. A fire evacuation of more than 13 minutes is considered what? Ans>> Impractical 47. Any new facilities must be equipped with what for fire safety? Ans>> Fire sprinkler system 12 / 15 48. How often must a facility conduct elopement prevention and response drills? Ans>> Twice a year (for each employee) 49. Comprehensive emergency management plan Ans>> Updated annually, a plan that addresses emergency evacuation transport, sheltering arrangements, disaster activities, supplies, staffing, emergency equipment, etc. 50. Who reviews the emergency management plan? Ans>> The local emergency man- agement agency 51. What must be included in an advertisements before facility obtains li- cense? Ans>> "License pending" 52. What must be included in all advertisements for facility? Ans>> "Assisted Living Facility" and license number 53. Significant change Ans>> A sudden or major shift in behavior or mood inconsistant with the resident's diagnosis or a deterioration in health status such as unplanned weight change, stroke, heart condition, enrollment in hospise, or stage 2, 3, or 4 pressure 15 / 15 64. Standard License Ans>> Regular license issued when applicant is in complaint with all statutory requirements and ACHA rules 65. Provisional License Ans>> License that is effective until a final action not subject to appeal is decided upon that would affect the applicant's compliance with ACHA regulations--may be issued for applicant who has has a denial or revoking of license pending, applicant waiting on level II screening, or a facility that is experiencing a CHOW 66. How long is a provisional license active? Ans>> A specific period of time deter- mined by ACHA, not to exceed 12 months. 67. Inactive license Ans>> License that can be issued for facility that will be temporarily unable to provide services but is reasonably expected to resume services within 12 months. 68. Can an inactive license recieve an extention? Ans>> Yes, for up to another addition- al 12 months if licensee demonstrates that progress has been made to reopen but will not be completed within the initial 12 months 16 / 15 69. When must a facility's renewal licensed application be submitted? Ans>> At least 60 days but not more than 120 days before expiration of license 70. When must an applicant file for initial licensure due to a CHOW? Ans>> At least 60 days prior to date of CHOW 71. Upon receipt of application, ACHA will notify applicant of any errors or omissions in what time period? Ans>> Within 30 days 72. How long does the applicant have to file any additional information re- quested by ACHA to complete their application? Ans>> 21 days 73. ACHA has how long to approve or deny a complete application? Ans>> 60 days 74. Isolated deficiency Ans>> A deficiency affecting one or a very limited number of clients or a situation that occurred only occasionally or in a very limited number of locations 75. Patterned deficiency Ans>> A deficiency affecting more than than a very limited number of clients or occurs in several locations or have occurred repetitively but is not found to be 17 / 15 pervasive throughout the provider 76. Widespread deficiency Ans>> Deficiency that is pervasive in the provider or repre- sents systemic failure and affects or have a potential to affect a large portion of the clients 77. What is the use of chemical restraints limited to in an ALF? Ans>> Prescribed doses of medication authorized by the resident's physician-- must be consistent with resident's diagnosis 78. To use medication considered a chemical restraint, what must you have?- Ans>> Annual evaluation by physician to assess continued need for medication, the level of medication in resident's blood, and need for adjustment of medication. 20 / 15 Ans>> Yes 91. True or false, someone must be free from signs and symptoms of any communicable diseases for admission. Ans>> True 92. Can someone be admitted to an ALF if they require 24 hour licensed professional mental health treatment? Ans>> No 93. What stage pressure sores make someone ineligible to be admitted? Ans>> - Stage 3 or 4 94. Someone with a stage pressure sore can be admitted to an ALF provided that the facility does what? Ans>> 2; resident contracts with license home health agency or resides in a LNS, the condition is documented in the resident's record and the admission and discharge log, and the resident's condition improves within 30 days 21 / 15 95. If a resident requires these nursing services, they are disqualified from admission. Ans>> Oral, nasopharyngeal, or tracheotomy suctioning; tube feeding; moni- toring of blood gases; intermittent positive pressure breathing therapy; and treatment of surgical incisions or wounds, unless the condition that causes it has been stabilized and plan of care developed 96. Can a resident require 24 hour nursing supervision upon admission? Ans>> No 97. Can a resident be admitted if they require skilled rehabilitative services?- Ans>> No 98. Who is responsible in determining the appropriateness of a resident for admission? Ans>> The administrator or owner 99. What must an administrator base their decisions of a resident's appropri- ateness of admission on? Ans>> An assessment of strengths, needs, and preferences of the individual and from the medical exam; the facility's admission policy and services provided; and 22 / 15 the ability of the facility to meet the fire safety standards 100. What information must a facility make available to potential residents in their facility statement? Ans>> Essentially, the admission and continued residency criteria, any offered activities or services, any fees attached to any services usually provided and then any fees for services that can be provided at additional cost, policy on DNRO's, policy on therapeutic diets, elopement response polices and procedures, ECC requirements if applicable (Full list Ans>> 1) facility's admission and continued residency criteria, 2) daily, weekly, or monthly charge for rent & services, 3) personal care services provided , 4) nursing services that facility can provide, 5) food services & ability for facility to accommodate spe- cialty diets, 6) availability of transport, 7) any special services 8) activities generally offered, 9) any services that is not usually provided but can be at additional cost, 25 / 15 109. True or false, the facility does not have to consult with the residents in selecting, planning, and scheduling activities. Ans>> False 110. Staff members are not responsible for knowing the general whereabouts of each resident, true or false. Ans>> False. 111. Grievance procedure Ans>> Facility must have a written grievance procedure for resident complaints, facility must demonstrate that such a procedure is implemented upon receipt of a complaints 112. What must be posted in full view in a freely accessible resident area? Ans>> The Resident Bill of Rights, the telephone number for lodging complaints against a facility or facility staff (must be in 14 point font) 113. Residents do not need to be encouraged to be as independent as possi- ble. Ans>> False 114. Residents must have convenient access to a telephone. Ans>> True 115. Half bed rails aren't considered a physical restraint when the resident can 26 / 15 what? Ans>> When the resident can use and remove or avoid them without any assistance 116. For residents that are at risk of elopement, what must facilities do daily?- Ans>> Make an effort for the residents to have ID on their persons that includes their name and the facility's name, address, and number. 117. Upon the resident's admission or once they are assessed to be at risk for elopement, the facility has how long to ensure the resident's file contains a photo of the resident? Ans>> 10 days 118. How long can a facility keep abandoned/expired medication? Ans>> 30 days 119. When a resident leaves, what must the facility do with their medication?- Ans>> Give resident their medication. If resident leaves their meds, must store them for 15 days before meds are considered abandoned. 27 / 15 120. If medication is centrally stored and a medication must be refrigerated, where must that med be? Ans>> In a locked fridge, in a locked container in a fridge, or a fridge in a locked area 121. How long after a nurse gets a medication order by phone does the facility need a signed order by the doctor? Ans>> 10 days 122. How much usable floor space must be in a private room? Ans>> 80 square feet 123. How much usable floor space must be in a double occupancy room? Ans>> 120 square feet 124. OSS Ans>> Optional state supplementation 125. Total help residents can only be admitted to facilities with what license?- Ans>> ECC 126. Which residents can use pill organizers Ans>> Residents who self-administer medication 10 / 15 139. A facility must always have liability insurance, true or false. Ans>> True 140. What must be present on a MOR sheet? Ans>> Resident's name; known allergies; healthcare provider and number; name, strength, and directions of use for medica- tions; and recording of observations 141. If medication is stored in resident's room, it must be what? Ans>> Kept in a locked room when resident is absent or in a secured place 142. Can a alf require residents to execute a DNRO? Ans>> No 143. What is a DNRO Ans>> Do not resuscitate order form Ans>> those trained in CPR *may* withhold CPR in event of cardiac or pulmonary arrest 144. If resident has a DNRO and is hospice, what must the staff do in an event of a cardiac or pulmonary arrest? Ans>> Contact hospice. Hospice procedures take precedence over alf's 145. What are the continuing education requirements for alf admins? Ans>> 12 hours in topics related to assisted living every 2 years 10 / 15 146. How many facilities may an administrator supervise? Ans>> 3 147. Administrators who supervise more than one facilities must appoint what? Ans>> A separate manager for each facility 148. When can an administrator not have to appoint a manager for a single facility when the administrator supervises multiple facilities? Ans>> For up to 3 facilities, when the facilities have 16 or fewer beds and are within a 15 mile radius 149. How long does a facility owner have to notify ACHA of a change in administration? Ans>> 10 days 150. During a CHOW, facility has how many days to notify residents in writ- ing? Ans>> 7 days 151. ACHA can deny or revoke a license if the ALF has two or more class I violations that are similar or identical within the past 2 years Ans>> True 10 / 15 152. An facility with 17 or more beds must have a functioning what? Ans>> Automat- ed External Defrillator 153. How many staff hours a week must be completed for a facility licensed for 34 beds? Ans>> 294 hours 154. When does a resident not count toward the required minimum staffing hours? Ans>> When the resident is an independent living resident 155. Independent living resident Ans>> Resident who occupies a bed but does not receive personal, limited nursing, and ECC services 156. True or false, a facility can lack someone who can access facility and resident records for up to 4 hours. Ans>> False, someone who can access those files must be present at all times in case of emergency 157. In facilities with or more residents, there must be a staff member awake all hours of day and night. Ans>> 17 13 / 15 166. What training should be provided to all staff? Ans>> Elopement response policies and procedures One time education course on HIV/AIDS Must be completed within first 30 days 167. What are the training requirements for the person designated as respon- sible for the facility's food service? Ans>> A minimum of 2 hours of continuing education in topics of nutrition and food service in an ALF 14 / 15 168. What training must an ECC admin or ECC supervisor complete? Ans>> In addi- tion to CORE training, 4 hours of initial training in ECC prior to receiving ECC license or within 3 months of employment & a minimum of 4 hours of continuing education every two years in topics relating to the needs of frail elderly or disabled persons or persons with Alzheimer & related disorders 169. ECC staff must complete what training? Ans>> 2 hours of in service training within 6 months of employment 170. LMH staff must complete what training? Ans>> 6 hours of specialized training with working with people with mental health diagnoses from DCF within 6 months of employment & a minimum of 3 hours of continuing education every 2 years in subjects dealing with mental health 171. Staff in regular contact with residents who have Alzheimer's and related disorders must complete what training and when? Ans>> Alzheimer's Disease and Related Disorders Level I Training within 3 months of employment. 172. Staff who provide direct care with residents who have Alzheimer's and 15 / 15 related disorders must complete what training and when? Ans>> Level I within 3 months and then Alzheimer's Disease and Related Disorders Level II within 9 months of employment (4 additional training hours); 4 hours of continuing education annually 173. What items must be documented for training requirements? Ans>> Title of the program; the subject matter; training program agenda; the number of hours; trainee's name, date or participation, and location of program; and training provider's name, dated signature and credentials 174. True or false, facility's meals must be offered in a variety of meals adapted to the food habits and preferences of the residents and be prepared through standardized recipes Ans>> True 175. Are standardized recipes required for facilities with 16 or fewer beds? Ans>> No 176. How often must menus be reviewed and by whom? Ans>> Annually by a licensed or registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist 177. Should portion sizes be determined and written down for the annual review? 18 / 15 be during the hours residents are normally awake? Ans>> At least 72F in all areas used you residents 190. When outside temp is 65F or below, what is the lowest the indoor temp can be during the hours residents are normally asleep? Ans>> 68F at least 191. When indoor temps exceed 85F, what must be done? Ans>> Use of mechanical cooling devices provided outside temps remain below 90F 192. True or false, no resident will be in an inside area with a temp higher than 85 degrees. Ans>> False, 90 degrees 193. During daytime hours when outside temps exceed 90 degrees and any- time at night, the inside temp can be no more than what? Ans>> No more than 81 degrees 194. A room separate from bedrooms shall be provided for residents to read, engage in socialization or other leisure activities Ans>> True 195. An unlicensed ALF commits a felony of the Degree. 19 / 15 Ans>> Third 196. Can a resident under hospice have 24-hour nursing if already admitted to an ALF? Ans>> Yes, as long as 24 hour nursing is completed by hospice 197. A service plan is required for each resident admitted under what license and program? Ans>> ECC 198. True or False, a home approved by the Department of Veteran Affairs that provides care exclusively to 3 or less veterans is exempt from acquiring a license Ans>> True 199. Can a resident chose their own roommate? Ans>> The option to chose should be given if possible. 20 / 15 200. Maximum occupancy for one room? Ans>> Two residents 201. Can a resident's room directly open into another room so that they have to pass through another resident's room to access theirs? Ans>> No. Must open directly into a common area. Cannot be considered a bedroom otherwise 202. What are the minimum finishings for a bedroom? Ans>> Closet or wardrobe, dresser, and bed. Upon request, a table, lamp, waste basket, and comfortable chair shall be provided. 203. What is the bathroom (with one toilet and sink) ratio for bathroom to residents? Ans>> 1 to six residents 204. What is the shower ratio to residents? Ans>> One bathtub or shower per 8 resi- dents. 205. What devices are required in showers and tubs? Ans>> Grab bars, non-slip safety devices 206. Do grab bars need to be installed next to toilets? Ans>> Only in newly licensed facilities 23 / 15 218. How long does ACHA have to issue a statement of deficiency for viola- tions? Ans>> 10 days after inspection 219. With a class I, II, I uncorrected III deficiency involving medication, ACHA must what? Ans>> notify facility in writing that the facility must employ or contract the services of a pharmacist or RN as a consultant to create a corrective action plan. 220. After a class I, II, I uncorrected III deficiency involving medication is issued by ACHA, the facility must what? Ans>> Correct deficiency with assistance by consultant RN or pharmacist and send ACHA quarterly onsite corrective action plans until ACHA determines facility is following regulations. 221. True or false, mechanical assistance is considered assistance with trans- fer. Ans>> False. Mechanical assistance is also not allowed to be completed by facility staff. 222. Transferring is an ADL. Ans>> False. 223. Direct care staff 24 / 15 Ans>> Staff that provide personal or nursing services to residents 224. Enrollment in hospice is considered a significant change in condition. Ans>> - True 225. A major change consistent with a resident's diagnosis is a significant change in condition. Ans>> False 226. A stage two pressure sore is a significant change in condition. Ans>> True 227. Cooperative agreement Ans>> Written statement of understanding between a men- tal health care provider and administrator that specifies directions for accessing emergency and after hours care for LMH residents. A single cooperative agreement may service all clients under the one provider. 228. How long does facility have to have an on site consult with a RN or pharmacist after receiving written notice by ACHA for one due to a medication deficiency? Ans>> 7 working days for class I or II; 14 for uncorrected class III 25 / 15 229. Assistive Care Services Ans>> Medicaid based, state plan that provides reimburse- ment for care to eligible recipients who require an integrated set of services on a 24-hour-per-day- basis (including assistance with self-administration of medication, assistance with ADLs) 230. In Adult family care homes, care must be provided in the care provider's own home. Ans>> True 231. If a plan of correction is required by ACHA for a deficiency, how many days does the facility have to submit it? Ans>> 10 days