Florida Claims Adjuster Exam 2024/2025 Complete Questions with 100% Correct Verified Ans, Exams of Business Administration

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Florida Claims Adjuster Exam 2024/2025 Complete

Questions with 100% Correct Verified Answers Graded A

Frank owned a home that was destroyed by a hurricane. Both ABC and XYZ Banks were listed as additional interests on his homeowner policy. The insurance company will make a payment to: A. The first mortgagee, ABC B. The Insured C. Jointly to ABC and XYZ D. All listed interests D. All listed interests Remember that the insurer is not responsible to know the degrees of interest. In the event of a loss, one payment is made by the insurer and it is up to the additional interests on working out their share. Insurance applies separately to each insured as if other insureds did not exist. This is defined as: A. Severability B. Conditional C. Warranty D. None of the above A. Severability Property insurance policies usually contain a(n) __________ clause, stating the insured cannot dump damaged property on the insurer and demand its full value: A. Pro Rata B. Abandonment C. Liberalization D. All of the above B. Abandonment A(n) __________ is one wherein economic loss would be suffered from an adverse happening to the subject: A. Conditional Contract

B. Personal Contract C. Economic Contract D. Insurable Interest D. Insurable Interest States that if the insurer adopts a revision which would broaden coverage without additional premium within some period of time prior to the policy period or during the policy period, the insured receives the benefit of such broadened coverage. A. Cancellation Clause B. Policy Period C. Pro Rata D. Liberalization D. Liberalization The time frame is typically 60 days. The __________ states that when there is an unbroken connection between an occurrence and damage that grows out of the occurrence, then the resultant damage is all a part of the occurrence. A. Doctrine of Proximate Cause B. Doctrine of Perils & Hazards C. Insurance Policy Handbook D. Doctrine of Property Insurance A. Doctrine of Proximate Cause For example, if a property insurance policy covers the peril of fire but further damage is caused by smoke, water used to extinguish, and the process of moving property away - fire is considered to be the proximate cause of all of the damage. The Loss Settlement Valuation that subtracts an allowance for depreciation is defined as? A. Actual Cash Value B. Replacement Cost C. "Old for New" D. None of the Above A. Actual Cash Value

A policy condition, either based on information in the insured's application or inserted by the insurer, is defined as: A. Warranty B. Misrepresentation C. Concealment D. None of the Above A. Warranty The following are basic characteristics of a property or liability insurance contract, except: A. Personal Contract B. Conditional Contract C. Loss of Settlement Contract D. Contract of Adhesion C. Loss of Settlement Contract The Insurer's responsibility to pay for a property loss may be conditioned on the insured having used reasonable means to avoid the loss, to protect the property against further loss, and to give the insurer proof of the loss is defined as? A. Conditional Contract B. Adhesion Contract C. Indemnity Contract D. All of the Above A. Conditional Contract "may be conditioned" Which of the following is not one of the "Thresholds" in the "No-Fault" law? A. Death of the Insured B. Temporary Injury of the Insured C. A permanent loss of a bodily function D. Permanent scarring on the face of the insured B. Temporary Injury of the Insured Also included: permanent injury other than scarring and disfigurement

Under Mechanical Breakdown Coverage, new cars are eligible for service up to: A. 36 Months/36,000 Miles B. 24 Months/36,000 Miles C. 12,000 Months/12,000 Miles D. 12 Months/36,000 Miles A. 36 Months/36,000 Miles Used vehicles: 12 Months/12,000 Miles If financial responsibility doesn't exist at the time of an accident, which of the following things must happen to avoid penalties? A. The legally valid claims of others must be satisfied (up to 10/20/10) B. The owner and operator must provide certification of future responsibility for future accidents C. Both A & B D. None of the Above C. Both A & B As to required proof for future accidents by purchase of auto liability insurance, the insurer must make a filing (Form SR-22) certifying that coverage is in effect, and this certification must remain on file for __________ years: A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2 B. 3 The Business Automobile Policy includes all of the following coverage forms except: A. The Garage Coverage Form B. The Trailer Interchange Coverage Form C. The Truckers Coverage Form D. The Business Auto Coverage Form B. The Trailer Interchange Coverage Form

Personal Injury Protection, or PIP, has a __________ per person, per accident limit. A. 10, B. 20, C. 1, D. Depends on the damaged property A. 10, Used to insure businesses engaged in selling, servicing, repairing, parking or storing automobiles: A. Servicing Coverage Form B. Garage Coverage Form C. Truckers Coverage Form D. None of the Above B. Garage Coverage Form The following examples are referred to as __________ liability limits: 25/50/25 or 10/20/10. A. Split B. Single C. Straight D. None of the Above A. Split 10/20/10 = 10,000 per person injured 20,000 all injuries combined 10,000 property damage Example of straight liability limit = $30, Jeremy has a not at fault accident. If he has PIP with a $1,000 deductible, how much can he expect his PIP coverage to pay toward his medical bills that total $3,000? A. $1, B. $1, C. $2, D. $3,

A. $1,

3000 (bills) - 1000 (deductible) = 2000 x .80 (eighty percent) Frank has a not-at-fault accident, he has basic PIP, no deductible and Med pay of $5,000. How much will his Med Pay contribute to medical bills of $15,000? A. $15, B. $5, C. $3, D. $0, Frank is not-at-fault B. $5, Medical Payment limits apply per person; Frank will receive full amount towards medical bills. Which of the following is not one of the rating factors for a Homeowner's Policy? A. Type of Construction B. Location of Risk C. Age & Gender of Insured D. Proximity to Fire Department C. Age & Gender of Insured On a Homeowner's Policy, covers items that are not permanently attached to the dwelling. This is defined as: A. Other Structures B. Excess Structures C. Personal Property D. Dwelling A. Other Structures Examples include sheds, fences, pool houses, detached car ports, etc. A lender has an insurable interest in a home and finds protection in the: A. Loss Payee Clause B. Mortgagee Clause

C. Lender Clause D. Additional Insured Clause B. Mortgagee Clause Mortgagee - Homeowner's policy Loss Payee - Automobile policy Which of the following forms is "all-risk" on the dwelling policy? A. DP-1, or the Basic Form B. DP-2, or the Broad C. DP-3, or the Special Form D. None of the Above C. DP-3, or the Special Form When the basic liability limits provided by the policy are insufficient for an insureds needs, two coverage forms are used to provide the additional amounts of coverage: A. Excess Liability B. Umbrella C. Both A & B D. None of the Above C. Both A & B Which of the following is not covered under Coverage C, Personal Property? A. A fire breaks out in the residence and an overnight guest loses his clothes in the fire B. A fish dies because he has been left alone for a week without food C. The insureds daughters tennis racket is stolen from her locker D. The insureds suitcase and clothing, valued at $1,500, are stolen from his hotel B. A fish dies because he has been left alone for a week without food Animals are listed as an "exclusion" under a Homeowner's policy. All of the following are eligible for a Homeowner's Policy, except? A. An apartment tenant B. A condominium owner

C. Four-family dwelling owner-occupant D. A business condo owned by a local insurance company D. A business condo owned by a local insurance company Commercial property is not eligible for a Homeowner's policy. Which of the following are characteristics of Homeowner's Insurance? A. Protects against economic loss to residences and household property and legal liabilities B. Owner-occupants of 1-4 family dwellings C. Renters who maintain residential occupancy in any type of building D. All of the Above D. All of the Above Also included: personal, non-business risk, no more than 2 roomers/boarders, condominium unit owners and cooperative apartment occupants Jeremy owns a home that is recently damaged due to a hurricane. The repair estimate is averaged at $25,000 and Jeremy decides to stay in a hotel because most of the damage is to his bedroom and kitchen. Under a Homeowner's Policy, what coverage will pay for the hotel room bill? A. Fair Rental Value B. Value Obligation C. Loss of Use D. Insurers Duties C. Loss of Use The insurer will pay any necessary and reasonable expenses associated with a daily living routine. An insured who wishes to purchase flood insurance, but is located in a moderate or low risk flood zone may do so by purchasing a: A. Preferred Risk Flood Policy B. Standard Flood Policy C. Universal Flood Insurance D. None of the Above

A. Preferred Risk Flood Policy Although Flood Insurance is provided by the Federal Government, those who are not in a "flood zone" may purchase a preferred risk policy to cover them for a flood claim. Used only for Commercial Condominiums, it covers the unit-owners business personal property and the personal property of others in the insured's care, custody or control: A. Condominium Dwelling Form B. Personal Condominium Unit Owners Form C. Condominium Unit Owners Form D. None of the Above C. Condominium Unit Owners Form Does not cover buildings since coverage would typically be provided under the Condo Association coverage form issued. The Commercial Property Contract includes all of the following, except: A. Common Policy Conditions B. Commercial Property Conditions C. Coverage Form D. Commercial Loss Schedule D. Commercial Loss Schedule Also included: Declarations, Causes of Loss Form, Endorsements Insures a condominium association against direct physical loss or damage to buildings, business personal property and personal property of others in the care, custody or control of the association and located at the premises: A. Condominium Association Form B. Condominium Unit Owners Form C. Condominium Insured Owner Form D. None of the Above A. Condominium Association Form This, along with Condo Unit Owners Form, is located under Condo Coverage.

Sometimes referred to as commercial fire and allied lines, this is the form of insurance that covers direct and indirect losses related to properties other than one-to-four family dwellings and farm properties: A. Business Property Insurance B. Building Property Insurance C. Commercial Property Insurance D. None of the Above C. Commercial Property Insurance (the question is the definition for this term) Under Commercial Property Policies, Florida law requires an insurer to give the insured at least __________days advance written notice of non-renewal. A. 25 B. 90 C. 45 D. None of the Above C. 45 Also, notice must state reasons the policy is not to be renewed. When a business's personal property values fluctuate, a single, fixed amount of insurance could produce either over- or under-insurance at any given time. With this option, the limit of coverage is set at an amount somewhat higher than expected peak values. A. Value Reporting B. Replacement Cost C. Agreed Value D. None of the Above A. Value Reporting Replacement Cost is incorrect b/c it calculates monetary value of one's personal property Liberalization states, "The insured gets the benefit of any broadened coverage if the company, within __________ days of inception, adopts a form revision that is broader and without increase in premium." A. 10 days

B. 55 days C. 65 days D. 45 days D. 45 days Used to cover buildings in the course of construction: A. Builders Risk Policy B. Builders Replacement Policy C. Construction Replacement Policy D. None of the Above A. Builders Risk Policy Includes: structure being built (including foundations), fixtures and machinery, equipment to service building, owned materials and supplies used for construction. Temporary structures built or assembled on site are also included if not covered by insurance. First developed as an extension of Ocean Marine coverage, to provide coverage for cargo traveling over land, instead of by sea. A. Commercial Inland Marine Coverage B. Personal Inland Marine Coverage C. Ocean Commercial Coverage D. None of the Above A. Commercial Inland Marine Coverage Definition: to help identify kinds of risks which are eligible for either Ocean or Inland Marine insurance. Protects against loss of business income that results from damage to covered property from a covered cause of loss. A. Business Income Insurance Coverage B. Business Income Replacement Coverage C. Business Income Actual Value Coverage D. None of the Above A. Business Income Insurance Coverage Period of restoration begins 72 hours after date of direct damage. In effect, coverage has a 72 hour

deductible. Coverage ends on either 1. date when damaged property could be repaired, rebuilt, or replaced 2. date business resumes operations at new, permanent location (whichever comes first) What payment covers several areas of costs related to claims, and are payable in addition to the policy limits? A. Supplementary B. Liability C. Personal Injury D. All of the Above A. Supplementary Generally, all costs of litigation are covered (court costs, prejudgment interest, judgement interest, cost of bonds to release attachments) Three full-time employees from a local furniture company are horsing around and one is pushed into a machine that cut his foot. How will the company's General Liability respond? A. The Med Pay Section must pay Primary B. The General Liability Policy will pay up to $20,000 in medical payments C. The GL policy will not pay D. Only property damage is covered under GL policy C. The GL policy will not pay Coverage excludes liabilities under Workers Comp or similar law or arising from injuries to employees of the insured. The employees would have to file through Workers Comp. Which of the following can be found in a Commercial General Liability Contract? A. Declarations B. Common Policy Conditions C. Occurrence and Claims-Made Forms D. All of the Above D. All of the Above Also included: Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion endorsement (other endorsements may be attached)

There is __________ coverage for injury, damage or clean-up costs caused by pollutants, subject to minor exceptions: A. 50% B. 10% C. 0% D. A Percentage Ratio C. 0% Under a Commercial General Liability Policy, a basic limit of __________ per person applies to Medical Payments: A. $1, B. $10, C. $2, D. $5, D. $5, Payment is for medical, dental, hospital, and funeral services incurred within one year of date of accident to persons who suffer bodily injury by accident 1. on or next to insured's owned or rented premises, or 2. due to insured's operations. The Commercial General Liability __________ identifies the named insured and address, states the policy period and premium and miscellaneous information about the insured, and specifies the limits of coverage that apply. A. Declarations B. Contract C. Policy D. None of the Above A. Declarations States the pertinent information of the policy The Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion endorsement, in general, __________ all hazards related to nuclear energy. A. Includes B. Excludes

C. Prohibits D. Summarizes B. Excludes Firms involved in Nuclear activities receive protection from special insurer pools organized for that purpose. Toxic wastes escaped from a gas station disposal tank. The insured operator discovers the leak and cleans up the spill. Unfortunately, the waste quickly seeped into the ground and has caused illness among the residents of a neighboring community This is an example of? A. Loss Known B. Known Loss C. Claims-Made D. None of the Above B. Known Loss Insurer should have been notified and further investigation of the spill and effective clean-up would have been observed. Applies to BI or PD which occurs during the policy period, regardless of any later time at which a claim is made: A. Occurrence Form B. Claims-Made Form C. Premises and Operations Exposure D. None of the Above A. Occurrence Form vs. Claims-Made: applies only to BI or PD occurring on or after retroactive date for which claim is received/recorded during policy period Applies only to a BI or PD which occurs on or after the retroactive date, and for which the claim is received or recorded by an insured or the company during the policy period: A. Occurrence B. Claims-Made C. Operations Completed D. None of the Above

B. Claims-Made Retroactive date is stated in Declarations and will normally be same date as issuing company's first claims-made effective date for insured. All of the following are components of Workers Compensation, except: A. Up to $750,000 in Death Benefits B. Reimbursement for Medical Expenses incurred C. Reimbursement for lost wages on percentage basis D. Funeral costs up to $7, A. Up to $750,000 in Death Benefits Compensation for death is payable if death results within one year of an accident or if it follows disability within five years of accident. The following are classes of disability, except: A. Permanent Total B. Temporary Total C. Permanent Impairment D. Temporary Full D. Temporary Full Also included: Temporary Partial The measure to determine disability benefits is the __________ of the employee at the time of injury: A. Average Monthly Wage B. Average Weekly Wage C. Average Daily Wage D. Income Estimate B. Average Weekly Wage Disability - incapacity due to injury to earn same or any other employment wages that employee was receiving at time of injury. Mandatory for risks exceeding certain annual premiums, recognizes the prior loss experience of the risk and applies either a debit for unfavorable experience or a credit for better-than-expected loss results. This is defined as:

A. The Experience Rating Plan B. The Retrospective Rating Plan C. The Risk Plan D. None of the Above A. The Experience Rating Plan This, along with Retrospective Rating Plan, is a manual rating process until premiums reach a certain level. Under workers compensations, a rate is charged for every __________ of payroll to employees. A. $ B. $1, C. $ D. $ A. $ The National Council on Compensation Insurance enforces this rating. Under Workers Compensation, Part Four Your Duties if Injuries Occur, an employer is required to: A. Provide the names/addresses of injured persons and witnesses B. Promptly provide any legal papers C. Cooperate and assist as insurer requests D. All of the Above D. All of the Above Also included: immediate contact with insurer, providing immediate medical or other services, do nothing to interfere with insured's right of recovery, make no voluntary payments or assume any obligation except at employer's own cost. Under Workers Compensation, Employers Liability includes: A. Claims by others for the liabilities to insureds employees B. Claims by relatives of injured employees for consequential damages C. Claims made by employees that are not subject to Workers Comp Laws D. All of the Above D. All of the Above

Samantha eats uncooked chicken at a local barbecue joint and becomes violently ill. Which of the following workers compensation benefits would pay for this occurrence? A. A products and completed operations form B. A premises and operations form C. An owners and contractors protective liability form D. None of the Above D. None of the Above Samantha is not an employee of the barbecue joint; Workers Comp does not apply. An optional alternative providing for adjustment of premium after expiration, based on a guaranteed basic premium to the insurer to which is added the actual losses incurred by the insured. This is defined as: A. Cost-Plus Rating Plan B. Experience Rating Plan C. Retrospective Rating Plan D. None of the Above C. Retrospective Rating Plan Often referred to as Cost-Plus Programs Under Employer's Liability, the minimum limits of liability are: A. 100/100/ B. 100/500/ C. 500/100/ D. 100/ A. 100/100/ $100,000 for all claims in each accident $100,000 per employee for disease $500,000 for all disease claims Under Inside The Premises - Robbery or Safe Burglary of Personal Property, a special limit of __________ per occurrence applies to articles whose principal value is precious metals, precious or semiprecious stones, pearls or furs, and to the physical or intrinsic value of manuscripts, drawings or records:

A. $1,

B. $2,

C. $4,

D. $5,

D. $5,

Under Crime Insurance, losses must be discovered within 1 year. This is defined as: A. The Discovery Period B. The Loss Sustained Period C. The Open Period D. All of the Above A. The Discovery Period Crime Insurance is _________ over any other Insurance coverage. A. Primary B. Secondary C. Excess D. Recess C. Excess A situation may arise where another form of insurance will pay claim - that insurance would be primary. Cover only losses that both occurred and were discovered during the policy period, or within one year of its expiration. This is defined as: A. Discovery B. Loss Sustained C. Sustained Loss D. None of the Above B. Loss Sustained One exception to the rule is that Loss Sustained forms will also cover losses that occurred under previous (expired) crime policies and that were discovered during current policy year, as long as crime coverage had continued w/o interruption

Any loss discovered during the policy period or within 60 days after its expiration (one year after expiration for losses connected with employee benefit plans) is covered regardless of when it occurred. This is defined as: A. Loss Sustained B. Valuation C. Discovery D. None of the Above C. Discovery If XYZ restaurant discovers stolen goods taken over a year ago, this is within 2 years of inception date and found within policy period so it's covered. Under Crime Insurance, the insured is covered for loss by: A. Theft B. Burglary C. Robbery D. All of the Above D. All of the Above Unless the loss is specifically excluded or limited Provides for loss of money and securities outside the premises in the care, custody and control of a messenger or armored car service resulting from theft, disappearance or destruction. This is defined as: A. Inside the Premises B. Outside the Premises C. Care, Custody, & Control D. None of the Above B. Outside the Premises Also covers robbery of other property under the circumstances. Taking or attempted taking of property from within a locked safe or vault, by unlawful entry, with visible marks of forcible entry, or taking of the safe or vault from inside the premises. This is defined as: A. Safe Burglary

B. Inside the Premises C. Custodial Burglary D. None of the Above A. Safe Burglary Exclusions: accounting errors, giving/surrendering property, voluntarily parting, fire (except damage to safe/vault), vandalism, transferring property to someone based on unauthorized instructions or from threat to harm Covers for all types of property, when surrendered away from the premises as a result of a threat to do bodily harm to the insured or an employee, or to a relative or invitee of either, who is (or allegedly is) being held captive. This is defined as: A. Extortion B. Surrendered Property C. Client's Property D. None of the Above A. Extortion Also triggered by threats to damage the premises or property within the premises. Employee Theft Coverage may be written in the following ways: A. Scheduled Persons Coverage B. Scheduled Position Coverage C. Blanket Coverage D. All May Apply D. All May Apply Employee Theft may be written in three ways. Which of the following are NOT a type of bond? A. Contract B. Fiduciary C. Court D. Apprentice

D. Apprentice Contract - fulfill obligation Fiduciary - make good to court for any deficiencies found in performance Court - protect opposing party from loss Which of the following are characteristics of a License Bond? A. To guarantee the licensee will act according to laws B. Protect public from unfair business practice C. Proper collection and payment of taxes D. All of the Above D. All of the Above Guarantees the performance between the principle and the obligee: A. Principal B. Obligee C. Surety D. All of the Above C. Surety aka Bonding Company; Surety is a "guarantee" This bond guarantees indemnification to the obligee for any losses resulting from the principal's failure to complete the contract work in accord with specifications: A. Performance B. Bid C. Court D. Maintenance A. Performance Considered a contract bond One who undertakes to perform, to fulfill a contract or to meet an obligation is known as: A. Principal B. Obligee

C. Surety D. All of the Above A. Principal Obligee - needs guarantee principal will perform Surety - guarantees performance between principal and obligee This form of bond is required to accompany a bid for a contract which will require that the successful bidder furnish further bond if awarded the job: A. Bid B. Performance C. Court D. Maintenance A. Bid May act as part of the bonding party and agrees to reimburse the surety for any loss it may suffer from having bonded the principal: A. Indemnitor B. Surety C. Obligee D. None of the Above A. Indemnitor Known as "fourth party", may put up collateral Which of the following are parties to a Bond? A. Principal B. Obligee C. Surety D. All of the Above D. All of the Above Principal - undertakes to perform/fulfill Obligee - guaranteed principal will perform

Surety - guarantees performance *Indemnitor - may act as additional party; agrees to reimburse surety for any loss This type of bond covers streets, sidealks, sewers, etc.: A. Sidewalk B. Subdivision C. Supply D. None of the Above B. Subdivision Falls under Maintenance Bond When a person has lost stock certificates, bonds or similar instruments, a bond is generally required by the issuing company to reissue the document. This is known as a: A. Public Official Bond B. Lost Instrument Bond C. Public Instrument Bond D. None of the Above B. Lost Instrument Bond Also guarantees to save issuer from any loss growing out of lost instrument A __________ is a selected group of hospitals and medical practitioners in a given area who have joined together in an effort to reduce medical costs. A. HMO B. Major Medical Insurance C. Coinsurance D. PPO D. PPO Most plans provide that emergency treatment will be paid even if treated party does not go to service provider on approved list. Define the coverage that pays a flat amount per day for hospitalization, regardless of expenses or other insurance: A. Hospitilization

B. Hospital Indemnity C. Hospital Services D. All of the Above B. Hospital Indemnity This optional provision states that if the insured becomes totally disabled, premiums are waived but the coverage remains in force: A. Waiver of Subrogation B. Waiver of Premium C. Waiver of Value D. None of the Above B. Waiver of Premium "premiums are waived" Provides coverage for expenses, including loss of income, arising from an accident. This is defined as? A. Accident Insurance B. Hospitilization C. Hospital Pay D. None of the Above A. Accident Insurance Typical exclusions would be: hernia, war, disease and bacterial infections, suicide attempts, air travel injuries, accidents while committing felony, accidents while under the influence This type of provision states the insurer can refuse to renew the policy only under certain conditions. The policy must state the conditions under which the policy will not be renewed. This is defined as? A. Conditionally Renewable B. Guaranteed Renewable C. Optionally Renewable D. None of the Above A. Conditionally Renewable vs. Optionally: company may not cancel during term but reserves right to non-renew upon expiration

vs. Guaranteed: insurer required to renew policy at stated age (typically 65); company reserves right to increase premium The coverage that is intended to afford protection against catastrophic losses is defined as? A. Major Medical B. HMO C. PPO D. None of the Above A. Major Medical Some forms designed to supplement basic policies; others provide both basic and catastrophic coverage A policy may contain a provision which states a period of time between issuance and acceptance before sickness benefits begin. This is defined as: A. Waiting Period B. Elimination Period C. Both A & B D. None of the Above C. Both A & B This helps keep premiums reasonable by eliminating chance of persons buying coverage only when they are sick Characteristics of an HMO plan usually include: A. Small of non-existent Deductibles B. Fewer Exclusions C. Insurance services to members through employed physicians D. All of the Above D. All of the Above Also included: broad coverage, coinsurance provisions Provides indemnification to the insured for basic hospitalization of room and board in the hospital, nursing care, laboratory fees, operating room, medical supplies, etc. This is defined as? A. Hospitalization Expense B. Hospital Indemnity