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Florida Claims Adjuster Exam | 206 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | 26 Pages, Exams of Community Corrections

Florida Claims Adjuster Exam | 206 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | 26 Pages

Typology: Exams

2022/2023

Available from 05/01/2023

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Download Florida Claims Adjuster Exam | 206 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | 26 Pages and more Exams Community Corrections in PDF only on Docsity! Florida Claims Adjuster Exam | 206 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | 26 Pages 1. Frank owned a home that was destroyed by a hurricane. Both TD Bank and Bank of America were listed as additional interests on his homeowner policy. The insurance company will make a payment to: A. The first mortgagee, TD Bank B. The Insured C. Jointly to TD Bank and Bank of America D. All listed interests - correct answer D. All listed interests 2. Insurance applies separately to each insured as if other insureds did not exist. This is defined as: A. Severability B. Conditional C. Warranty D. None of the above - correct answer A. Severability 3. Property insurance policies usually contain a(n) __________ clause, stating the insured cannot dump damaged property on the insurer and demand its full value: A. Pro Rata B. Abandonment C. Liberalization D. All of the above - correct answer B. Abandonment 4. A(n) __________ is one wherein economic loss would be suffered from an adverse happening to the subject: A. Conditional Contract B. Personal Contract C. Economic Contract D. Insurable Interest - correct answer D. Insurable Interest 5. States that if the insurer adopts a revision which would broaden coverage without additional premium within some period of time prior to the policy period or during the policy period, the insured receives the benefit of such broadened coverage. A. Cancellation Clause B. Policy Period C. Pro Rata D. Liberalization - correct answer D. Liberalization 6. Time frame is typically 60 days 7. The __________ states that when there is an unbroken connection between an occurrence and damage that grows out of the occurrence, then the resultant damage is all a part of the occurrence. A. Doctrine of Proximate Cause B. Doctrine of Perils & Hazards C. Insurance Policy Handbook D. Doctrine of Property Insurance - correct answer D. Doctrine of Property Insurance 8. The Loss Settlement Valuation that subtracts an allowance for depreciation is defined as? A. Actual Cash Value B. Replacement Cost C. "Old for New" D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Actual Cash Value 9. A policy condition, either based on information in the insured's application or inserted by the insurer, is defined as: A. Warranty B. Misrepresentation C. Concealment D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Warranty 10. The following are basic characteristics of a property or liability insurance contract, except: A. Personal Contract 22. 10/20/10 =10,000 per person injured 23. 20,000 all injuries combined 24. 10,000 property damage 25. Example of straight liability limit = $30,000 26. Jeremy has a not at fault accident. If he has PIP with a $1,000 deductible, how much can he expect his PIP coverage to pay toward his medical bills that total $3,000? A. $1,600 B. $1,000 C. $2,400 D. $3,000 - correct answer A. $1,600 27. 3000 (bills) - 1000 (deductible) =2000 x .80 (eighty percent) 28. Frank has a not-at-fault accident, he has basic PIP, no deductible and Med pay of $5,000. How much will his Med Pay contribute to medical bills of $15,000? A. $15,000 B. $5,000 C. $3,000 D. $0, Frank is not-at-fault - correct answer B. $5,000 29. Medical Payment limits apply per person; Frank will receive full amount towards medical bills. 30. Which of the following is not one of the rating factors for a Homeowner's Policy? A. Type of Construction B. Location of Risk C. Age & Gender of Insured D. Proximity to Fire Department - correct answer C. Age & Gender of Insured 31. On a Homeowner's Policy, covers items that are not permanently attached to the dwelling. This is defined as: A. Other Structures B. Excess Structures C. Personal Property D. Dwelling - correct answer A. Other Structures 32. Examples include sheds, fences, pool houses, detached car ports, etc. 33. A lender has an insurable interest in a home and finds protection in the: A. Loss Payee Clause B. Mortgagee Clause C. Lender Clause D. Additional Insured Clause - correct answer B. Mortgagee Clause 34. Mortgagee - Homeowner's policy 35. Loss Payee - Automobile policy 36. When the basic liability limits provided by the policy are insufficient for an insureds needs, two coverage forms are used to provide the additional amounts of coverage: A. Excess Liability B. Umbrella C. Both A & B D. None of the Above - correct answer C. Both A & B 37. Which of the following is not covered under Coverage C, Personal Property? A. A fire breaks out in the residence and an overnight guest loses his clothes in the fire B. A fish dies because he has been left alone for a week without food C. The insureds daughters tennis racket is stolen from her locker D. The insureds suitcase and clothing, valued at $1,500, are stolen from his hotel - correct answer B. A fish dies because he has been left alone for a week without food 38. Animals are listed as an "exclusion" under a Homeowner's policy. 39. All of the following are eligible for a Homeowner's Policy, except? A. An apartment tenant B. A condominium owner C. Four-family dwelling owner-occupant D. A business condo owned by a local insurance company - correct answer D. A business condo owned by a local insurance company 40. Commercial property is not eligible for a Homeowner's policy. 41. Which of the following are characteristics of Homeowner's Insurance? A. Protects against economic loss to residences and household property and legal liabilities B. Owner-occupants of 1-4 family dwellings C. Renters who maintain residential occupancy in any type of building D. All of the Above - correct answer D. All of the Above 42. Jeremy owns a home that is recently damaged due to a hurricane. The repair estimate is averaged at $25,000 and Jeremy decides to stay in a hotel because most of the damage is to his bedroom and kitchen. Under a Homeowner's Policy, what coverage will pay for the hotel room bill? A. Fair Rental Value B. Value Obligation C. Loss of Use D. Insurers Duties - correct answer C. Loss of Use 43. The insurer will pay any necessary and reasonable expenses associated with a daily living routine. 44. An insured who wishes to purchase flood insurance, but is located in a moderate or low risk flood zone may do so by purchasing a: A. Preferred Risk Flood Policy B. Standard Flood Policy C. Universal Flood Insurance D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Preferred Risk Flood Policy 45. Although Flood Insurance is provided by the Federal Government, those who are not in a "flood zone" may purchase a preferred risk policy to cover them for a flood claim. 46. Used only for Commercial Condominiums, it covers the unit-owners business personal property and the personal property of others in the insured's care, custody or control: A. Condominium Dwelling Form B. Personal Condominium Unit Owners Form C. Condominium Unit Owners Form D. None of the Above - correct answer C. Condominium Unit Owners Form 47. Does not cover buildings since coverage would typically be provided under the Condo Association coverage form issued 62. Protects against loss of business income that results from damage to covered property from a covered cause of loss. A. Business Income Insurance Coverage B. Business Income Replacement Coverage C. Business Income Actual Value Coverage D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Business Income Insurance Coverage 63. Period of restoration begins 72 hours after date of direct damage. In effect, coverage has a 72 hour deductible. Coverage ends on either 1. date when damaged property could be repaired, rebuilt, or replaced 2. date business resumes operations at new, permanent location (whichever comes first) 64. What payment covers several areas of costs related to claims, and are payable in addition to the policy limits? A. Supplementary B. Liability C. Personal Injury D. All of the Above - correct answer A. Supplementary 65. Generally, all costs of litigation are covered (court costs, prejudgment interest, judgement interest, cost of bonds to release attachments) 66. Three full-time employees from a local furniture company are horsing around and one is pushed into a machine that cut his foot. How will the company's General Liability respond? A. The Med Pay Section must pay Primary B. The General Liability Policy will pay up to $20,000 in medical payments C. The GL policy will not pay D. Only property damage is covered under GL policy - correct answer C. The GL policy will not pay 67. Coverage excludes liabilities under Workers Comp or similar law or arising from injuries to employees of the insured. The employees would have to file through Workers Comp. 68. Which of the following can be found in a Commercial General Liability Contract? A. Declarations B. Common Policy Conditions C. Occurrence and Claims-Made Forms D. All of the Above - correct answer D. All of the Above 69. There is __________ coverage for injury, damage or clean-up costs caused by pollutants, subject to minor exceptions: A. 50% B. 10% C. 0% D. A Percentage Ratio - correct answer C. 0% 70. Under a Commercial General Liability Policy, a basic limit of __________ per person applies to Medical Payments: A. $1,000 B. $10,000 C. $2,500 D. $5,000 - correct answer D. $5,000 71. Payment is for medical, dental, hospital, and funeral services incurred within one year of date of accident to persons who suffer bodily injury by accident 1. on or next to insured's owned or rented premises, or 2. due to insured's operations. 72. The Commercial General Liability __________ identifies the named insured and address, states the policy period and premium and miscellaneous information about the insured, and specifies the limits of coverage that apply. A. Declarations B. Contract C. Policy D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Declarations 73. The Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion endorsement, in general, __________ all hazards related to nuclear energy. A. Includes B. Excludes C. Prohibits D. Summarizes - correct answer B. Excludes 74. Toxic wastes escaped from a gas station disposal tank. The insured operator discovers the leak and cleans up the spill. Unfortunately, the waste quickly seeped into the ground and has caused illness among the residents of a neighboring community This is an example of? A. Loss Known B. Known Loss C. Claims-Made D. None of the Above - correct answer B. Known Loss 75. Insurer should have been notified and further investigation of the spill and effective clean-up would have been observed. 76. All of the following are components of Workers Compensation, except: A. Up to $750,000 in Death Benefits B. Reimbursement for Medical Expenses incurred C. Reimbursement for lost wages on percentage basis D. Funeral costs up to $7,500 - correct answer A. Up to $750,000 in Death Benefits 77. Compensation for death is payable if death results within one year of an accident or if it follows disability within five years of accident. 78. The following are classes of disability, except: A. Permanent Total B. Temporary Total C. Permanent Impairment D. Temporary Full - correct answer D. Temporary Full 79. The measure to determine disability benefits is the __________ of the employee at the time of injury: A. Average Monthly Wage B. Average Weekly Wage C. Average Daily Wage D. Income Estimate - correct answer B. Average Weekly Wage 80. Mandatory for risks exceeding certain annual premiums, recognizes the prior loss experience of the risk and applies either a debit for unfavorable experience or a credit for better-than-expected loss results. This is defined as: A. The Experience Rating Plan 94. Under Crime Insurance, the insured is covered for loss by: A. Theft B. Burglary C. Robbery D. All of the Above - correct answer D. All of the Above 95. Taking or attempted taking of property from within a locked safe or vault, by unlawful entry, with visible marks of forcible entry, or taking of the safe or vault from inside the premises. This is defined as: A. Safe Burglary B. Inside the Premises C. Custodial Burglary D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Safe Burglary 96. Exclusions: accounting errors, giving/surrendering property, voluntarily parting, fire (except damage to safe/vault), vandalism, transferring property to someone based on unauthorized instructions or from threat to harm 97. Covers for all types of property, when surrendered away from the premises as a result of a threat to do bodily harm to the insured or an employee, or to a relative or invitee of either, who is (or allegedly is) being held captive. This is defined as: A. Extortion B. Surrendered Property C. Client's Property D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Extortion 98. Also triggered by threats to damage the premises or property within the premises. 99. Which of the following are NOT a type of bond? A. Contract B. Fiduciary C. Court D. Apprentice - correct answer D. Apprentice 100. Which of the following are characteristics of a License Bond? A. To guarantee the licensee will act according to laws B. Protect public from unfair business practice C. Proper collection and payment of taxes D. All of the Above - correct answer D. All of the Above 101. Guarantees the performance between the principle and the obligee: A. Principal B. Obligee C. Surety D. All of the Above - correct answer C. Surety 102. One who undertakes to perform, to fulfill a contract or to meet an obligation is known as: A. Principal B. Obligee C. Surety D. All of the Above - correct answer A. Principal 103. Which of the following are parties to a Bond? A. Principal B. Obligee C. Surety D. All of the Above - correct answer D. All of the Above 104. This type of bond covers streets, sidewalks, sewers, etc.: A. Sidewalk B. Subdivision C. Supply D. None of the Above - correct answer B. Subdivision 105. A __________ is a selected group of hospitals and medical practitioners in a given area who have joined together in an effort to reduce medical costs. A. HMO B. Major Medical Insurance C. Coinsurance D. PPO - correct answer D. PPO 106. Define the coverage that pays a flat amount per day for hospitalization, regardless of expenses or other insurance: A. Hospitilization B. Hospital Indemnity C. Hospital Services D. All of the Above - correct answer B. Hospital Indemnity 107. This optional provision states that if the insured becomes totally disabled, premiums are waived but the coverage remains in force: A. Waiver of Subrogation B. Waiver of Premium C. Waiver of Value D. None of the Above - correct answer B. Waiver of Premium 108. 'premiums are waived" 109. Provides coverage for expenses, including loss of income, arising from an accident. This is defined as? A. Accident Insurance B. Hospitilization C. Hospital Pay D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Accident Insurance 110. This type of provision states the insurer can refuse to renew the policy only under certain conditions. The policy must state the conditions under which the policy will not be renewed. This is defined as? A. Conditionally Renewable B. Guaranteed Renewable C. Optionally Renewable D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Conditionally Renewable 111. The coverage that is intended to afford protection against catastrophic losses is defined as? A. Major Medical B. HMO 120. While selling an Automobile policy to a customer, an agent tells them that they are also required to purchase an Emergency Road Service Plan, even though that is not true. This is an example of: A. Misrepresentation B. Lack of Fitness C. Deception D. Sliding - correct answer D. Sliding 121. A licensed General Lines Claim Adjuster is required to complete how many hours of continuing education every two years? A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24 - correct answer D. 24 122. Once a Customer Representative 4-40 has been licensed and appointed for at least 3 years, he or she may transact insurance in the home of an existing customer. A. True B. False - correct answer B. False 123. After pleading guilty or no contest to a felony, a licensed individual has _________ days to inform the Department? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 - correct answer C. 30 124. Must be licensed, appointed by a General Lines Agent and can transact AUTO insurance only in the Office Only. A. Customer Representative 4-40 B. Limited Customer Representative 4-42 C. General Lines Claim Adjuster 6-20 D. General Lines Agent 2-20 - correct answer B. Limited Customer Representative 4-42 125. Defaming a competitor company or agent is not only unprofessional, it can also result in a license suspension. A. True B. False - correct answer A. True 126. A General Lines Claim Adjuster is required to obtain the same number of Continuing Education hours as a licensed Customer Service Representative. A. True B. False - correct answer B. False 127. An Insurance Company which is formed under the laws of the State of Illinois, and has its Home Office there, is considered a: A. US Domestic Company B. Foreign Company C. Alien Company D. Unadmitted Company - correct answer B. Foreign Company 128. Domestic: this state (FL) 129. Foreign: other state (still in US)Alien: elsewhere 130. One who is involved in the investigation, adjustment, negotiation and/or trial preparations of claims arising under insurance policies is defined as: A. Insurance Agent B. General Lines Agent C. Claims Adjuster D. All of the Above - correct answer C. Claims Adjuster 131. Establishing a dollar value on a claim is defined as: A. Negotiation B. Evaluation C. Adjusting D. None of the Above - correct answer B. Evaluation 132. Damaged property that may be retrieved, reconditioned and sold to reduce an insured loss is defined as: A. Junk B. Salvage C. Covered Property D. Peril - correct answer B. Salvage 133. The voluntary or intentional relinquishment of a known right is defined as a(n): A. Waiver B. Estoppel C. Avoidance of Performance D. None of the Above - correct answer A. Waiver 134. The principle of utmost good faith on which an insurance contract is based places serious responsibilities on the claims adjuster in regards to: A. Conduct B. Work Habits C. Claim Handling Activites D. All of the Above - correct answer D. All of the Above 135. The adjusters basic activities in claims handling are: A. Investigation B. Evaluation C. Negotiation D. All of the Above - correct answer D. All of the Above 136. Under the Florida Unfair Insurance Trade Practices Act, penalties are provided for misrepresentation of business practices, which include all of the following except: A. Failing to act promptly B. Failure to explain claim denials in writing C. Denying claims with reasonable investigation D. Failure to maintain complaint handling procedures - correct answer C. Denying claims with reasonable investigation 148. A motor vehicle or mobile home which is a total loss is defined as: A. Lost Profit B. Salvage C. Salvageable D. All of the Above - correct answer B. Salvage 149. When making any payment for damage to an automobile for a partial loss, the insurer shall have printed on the loss settlement, "Failure to use the insurance proceeds in accordance with the security agreement, if any, could be a violation of s.812.014, Florida Statutes." This is payment for a(n): A. Third Party Claim B. Two Party Claim C. Derivative Claim D. All of the Above - correct answer A. Third Party Claim 150. The authority given by an insurer or employer to a licensee to transact insurance or adjust claims on behalf of an insurer or employer is defined as: A. Appointment B. Express Authority C. Registered D. Certificate of Authority - correct answer A. Appointment 151. The Department may issue a nonrenewable temporary license authorizing the appointment of a general lines insurance agent, life agent, or an industrial fire or burglary agent, for a period not to exceed: A. 1 Year B. 6 Weeks C. 1 Month D. 6 Months - correct answer D. 6 Months 152. How many continuing education hours must an insurance adjuster complete every 2 years? A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 14 - correct answer C. 24 153. Charging an applicant for a specific ancillary coverage or product, in addition to the cost of the insurance coverage provided for, without the informed consent of the applicant is a practice of: A. Churning B. Sliding C. Soliciting D. None of the Above - correct answer B. Sliding 154. Which of the following are reasons for refusal, suspension or revocation of a license or appointment? A. Lack of Qualifications B. Failure to Pass State Examinations C. Fraudulent or Dishonest Practices D. All of the Above - correct answer D. All of the Above 155. Every licensee shall notify the department, in writing, after a change of name, residence address, principal business street address and/or mailing address within how many days? A. 60 B. 30 C. 15 D. 90 - correct answer B. 30