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FNP Board Review Exam Questions with Correct Answers: Respiratory System, Exams of Nursing

A.T. Still University of Health Sciences (ATSU)Nursing

A comprehensive set of multiple-choice questions and answers covering various aspects of the respiratory system, including common respiratory conditions, their diagnosis, treatment, and management. It is designed to help fnp students prepare for their board exams by testing their knowledge and understanding of key concepts related to respiratory health.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 03/21/2025

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FNP Board Review Exam Questions with
Correct Answers Latest Update 2025
1. A 24-year old, otherwise healthy college student presents with
c/o cough x 6 weeks. She has tried several OTC cough meds with
no improvement. What is the most important information to
consider when building your differential diagnoses?
a. Her age
b. Family hx
c. Ineffectiveness of OTC cough medicines
d. Length of time she has been coughing - Correct answer D)
Length of time she has been coughing
2. Why? This information helps you build your ddx
3. Acute cough < 3 weeks: bronchitis, sinusitis, PND, exacerbation of
COPD/asthma, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism
4. Chronic cough (>8 weeks) GERD and Asthma are most common
causes, also consider infection (e.g. pertussis, atypical
pneumonia), ACE inhibitors, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis,
lung ca)
5. According to the CDC, what drug class is considered first-line
treatment for pertussis?
a. Sulfonamide
b. Tetracycline
c. Macrolide
d. Beta-lactam - Correct answer C) Macrolide antiobitic (e.g.
Azithromycin, clarithromycin
6. Sulfonamides are second-line
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Download FNP Board Review Exam Questions with Correct Answers: Respiratory System and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

FNP Board Review Exam Questions with

Correct Answers Latest Update 2025

  1. A 24-year old, otherwise healthy college student presents with c/o cough x 6 weeks. She has tried several OTC cough meds with no improvement. What is the most important information to consider when building your differential diagnoses? a. Her age b. Family hx c. Ineffectiveness of OTC cough medicines d. Length of time she has been coughing - Correct answer D) Length of time she has been coughing
  2. Why? This information helps you build your ddx
  3. Acute cough < 3 weeks: bronchitis, sinusitis, PND, exacerbation of COPD/asthma, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism
  4. Chronic cough (>8 weeks) GERD and Asthma are most common causes, also consider infection (e.g. pertussis, atypical pneumonia), ACE inhibitors, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, lung ca)
  5. According to the CDC, what drug class is considered first-line treatment for pertussis? a. Sulfonamide b. Tetracycline c. Macrolide d. Beta-lactam - Correct answer C) Macrolide antiobitic (e.g. Azithromycin, clarithromycin
  6. Sulfonamides are second-line
  1. Match the antibiotics with the correct drug class:
  2. Sulfonamide
  3. Tetracycline
  4. Macrolide
  5. Beta-lactam a. Doxycyline b. Azithromycin c. Penicillins
  6. D.Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole a. Cephalosporin b. Clarithromycin - Correct answer 1. Sulfonamide - D.Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
    1. Tetracycline - A. Doxycycline
    1. Macrolide - B & F, Azithromycin and Clarithromycin
  9. Beta-lactam - C & E, PCN and cephalosporins
  10. What are the three most common bugs in community- acquired pneumonia? - Correct answer Streptococcus pneumoniae
  11. Mycoplasma pneuomiae (atypical pathogen)
  12. Chlamydophila pneumoniae (atypical pathogen)
  13. What is the treatment for CAP caused by Strep pneumo? - Correct answer Respiratory quinolone (e.g. Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin) OR high-dose amoxicillin OR amoxicillin with clavulanate

months. He has never smoked. What diagnoses are included in your differential? Select 4. a. Asthma b. Angina c. COPD d. GERD e. Pneumonia f. Tuberculosis g. Heart Failure - Correct answer B) Angina

  1. C) COPD
  2. F) Tuberculosis
  3. G) Heart failure
  4. How do inhaled anticholinergics work to treat shortness of breath in COPD? a. They cause bronchodilation in the lungs b. They block the action of acetylcholine and prevent bronchoconstriction - Correct answer B) They block the action of acetylcholine and prevent bronchconstriction
  5. Name a short-acting inhaled anticholinergic: - Correct answer Ipratropium (Atrovent)
  6. Name a long-acting inhaled anticholinergic: - Correct answer Tiotropium (Spiriva)
  7. How do inhaled betá-agonists work to treat shortness of breath in COPD? a. They cause bronchodilation in the lungs b. They block the action of acetylcholine and prevent bronchoconstriction - Correct answer A) They cause bronchodilation in the lungs
  1. What are the only 2 inhaled short-acting beta agonists (SABAs): - Correct answer Albuterol and levalbuterol
  2. Name an inhaled long-acting beta agonists (LABAs): - Correct answer Salmeterol (Serevent)
  3. What are the side effects associated with anticholinergic medications? - Correct answer Cognitive impairment, confusion, hallucinations, dry mouth, blurry vision, urinary retention, constipation, tachycardia, acute angle glaucoma
  4. "Can't see, can't pee, can't spit, can't shit."
  5. Name a inhaled combined short-acting anticholinergic/short-acting beta agonist: - Correct answer Ipratropium/albuterol (Combivent)
  6. Name a inhaled combined long-acting beta-agonist/corticosteroid - Correct answer Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair)
  7. Fluticasone/vilanterol (Breo)
  8. Budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort)
  9. Mometasone/frmoterol (Dulera)
  10. Name an inhaled steroid: - Correct answer Fluticasone (Flovent)
  11. Budesonide (Pulmicort)
  12. Mometasone (Asmanex)
  13. Put the following in the correct order for COPD prescribing strategy: a. Long-acting anticholinergic or LABA, plus rescue med

d. Severe persistent asthma - Correct answer C) Moderate persistent asthma

  1. A patient with asthma symptoms more than twice a week, but not daily with occasional nighttime awakenings has a. Intermittent asthma b. Mild persistent asthma c. Moderate persistent asthma d. Severe persistent asthma - Correct answer B) Mild persistent asthma
  2. A patient with asthma symptoms less than twice a week has a. Intermittent asthma b. Mild persistent asthma c. Moderate persistent asthma d. Severe persistent asthma - Correct answer A) Intermittent asthma
  3. A patient with asthma symptoms multiple times throughout the day and nighttime awakenings on most nights of the week has a. Intermittent asthma b. Mild persistent asthma c. Moderate persistent asthma d. Severe persistent asthma - Correct answer D) Severe persistent asthma
  4. What are the most common side effects of long-term inhaled steroid use? a. Osteoporosis and GERD

b. Cataracts and osteopenia c. Hyperkalemia and diabetes d. Hypertension and diabetes - Correct answer B) Cataracts and osteopenia

  1. What medication combination is considered unsafe in a patient with asthma? a. Fluticasone and albuterol b. Mometasone, formoterol, albuterol c. Budesonide and levalbuterol d. Salmeterol and levalbuterol
  2. Why? - Correct answer D) Salmeterol and levalbuterol
  3. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist. LABAs MUST be combined with an inhaled corticosteroid (e.g. Advair, Breo, Symbicort)
  4. A 30-year old male has persistent asthma. What daily medication regimen would be appropriate? a. Albuterol b. Low-dose fluticasone, albuterol c. Medium-dose fluticasone d. Budseonide, salmeterol, albuterol - Correct answer C) Medium-dose fluticasone
  5. Albuterol alone is used for intermittent asthma Albuterol should not be used daily (if the patient is using their rescue inhaler more than twice a week --> call the PCM!)
  6. Mr. Jones, a 45-year old drug and alcohol counselor, smokes 1 PPD and c/o cough, low-grade fever, and night sweats for the

a. Repeat CXR, CBC, and start levofloxacin b. Start azithromycin 5-day pack c. Continue with amoxicillin-clavulanate for another 24 hours d. Stop amoxicillin-clavulanate and start doxcycline 100 mg BID x 7 days - Correct answer D) Stop amoxicillin- clavulanate and start doxycycline 100 mg BID x 7 days

  1. She most likely has an atypical pathogen (mycoplasma pneumoniae or chlamydophila pneumoniae), which should be treated with a macrolide or doxycycline
  2. If a 19-year old college female diagnosed with community acquired pneumonia was pregnant in her first trimester, how could she be managed? a. Levofloxacin 750 mg PO daily x 5 days b. Azithromycin 500 mg on day 1, then 250 mg daily on days 2- 5, plus amoxicillin 1000 mg BID c. Cephalexin 500 mg PO BID x 5 days d. Doxycyline 100 mg PO BID x 5 days - Correct answer B) Azithromycin 500 mg on day 1, then 250 mg daily on days 2- 5, plus amoxicillin 1000 mg BID
  3. Quinolones (e.g. levofloxacin) and tetracyclines (e.g. doxycycline) are teratogenic and should not be given during pregnancy
  4. A 63-year old patient w/ COPD c/o a pounding heart after using his inhaler. Which of the following is the least likely culprit? a. Fluticasone b. Albuterol c. Iptratropium d. Salmeterol - Correct answer A) Fluticasone
  1. Mr. Smith, an 80-year old smoker, has stage II COPD. Based on his medications, what is the most predictable drug-disease interaction?
  2. Losartan 50 mg, HCTZ 12.5 mg, Amlodipine 5 mg daily, Tamsulosin (Flomax) 0.8 mg daily, Atorvastatin (Lipitor) 10 mg daily, Albuterol inhaler 2 puffs PRN for SOB, tiotropium (Spiriva) once daily a. Glaucoma b. Frequent urination c. Anxiety d. Pruritis e. Hyperglycemia f. Fatigue g. Constipation - Correct answer G) Constipation
  3. Amlodipine (CCB) and tiotropium (short-acting anti- cholinergic)
  4. An obese 55-year old woman with a history of moderate persistent asthma has a temperature of 101F, bilateral wheezes, mild shortness of breath, and purulent sputum. Her med list includes: fluticasone/salmeterol BID, albuterol PRN, amlodipine 5 mg, levothyroxine 99 mcg daily, and metformin 1000 mg BID. How should she be managed today? a. Treat with azithromycin daily for 5 days b. Treat with ciprofloxacin, nebulized albuterol q4-6 hours PRN for wheezing c. Treat with oral steroid and nebulized levalbuterol q8 hours PRN

89. MCV 90

90. MCH 25.

91. MCHC 33.

92. RDW 14.

93. PLT 265

  1. MPV 7.1 - Correct answer Yes
  2. Name 3 causes of anemia. Which is the most common reason in the US? - Correct answer Blood loss (most common), sick bone marrow, increased RBC destruction i. Blood loss - melena, hematemesis, trauma ii. Bone marrow does not make enough RBCs
  3. -not enough iron, folate, B
  4. -bone marrow disorders (e.g. aplastic anemia)-bone marrow suppression (e.g. chemo)
  5. -low levels of erythropoietin (e.g. chronic renal failure)
  6. -anemia of inflammation (e.g. malignancy, anemia of chronic disease)
    1. Increased RBC destruction
  8. -inherited disorders (e.g. thalassemia, sickle cell anemia)
  9. -malaria
  10. -hemolytic anemia (e.g. G6PD deficiency)
  11. How do the following conditions affect Hgb/Hct?
  12. (e.g. Increase, Decrease, Neutral)
  13. COPD:
  14. CKD:
  15. HTN:
  16. DM w/ AIC 14:
  17. Aspirin use:
  18. Testosterone use:
  1. Resident of Denver, CO:
  2. Age > 80: - Correct answer COPD: Increase (tissues are chronically deprived of oxygen)
  3. CKD: Decrease
  4. HTN: Neutral
  5. DM w/ AIC 14: Decrease (poorly controlled disease, strains RBCs and causes them to die early)
  6. Aspirin use: Neutral
  7. Testosterone use: Increase
  8. Resident of Denver, CO: Increase (r/t high altitude)
  9. Age > 80: Decreased (bone marrow is not as robust...RBC production is decreased, but DO NOT assume that anemia in an older patient is due to aging!)
  10. Which of the RBC indices tells you about RBC size?
  11. What level is normal?
  12. What level indicates microcytic (small) RBCs?
  13. What level indicates macrocytic (large) RBCs? - Correct answer Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) = Hct/RBC
  14. Normal = 80-
  15. Microcytic <
  16. Macrocytic >
  17. Which of the RBC indices tells you about the RBC color?
  18. What does a low level tell you about the RBC color? - Correct answer Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
  19. Low MCH = hypochromic (pale) RBC
  20. Match the lab with the definition
  21. Serum iron
  22. Serum ferritin
  23. Reticulocyte count
  24. Peripheral smear
  1. In ____________ iron deficiency anemia, the RDW is < 15%. - Correct answer Longstanding, chronic (all RBCs are small)
  2. A 24-year old woman was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia 4 weeks ago (Hgb 11.5, Hct 34.5%). Today her Hgb is 12. and her Hct is 38.4%. How do you proceed? a. Stop iron supplementation since she is no longer anemic b. Order a reticuloctye count c. Order a TIBC d. Consider continued iron supplementation for another 3- months - Correct answer D) Consider continued iron supplementation for another 3-5 months (to replace iron stores)
  3. In addition to acanthosis nigricans, which of the following is a risk factor for insulin resistance? a. Delivery of infant > 9 lbs b. Severe obesity c. Age > 65 d. Sleep Apnea - Correct answer B) Severe obesity
  4. The ADA recommends annual screening for diabetes for patients with a BMI greater than _______ and one ore more risk factors. - Correct answer 25
  5. The ADA recommends screening for the entire population over the age of _____________ every ____ years if the screening is normal. - Correct answer 45; 3
  6. Mr.Smith is a 75-year old man with an Ā1C of 8.9%. Which of the following should be the provider's first action? a. Start metformin b. Discuss exercise, weight loss

c. Establish an Ā1C goal of < 7% d. Establish a target Ā1C goal - Correct answer D) Establish a target Ā1C goal

  1. Match the Suggested Ā1C goals for T2DM a. Patient with T1DM b. Most pregnant patients c. Older patients d. Most adults with T2DM
  2. Ā1C < 7%
  3. Ā1C < 6%
  4. Ā1C < 8%
  5. Ā1C < 6% - Correct answer A - 2) Patients with T1DM = goal < 6%
  6. B - 4) Most pregnant patients = goal <6 %
  7. C - 3) Older patients = goal < 8%
  8. D - 1) Most adults with T2DM = goal < 7&
  9. Mr. Johnson is a 72-year old newly diagnosed Type 2 diabetic. Which of the choices below must be considered prior to starting Metformin in this patient? Select 4. a. CBC b. eGFR c. LFTs d. Presence of heart failure e. Presence of binge drinking f. Use of CCBs g. Presence of BPH - Correct answer B) eGFR
  10. C) LFTs
  11. D) Presence of heart failure
  12. E) Presence of binge drinking
  1. Metformin 1000 mg BID can produce a 1-2% drop in Ā1C
  2. Based on the primary mechanism of action of Metformin, what lab value must be evaluated and monitored? a. ALT, AST b. BUN, Cre c. eGFR d. Potassium - Correct answer A) AST, ALT
  3. Metformin works in the liver to decrease hepatic glucose output
  4. 35-year old female with newly diagnosed impaired fasting glucose and Ā1C of 5.9% i. What medication is first-line? ii. What if she is contemplating pregnancy? - Correct answer 1) Metformin iii. Metformin is OK in pregnancy
  5. A 48-year old postmenopausal woman with T2DM diagnosed 6 weeks ago c/o persistent diarrhea with Metformin. Her Ā1C is 9.2% (goal < 7%) i. What is the primary prescribing strategy? ii. What medication should you avoid in this patient? - Correct answer 1) Dual therapy (Ā1C > 9%) iii. TZDs (Actos, Avandia) increase the risk of fracture, avoid in postmenopausal women
  6. A 77-year old female with newly diagnosed T2DM and Ā1C of 9.5%. i. What is her Ā1C goal? ii. What occurrence should be avoided if at all possible?

iii. What age-related prescribing strategy would you consider in this patient with an Ā1C of 9.5%? - Correct answer 1) < 8%

    1. Hypoglycemia
    1. Monotherapy (older adult patient)
  3. A 62-year old male is taking Metformin and has an Ā1C of 7.9% and is on a fixed budget. His Ā1C goal is < 7%. i. What med class would be your first choice? - Correct answer 1) Sulfonylurea - lowers Ā1C by 1-2%
  4. 27-year old male with lupus has a eGFR of 48 and Ā1C of 7.2%, newly diagnosed with T2DM. i. What medication is first choice in this patient? - Correct answer 1) Metformin (can be given as long as the GFT is > 45, monitor closely)
  5. 35-year old obese male with hx of T2DM is on the max dose of Metformin. His Ā1C is 7.6 (goal < 7%). He desires weight loss and is needle-phobic. i. What medication class should be considered ii. Which med class(es) should be avoided? - Correct answer 1) SGLT-2 inhibitor (canagliflozin - Invokana, empagliflozin - Jardiance)
  6. 2)Sulfonylureas (a/w weight gain)
  7. GLP-1, insulin (injectables)
  8. 82-year old male with T2DM is currently on max dose of Metformin. His Ā1C is 7.9%. i. What is your plan at this visit for his Ā1C? - Correct answer 1) A reasonable Ā1C goal for his age is <8%. Review lifestyle modifications and decrease carb intake