FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS 2024-2025 UPDATED LATEST GRADED 100% PASS, Exams of Nursing

Download FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS 2024-2025 UPDATED LATEST GRADED 100% PASS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH 100%

CORRECT ANSWERS 2024-

UPDATED LATEST GRADED 100% PASS.

3-1. All of the following are true of Healthy People 2020 except: A. It is funded by the pharmaceutical industry B. It is a national agenda that communicates a vision for improving health and achieving health equity of the U.S. population C. It provides a set of more than 1,200 specific, measurable objectives with targets to be achieved over the decade D. Initiatives are organized by general health and wellness topics, age, and special needs populations such as maternal health or vulnerable population groups - Solution A. It is funded by the pharmaceutical industry 3-2. The Lesbian, Bay, Bisexual, and Transgender (LGBT) population is included as a special population in the Healthy People 2020 initiative due to which of the following health concerns? A. LGBT population experiences few social barriers to healthcare caused by discrimination B. LGBT youth can be at special risk, with increased suicide rates 2-3 times higher than the general population C. LGBT individuals have less access to healthcare due to living in poorly served rural areas D. LGBT individuals experience a lower risk of violence and victimization, which has long-lasting effects on the individual and the community - Solution B. LGBT youth can be at special risk, with increased suicide rates 2-3 times higher than the general population 3-3. Many objectives of Healthy People 2020 focus on broader population issues including which of the following? A. Increasing health disparities B. Reducing equal access to quality healthcare C. Increasing services to identified minority populations

D. Decreasing the availability and dissemination of health-related information - Solution C. Increasing services to identified minority populations 3-4. Improvement in sleep health is an objective of Healthy People 2020 for what reason? A. Inadequate sleep has implications for driving safety, work productivity, and quality of life B. 75% of adult population in the U.S. reports some sort of sleep disturbance C. Sleep apnea can be successfully treated with zolpidem D. Sleep apnea significantly increases the risk of diabetes and glaucoma - Solution A. Inadequate sleep has implications for driving safety, work productivity, and quality of life 3-5. Which organization, created by Congress in 1984, is an independent, volunteer panel of national experts that develops screening recommendations based on evidence-based medicine? A. The World Health Organization B. American Association of Family Physicians C. National Screening Program D. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) - Solution D. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) 3-6. Daily exercise and staying current with routine-recommended immunizations are examples of what level of prevention? A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Primordial prevention - Solution A. Primary prevention 3-7. A patient with type 2 diabetes who sees a podiatrist for monthly foot examinations is practicing what type of prevention? A. Tertiary prevention B. Primary prevention C. Secondary prevention

D. Diabetic surveillance - Solution C. Secondary prevention 3-8. A patient who has experienced a stroke with hemiparesis and is now participating in occupational therapy is practicing what type of prevention? A. Tertiary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Primary prevention D. Disease mitigation - Solution A. Tertiary prevention 3-9. The CDC reports that the costliest healthcare expenditures in the U.S. are attributed to: A. Ebola and dengue fever B. Chronic, preventable diseases C. Tick-borne diseases, such as Lyme disease D. Motor vehicle accidents - Solution B. Chronic, preventable diseases 3-10. The term prevalence refers to: A. Health conditions required through statute, ordinance, or administrative rule to be reported to a public health agency when diagnosed in an individual B. A group of cases of a specific disease or illness clearly in excess of what one would normally expect in a particular geographic area C. Illness or lack of health caused by disease, disability, or injury D. The proportions of people in a population who have some attribute or condition at a given point in time, or during a specified time period - Solution D. The proportions of people in a population who have some attribute or condition at a given point in time, or during a specified time period 3-11. Which of the following tests carries a grade A recommendation for a 67-year-old male who has smoked a pack of cigarettes every day for the last 25 years? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Chest CT C. PSA D. Pulmonary function test - Solution A. Abdominal ultrasound

3-12. The ability of a test to correctly identify whose with the disease (true positive rate) is known as: A. False positivity B. Incidence rate C. Sensitivity D. Specificity - Solution C. Sensitivity 3-13. The ability of a test to correctly identify those with-out the disease (true negative rate) is known as: A. Mortality rate B. Prevalence rate C. Sensitivity D. Specificity - Solution D. Specificity 3-14. According to the USPSTF, which population has the highest risk of contracting HIV and should be screened? A. A 25-year-old patient with a negative HIV test last year B. A 35-year-old patient recently diagnosed with hepatitis B contracted from IV drug use C. A 42-year-old patient with a 10-year history of smoking marijuana D. A 72-year-old patient in a monogamous sexual relationship - Solution B. A 35-year-old patient recently diagnosed with hepatitis B contracted from IV drug use 3-15. Which of the following is not a permanent contraindication to vaccination? A. Systemic allergic reaction to a vaccine component B. Encephalopathy following pertussis immunization C. Pregnancy in a younger female D. Anaphylaxis to a vaccine component - Solution C. Pregnancy in a younger female 3-16. Which type of vaccine involves manipulation of the bacterial cell wall to make the immune response more effective in infancy?

A. Conjugate B. Live C. Polysaccharide D. Toxoid - Solution A. Conjugate 3-17. In which of the following scenarios might it be acceptable to postpone immunization? A. Low-grade fever or mild illness B. Moderate to severe illness C. Prior localized reaction D. All of the above - Solution B. Moderate to severe illness 3-18. Which type of vaccine is always contraindicated in pregnancy? A. Polysaccharide B. Toxoid C. Killed D. Live - Solution D. Live 4-1. All of the following may effect a drug's absorption except: A. Size of the drug molecule B. Food in the gut C. Available surface area D. P450 enzyme system - Solution D. P450 enzyme system 4-2. The primary means of medication excretion is through: A. The liver B. The kidneys C. Exhaled air D. Sweat from pores - Solution B. The kidneys 4-3. Which of the following describes and agonist? A. A chemical that has a harder time crossing the blood-brain barrier B. A chemical that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity C. A chemical that binds to a receptor and blocks or inhibits cellular activity

D. A chemical that has a longer half-life than a competing chemical - Solution B. A chemical that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity 4-4. Chirality refers to: A. The shape of the medication molecule B. The shape of a drug receptor C. A drug that blocks a matching receptor D. A drug that shows affinity for certain receptors - Solution A. The shape of the medication molecule 4-5. The P450 enzyme system affects the way medications are metabolized. Which of the following is an example of the P450 system in action? A. The ease that a medication is bound by plasma binding proteins B. A bigger molecule having a harder time crossing membranes C. Grapefruit juice interacting with a medication's metabolism D. The need to lower the dose of a medication because of poor kidney function - Solution C. Grapefruit juice interacting with a medication's metabolism 4-6. An 88-year-old male is being treated for complicated pyelonephritis with gentamicin IM daily. His wife called the office to report that he didn't hear his alarm clock go off this morning. In addition, when their granddaughter called earlier that day, he had to hand the phone to his wife because he couldn't understand what she was saying. Based on this information, you are most concerned about which possible serious adverse effect of gentamicin? A. Dementia B. Hepatotoxicity C. Xerophthalmia D. Ototoxicity - Solution D. Ototoxicity 4-7. A 56-year-old male presents to the office as a new patient. When reviewing his medical history you notice "medication-induced tendonitis with subsequent tendon rupture" listed under past problems. Even though

he connote remember the medication, you know that it is a serious adverse effect of which of the following drugs? A. ceftriaxone (Rocephin) B. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) C. darifenacin (Enablex) D. phenazopyridine (Pyridium) - Solution B. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 4-8. A 33-year-old female presents to the office with complaints of urinary urgency, frequency, pressure, and dysuria. You would like to prescribe nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) 100mg PO BID X 5 days for her uncomplicated UTI. Which medical information would cause you to choose a different antibiotic? A. She reports bright orange urine after taking Pyridium earlier today B. She sometimes takes diphenhydramine to sleep at night C. She has a history of an allergic reaction to amoxicillin D. She is currently 39 weeks pregnant - Solution D. She is currently 39 weeks pregnant 4-9. Edith L. is a 36-year-old pregnant woman who presents at the clinic with symptoms of fever, chills, and body aches. Symptoms started last night, and she tests positive for influenza A. Which of the following would you prescribe? A. oseltamivir (Tamiflu) B. zanamivir (Relenza) C. peramivir (Rapivab) D. amantadine (Symmetrel) - Solution A. oseltamivir (Tamiflu) 4-10. Phillip R. is a 42-year-old male who presents to the clinic with recurrent genital herpes. Which of the following is recommended for the treatment of genital herpes in this individual? A. ganciclovir (Zirgan) B. atazanavir (Reyataz) C. valacyclovir (Valtrex) D. ribavirin (Virazole) - Solution C. valacyclovir (Valtrex)

4-11. Lucas M. is a 65-year-old male who presents with elevated liver enzymes, and further testing indicates he has hepatitis C (HCV). All of the following are true of pharmacologic treatment of HCV except. A. Test all patients for evidence of current or prior hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection before initiating treatment with HCV direct acting antivirals B. Hepatitis C treatment is generally swift, simple, and straightforward C. The most common initial treatments are combination medications based on the genotype of the virus D. Patients should be evaluated for co-infection with HIV and the presence of cirrhosis - Solution B. Hepatitis C treatment is generally swift, simple, and straightforward 4-12. Which is not a mechanism of action of chemotherapy? A. Ensuring the RNA inside a cancer cell is unchanged B. Cell apoptosis due DNA damage C. Destruction of checkpoint proteins D. Intervention at some point in the cell life cycle of DNA replication - Solution A. Ensuring the RNA inside a cancer cell is unchanged 4-13. Jennifer P. is a 58-year-old female being treated with cisplatin for breast cancer. The nurse practitioner knows that part of the management plan should include frequent testing of which lab test? A. Serum glucose B. Complete blood count (CBC) C. Urinalysis D. Uric acid - Solution B. Complete blood count (CBC) 4-14. The following patients are being seen in the oncology clinic: Melissa F., who is receiving whole brain irradiation for metastatic breast cancer; Jason S., who is receiving interferon for Kaposi sarcoma; and Sandra M., who is receiving treatment with cyclophosphamide for ovarian cancer. The nurse practitioner knows that these three patients are at risk for which common side effect? A. Increased energy prior to treatment B. Insomnia C. Tachycardia

D. Oral candidiasis - Solution D. Oral candidiasis 4-15. Which of the following is a chemotherapeutic (anti-cancer) dosing principle? A. Drugs should be administered at low doses but with increased frequency B. Drugs are more beneficial if major toxicities are nonoverlapping C. Drugs should be administered infrequently to minimize side effects D. Drugs are rarely effective in combination - Solution C. Drugs should be administered infrequently to minimize side effects 4-16. Which of the following is an antineoplastic drug that is also used to treat psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis? A. methotrexate (Trexall) B. mercaptopurine (Purixan) C. allopurinol (Zyloprim) D. procarbazine (Matulane) - Solution A. methotrexate (Trexall) 4-17. While performing patient education about drug-food interactions, the nurse practitioner cautions a patient to avoid grapefruit juice because he takes which of the following medications? A. lisinopril (Zestril) B. verapamil (Calan) C. warfarin (Coumadin) D. timolol (Timoptic) - Solution B. verapamil (Calan) 4-18. Mrs. K. comes to the clinic because she has experienced nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for three days. She has lost two pounds. Her medications include rosuvastatin, lisinopril, vitamin D, digoxin, and zolpidem. Which lab is most critical for the nurse practitioner to draw? A. Lipid profile B. Urinalysis C. Vitamin D level D. Digoxin level - Solution D. Digoxin level 4-19. Daria is a 27-year-old female who is being started on propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. In addition, she is taking metformin and glipizide for

diabetes. It is important to include what information when teaching her about this new medication? A. Signs and symptoms of low blood sugar may not be as apparent B. It is okay to stop the propranolol if her migraines don't improve C. If a rash occurs, it is a minor side effect and should go away D. She should expect her total cholesterol and LDL levels to improve - Solution A. Signs and symptoms of low blood sugar may not be as apparent 4-20. Which patient is a candidate for warfarin (Coumadin) following a diagnosis of DVT? A. 45-year-old on Irbesartan and fluvastatin B. 34-year-old with coffee ground emesis C. 18-year-old who is 36 weeks pregnant D. 29-year-old female with von Willebrand disease - Solution 4-21. Which calcium channel blocker has little to no effect on conduction through the SA and AV nodes? A. procainamide (Pronestyl) B. verapamil (Calan) C. amlodipine (Norvasc) D. diltiazem (Cardizem) - Solution C. amlodipine (Norvasc) The nurse practitioner is seeing a patient for acute exacerbation of asthma. The patient reports increasing shortness of breath and wheezing the last two days. He ran out of his albuterol inhaler and has been using his grandmother's inhaler (formoterol) with no improvement. What is the best rationale for the ineffectiveness of the formoterol? A. His grandmother nay have used all of the medicine in her inhaler B. formoterol is a long-acting beta agonist and is not effective for acute symptoms C. formoterol is an inhaled corticosteroid and is not effective for acute symptoms D. He is not using the inhaler correctly - Solution B. formoterol is a long- acting beta agonist and is not effective for acute symptoms

Which medication has the following mechanism of action: decreases inflammation and mucus production and causes bronchodilation by selectively binding leukotriene receptors? A. zafirlukast (Accolate) B. omalizumab (Xolair) C. ciclesonide (Alvesco) D. cromolyn sodium (Intal) - Solution A. zafirlukast (Accolate) Which medication would cause concern prior to prescribing ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)? A. albuterol (Proair) B. fluoxetine (Prozac) C. montelukast (Singulair) D. Tamsulosin (Flomax) - Solution D. Tamsulosin (Flomax) Kayla complains of pain on her tongue and a white coating to her tongue. She is diagnosed with oral candidiasis. The nurse practitioner knows this diagnosis is a complication of which medication? A. metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor) B. mometasone (Asmanex) C. lamotrigine (Lamictal) D. colchicine (Colcrys) - Solution B. mometasone (Asmanex) In order to cover meals eaten within 30-60 minutes, which type of insulin should be prescribed by the nurse practitioner? A. Intermediate-acting insulin B. Long-acting insulin C. Rapid-acting insulin D. Short-acting insulin - Solution D. Short-acting insulin A patient has recently been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which medication will the nurse practitioner prescribe? A. hydrocortisone (Cortef) B. levothyroxine (Levoxyl) C. methimazole (Tapazole)

D. metformin (Glucophage) - Solution C. methimazole (Tapazole) What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas used for type 2 diabetes? A. Decrease hepatic production of glucose B. Enhance insulin secretion by binding to pancreatic beta cell receptor sites C. Mimic endogenous insulin by binding to cell wall receptors D. Stimulate insulin secretion in a short-acting manner - Solution B. Enhance insulin secretion by binding to pancreatic beta cell receptor sites The nurse practitioner is caring for a patient with Addison disease with low aldosterone levels. Which medication will the nurse practitioner prescribe for aldosterone replacement? A. cortisone (Cortone) B. fludrocortisone (Florinef) C. hydrocortisone (Cortef) D. prednisone (Deltasone) - Solution B. fludrocortisone (Florinef) Which type of insulin should be prescribed specifically to cover insulin needs for about half the day or overnight? A. Intermediate-acting insulin B. Long-acting insulin C. Rapid-acting insulin D. Short-acting insulin - Solution A. Intermediate-acting insulin The nurse practitioner is prescribing antipyrine and benzocaine for a child with otitis externa. Which is the correct prescription? A. Fill affected ear canal and repeat daily B. 2 drops to affected ear canal twice daily C. 2 drops to affected ear canal 4 times daily D. Fill affected ear canal, repeat every 2 hours as needed - Solution D. Fill affected ear canal, repeat every 2 hours as needed Which medication should be discontinued if eye pain or irritation occurs? A. cyclosporin

B. ocular lubricants C. brimonidine D. gentamicin - Solution B. ocular lubricants For which of the following medications is the patient required to keep the eyes closed for 2-3 minutes without blinking or squinting? A. cyclosporin (Restasis) B. brimonidine (Alphagan) C. pilocarpine (Salagen) D. carbachol (Miostat) - Solution A. cyclosporin (Restasis) Which next step should be included in the instructions following the administration of carbamide peroxide? A. Keep the eyes closed for 2-3 minutes B. Wait 15 minutes prior to inserting contact lenses C. Gently irrigate the ear canal with warm water D. Make sure vision is clear before driving - Solution C. Gently irrigate the ear canal with warm water The nurse practitioner is prescribing medication for a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following medication classes would be an inappropriate choice? A. Antacids B. Antispasmodics C. H2 blockers D. Proton pump inhibitors - Solution B. antispasmodics A child has recently been diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will the nurse practitioner prescribe? A. ivermectin (Stromectal) B. mesalamine (Apriso) C. metoclopramide (Reglan) D. metronidazole (Flagyl) - Solution D. metronidazole (Flagyl) Which of the following medications may cause hypohidrosis?

A. lactulose (Cephulac) B. atropine/diphenoxylate (Lomotil) C. arlex (Sorbitol) D. cimetidine (Tagamet) - Solution B. atropine/diphenoxylate (Lomotil) The nurse practitioner is caring for an 18-month-old who has had vomiting and diarrhea for one day. Which of the following antiemetics should the nurse practitioner avoid prescribing? A. chlorpromazine (Thorazine) B. metoclopramide (Reglan) C. ondansetron (Zofran) D. promethazine (Phenergan) - Solution D. promethazine (Phenergan) A patient has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) by the nurse practitioner. Which medication is the nurse practitioner likely to prescribe? A. cimetidine (Tagamet) B. dexamethasone (Decadron) C. dicyclomine (Bentyl) D. infliximab (Remicade) - Solution C. dicyclomine (Bentyl) Which meal choice will the nurse practitioner recommend for the patient to have when taking a dose of ivermectin? A. Baked lean chicken and asparagus B. Grilled whitefish and broccoli C. Pork chop with baked potato and butter D. Vegetable salad with lemon juice - Solution C. Pork chop with baked potato and butter A 75-year-old man presents to the office with complaints of blurry vision, urinary retention, dry mouth, and constipation. Based on these symptoms, you know he is most likely experiencing an adverse reaction to which of the following? A. nifedipine (Procardia) B. baby aspirin (Bayer low dose) C. solifenacin (VESIcare)

D. omega-3 fish oil - Solution C. solifenacin (VESIcare) An 18-year-old female presents to the office for insertion of the Skyla LNG IUD. As you prepare for the procedure, which information in her chart would cause you to reschedule her appointment for a later date? A. She was recently diagnosed with a right-sided ovarian cyst B. She is currently being treated for pelvic inflammatory disease C. She has poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus D. She takes amphetamine/dextroamphetamine for attention deficit disorder - Solution B. She is currently being treated for pelvic inflammatory disease A 33-year-old presents to the office with the desire to start combined oral contraceptives. This method is contraindicated if which of the following is part of her health history? A. First-degree relative with breast cancer B. Gestational hypertension during her second pregnancy C. Smoking five cigarettes per day D. Factor V Leiden - Solution D. Factor V Leiden Which statement is true regarding the use of backup contraception following the initial start of combined oral contraceptives (COC)? A. Backup contraception should be used for the first seven days of the menstrual cycle after a Sunday start B. Backup contraception is not needed with the quick start method C. Backup contraception is needed for the first full menstrual cycle following the first day start method D. Backup contraception should be used for the first 14 days of the menstrual cycle with the Sunday start method - Solution A. Backup contraception should be used for the first seven days of the menstrual cycle after a Sunday start Which complaint would not be of concern in a patient newly started on norethindrone/ethinyl estradiol? A. Headache B. Abdominal pain

C. Diplopia D. Irregular bleeding - Solution D. Irregular bleeding The nurse practitioner (NP) is evaluating a teenager who reports having taken 42 extra-strength acetaminophen (Tylenol) caplets. What will the NP order as an antidote? A. magnesium sulfate (Epsom salt) B. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate) C. acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) D. acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) - Solution D. acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) Which of the following medications is least likely to be associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome? A. acetaminophen (Tylenol) B. allopurinol (Zyloprim) C. morphine (Roxanol) D. naproxen (Anaprox) - Solution C. morphine (Roxanol) A patient has had repeat attacks of gout over a one-to two-year period. Which medication should the nurse practitioner choose for long-term treatment for this patient? A. ibuprofen (Motrin) B. allopurinol (Zyloprim) C. hydrocortisone (Cortef) D. colchicine (Colcrys) - Solution B. allopurinol (Zyloprim) The nurse practitioner has just diagnosed a patient with mild rheumatoid arthritis. Which medication will the nurse practitioner likely prescribe? A. Corticosteroid B. Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) D. Opioid - Solution C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) Which testing is needed prior to initiation of biologic response modifiers for rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Complete blood count B. Chest x-ray C. Hepatitis B and C D. All of the above - Solution D. All of the above For the adult patient, what is the maximum amount of acetaminophen that can be taken per day? A. 1 gram B. 2 grams C. 4 grams D. 5 grams - Solution C. 4 grams Regarding benzodiazepines, which of the following is true? A. They provide sedative effects B. They produce general anesthesia C. They have analgesic actions D. They require weeks for an effect - Solution A. They provide sedative effects What is sumatriptan used for? A. Treatment of a severe headache B. Prophylaxis of migraine headaches C. Acute treatment of a migraine headache D. Acute treatment of a tension headache - Solution C. Acute treatment of a migraine headache The nurse practitioner is caring for a 28-year-old woman with myoclonic seizures that are well controlled on valproic acid. The woman states that she would like to become pregnant in the next year. What should the NP consider regarding the woman's anticonvulsant medication? A. Continue the present therapy B. Consider changing to lamotrigine C. Decrease the valproic acid dose D. Add a second anticonvulsant - Solution B. Consider changing to lamotrigine

In Alzheimer's disease, donepezil is used to increase which chemical in the brain? A. Serotonin B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. Acetylcholine - Solution D. Acetylcholine Which of the following medications is the only one FDA-approved for the management of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? A. pramipexole (Mirapex) B. riluzole (Rilutek) C. tetrabenazine (Xenazine) D. topiramate (Topamax) - Solution B. riluzole (Rilutek) Opal calls the clinic to ask for advice about OTC medications. She is complaining of runny nose and sneezing with no other symptoms. Past medical history is remarkable for hypertension. You would intervene if you over heard the office nurse tell her which of the following? A. "You may take an over-the-counter antihistamine like diphenhydramine or loratadine." B. "If your symptoms don't improve in 7 to 10 days, or if they get worse, come into the clinic." C. "You can take any of the over-the-counter cold remedies." D. "Be sure to wash your hands after sneezing or blowing your nose." - Solution C. "You can take any of the over-the-counter cold remedies." A 5-month-old infant is diagnosed with influenza A. Her mother asks for information about keeping her fever down. Based on your knowledge of OTC antipyretics, which of the following statements by the nurse practitioner is best? A. "You may use acetaminophen for her fever." B. "You may use aspirin for her fever." C. "You may use ibuprofen for her fever." D. "You may use a combination of acetaminophen and ibuprofen for her fever." - Solution A. "You may use acetaminophen for her fever."

A patient that has been taking ranitidine and omeprazole for 2 years is at risk of ________________ deficiency? A. potassium B. vitamin C C. calcium D. vitamin B12 - Solution D. vitamin B A patient with LLQ abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, presents to the primary care clinic. Your initial workup includes a urinalysis and CBC with differential. The patient wants symptomatic relief while awaiting a diagnosis. Which medication would be contraindicated? A. acetaminophen (Tylenol) B. ibuprofen (Advil) C. loperamide (Imodium A-D) D. promethazine (Phenergan) - Solution C. loperamide (Imodium A-D) The "Five Rights" of medication administration can help the nurse practitioner remember how to safely write a prescription. It is prudent to remember which additional two "rights" to ensure best prescribing practices? A. Pharmacy and location B. Rationale and documentation C. Nurse practitioner and patient's addresses D. Response and follow-up - Solution B. Rationale and documentation Which of the following is true about Schedule II controlled substances? A. A prescription may only be called into the pharmacy in the event of an emergency B. They are highly addictive, and currently do not have any medical use C. Refills may be written, faxed, or called in to the pharmacy D. The patient will need a new prescription after five refills or six months - Solution A. A prescription may only be called into the pharmacy in the event of an emergency According to the rule of prescribing scheduled medications, refills for schedule IV drugs such as lorazepam:

A. Are allowed, and a new Rx is needed after one year of treatment B. Are allowed, and a new Rx is needed after three months of treatment C. Are allowed, and a new Rx is needed after six months of treatment D. Are not allowed - Solution C. Are allowed, and a new Rx is needed after six months of treatment The FDA is in the process of eliminating the pregnancy categories (A, B, C, D, and X) and replacing them with a new labeling system. All of the following are benefits of the new system, except: A. It will include information for females and males of reproductive potential, pregnancy, and lactation B. It will summarize the specific risks associated with each medication C. The Organization will be much simpler than using the five categories D. If a medication is absorbed systemically, it will state whether the information is based on animal or human studies - Solution C. The Organization will be much simpler than using the five categories Fluorescein stain and a Wood's lamp are useful in diagnosing which disorders? A. Corneal abrasions and herpes keratitis B. Glaucoma and allergic conjunctivitis C. Herpes keratitis and bacterial conjunctivitis D. Corneal abrasions and glaucoma - Solution A. Corneal abrasions and herpes keratitis Which of the following sets of clinical manifestations is consistent with acute angle-closure glaucoma? A. Gradual increase in intraocular pressure resulting in eye pain B. sudden increase in intraocular pressure without eye pain C. Gradual increase in intraocular pressure without eye pain D. sudden increase in intraocular pressure with eye pain - Solution D. sudden increase in intraocular pressure with eye pain Which of the following is not a symptom of herpes keratitis? A. Eye pain

B. Photophobia C. Seeing halos D. Blurred vision - Solution C. Seeing halos The FNP is assessing a young child and notes a 2mm pustule on the left lower eyelid margin accompanied by erythema, swelling, and a small amount of purulent discharge. This finding is most consistent with which condition? A. Blepharitis B. Chalazion C. Conjunctivitis D. Hordeolum - Solution D. Hordeolum What should the FNP prescribe for acute dacryocystitis? A. Antiviral medication B. Dacryocystorhinostomy C. Antimicrobial medication D. Cold compresses - Solution C. Antimicrobial medication What is a key diagnostic finding in open-angle glaucoma? A. Papilledema B. Increased intraocular pressure C. Eye pain D. Sluggish pupils - Solution B. Increased intraocular pressure Which of the following would the NP use to determine hearing loss? A. Audiogram B. Tympanogram C. Pneumatic otoscopy D. Computed tomography - Solution A. Audiogram In a child with ototis media with effusion (OME), which characteristic will the tympanic membrane have upon otoscopic examination? A. Erythematous B. Bulging

C. Retracted D. Vascular in appearance - Solution C. Retracted When educating a patient with Meniere disease about prevention of episodes, the NP teaches the patient to restrict all of the following except: A. Sodium B. Nicotine C. Fluid intake D. Caffeine - Solution C. Fluid intake Of the following measures, which is recommended for preventing otitis media? A. Allowing supine bottle feeding B. Avoiding secondhand smoke C. Placing in a day care setting D. Allowing pacifier use - Solution B. Avoiding secondhand smoke The NP has diagnosed an older adult patient with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). Which of the following tests aids in diagnosis? A. Positive Epley maneuver B. Pneumatic otoscopy C. Computed tomography D. Positive Dix-Hallpike test - Solution D. Positive Dix-Hallpike test Which of the following objective findings would be consistent with the diagnosis of otitis externa? A. Bullae on the tympanic membrane B. Red, bulging tympanic membrane C. Increased pain with tragus palpation D. Tympanic membrane immobility - Solution C. Increased pain with tragus palpation Which of the following is not a preventive measure for epistaxis? A. Using a water-based lubricant in the nares B. Not taking hot showers

C. Avoiding forceful nose blowing D. Using a humidifier - Solution B. Not taking hot showers The FNP has diagnosed a patient with allergic rhinitis. What diagnostic testing would be appropriate? A. Blood chemistries B. Computed tomography of the sinuses C. Radioallergosorbent testing D. Plain x-ray films of the sinuses - Solution C. Radioallergosorbent testing Which medication is considered first-line treatment for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis? A. Doxycycline (Monodox) B. levofloxacin (Levaquin) C. amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) D. moxifloxacin (Avalox) - Solution C. amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) In the patient diagnosed with allergic rhinitis, which medication would be used as rescue therapy? A. Oral antihistamines B. Corticosteroid nasal spray C. Mast cell stabilizers D. Leukotriene modifiers - Solution A. Oral antihistamines Which finding is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis? A. Upper respiratory symptoms lasting less than 7 days B. Mild tenderness and fullness with sinus palpation C. Upper respiratory symptoms lasting longer than 10 days D. Thick nasal drainage that has become discolored - Solution C. Upper respiratory symptoms lasting longer than 10 days How is herpes stomatitis differentiated on physical examination? A. Large white patches or plaques on tongue B. round ulcers on a gray base in oral cavity

C. Ulcerations on an erythematous base D. Small white spots on buccal mucosa - Solution C. Ulcerations on an erythematous base Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of oral candidiasis? A. Bacterial culture and sensitivity B. KOH prep C. Positive pathergy test D. Tzanck smear - Solution B. KOH prep The NP is evaluating a patient with a 2-day history of fever, poor appetite, and mouth pain. The NP notes red vesicles inside the mouth. Which additional assessment is most important for the determining the patient's diagnosis? A. Assess for a sandpaper-like rash on the abdomen B. Observe the hands and feet for erythematous lesions C. Palpate lymph nodes for swelling, determining if tender D. Inspect genital area for presence of ulcerations - Solution B. Observe the hands and feet for erythematous lesions The NP is caring for a 6-year-old who had one of his front (permanent) teeth kicked out. The child is crying hysterically. In addition to referring the child to a pediatric dentist immediately, what should be done with the avulsed tooth? A. Place it in a container of milk B. Put the tooth in ice or water C. Allow the child to hold the tooth in his mouth D. Scrub the tooth vigorously to disinfect it - Solution A. Place it in a container of milk What do Koplik spots occur with? A. Leukoplakia B. Rubella C. Rubeola D. Behcet syndrome - Solution C. Rubeola

The FNP is caring for a patient who describes recent stress in her life and presents with a recurrent mouth lesion. The lesion came up again 2 days ago, is on the interior lip border, is ulcerative and painful, and has an erythematous base. What is the medication treatment of choice for this patient? A. Colchicine (Colcrys) B. amoxicillin (Amoxil) C. acyclovir (Zovirax) D. mycostatin (Nystatin) - Solution C. acyclovir (Zovirax) Which of the following describes a peritonsillar abscess? A. Inflammation of the tonsils B. Decreased blood supply to the tonsils C. Autoimmune destruction of the tonsils D. Palpable collection of pus around the tonsils - Solution D. Palpable collection of pus around the tonsils Of the following treatments, which is not included in the plan for strep pharyngitis? A. throat lozenges B. ibuprofen (Motrin) C. prednisone (Deltazone) D. penicillin V (PenVK) - Solution C. prednisone (Deltazone) Which of the following is not a common manifestation of infectious mononucleosis? A. Paroxysmal coughing B. Fatigue C. Sore throat D. Lymphadenopathy - Solution A. Paroxysmal coughing Group A strep pharyngitis may result in which of the following? A. Rheumatic fever, Kawasaki syndrome, acute glomerulonephritis B. Scarlet fever, acute glomerulonephritis, hemolytic uremic syndrome