Fundamentals of Blood Collection and Laboratory Testing, Exams of Nursing

Download Fundamentals of Blood Collection and Laboratory Testing and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NHCO Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers. Ch 1. The amount of ______ drawn is the PURPOSE of the phlebotomy? Blood Ch 1. Phlebo means? Vein Ch 1. -tomy means? incision Ch 1. Reason for bloodletting? Rid body of excess fluids believed to carry infection Ch 1. What does the red and white stripes of a barber's pole mean? red = blood white = bandages Ch 1. What is the most important thing you are in charge of as a phlebotomist? - positively identify the patient - Ask them to state & SPELL their full name and DOB (Date of Birth) Ch 1. All patient's have what? RIGHTS Ch 1. Which law requires providers to get written permission before disclosing healthcare information to anyone outside the provider team? HIPAA - health insurance portability and accountability act Ch 1. What describes any individually identifiable health information that is transmission or stored electronically? PHI (Protected Health Information) Ch 1. What percentage of communication is NONVERBAL? 80% Ch 1. What does CLSI stand for? Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute What is CLSI purpose? -- global, non profit organization that develops standards using representatives taken directly from the fields they oversee. -- to develop clinical and laboratory practices and promote their use worldwide Ch 2. Name the type of consent... A competent person gives voluntary permission for a medical procedure informed consent Ch 2. Name the type of consent... Permission is given by the PATIENT verbally expressed consent Ch 4. what is airborne transmission? example? infectious agent is so small that it can suspend in air and travel across vast space -- tuberculosis Ch 4. what is vehicle transmission? example? agent is contained in bodily fluids that the susceptible host contacts Doorknob, faucet, public telephone, pen in the mouth Ch 4. what is vector-borne transmission? example? pathogen transmitted through an invertebrate (insect) Malaria, Lyme disease, or Dengue virus Ch 4. what is parenteral transmission? example? disease or infection is transmitted other than by mouth, nose or eyes -- needle stick, open wound, hangnail Ch 4. what is a nosocomial infection? defines any infection connected in a healthcare setting -- most common = respiratory Ch 4. OSHA requires all healthcare personal who may be exposed to bodily fluids receive the hepatitis B vaccine within ____ days of employment. How many series of Hepatitis shots are there? 10 days 3 shots Ch 4. What is the easiest & most effective way to break the chain of transmission? Washing your hands Ch 4. what are the 4 main types of PPE? in which order do you remove PPE? 1. Gloves 2. Goggles or safety glasses 3. Gown 4. Mask Steps: 1. gloves 2. goggles 3. gown 4. mask Ch 4. what is medical asepsis? -- destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after leaving the body -- involves environmental hygiene measures like hand washing, equipment cleaning, and disinfection procedures Ch 4. what is protective/reverse isolation? -- keeps the patient safe from the world around them -- used with immune compromised patients and burn patients -- keep entire room sterile Ch 5. what are the 7 types of environmental hazards in a phlebotomy workplace? Describe 1. biological - infectious agents (bacterial,viruses) 2. sharps - needles, broken glass 3. chemical - toxic preservatives/chemicals used in labs 4. electrical - high voltage 5. fire/explosive - Bunsen burners, chemicals 6. physical - wet floors, heavy lifts can cause injuries 7. allergic reaction - latex sensitivity Ch 5. what is the most common and primary concerning nosocomial infection for lab employees? Hepatitis B Ch 5. 1. what does hepatitis B stand for? 2. how is hepatitis B transmitted? 3. how long can hepatitis B survive when dried? 4. what damage does it cause to an infected individual? 1. hepat = liver / itis = inflammation 2. blood to blood 3. 7 days 4. liver inflammation Ch 5. what are the universal precautions purpose mandated by the CDC (center for disease control)? -- prevention strategy in which all blood and potentially infectious materials are treated as contagious, regardless of the source individual's perceived status Ch 5. what is the special respirator used to remove airborne infectious agents? what are 2 airborne infectious agents? N95 respirator -- tuberculosis, measles Ch 5. what are the 5 steps after being exposed to potentially infectious material? 1. immediately wash exposed area with soap and water (15 min for eyes/mucous membranes) 2. report exposure to supervisor 3. refer to MSDS or SDS for safety procedures Ch 7. How many valves does the right side of our heart have? how many on the left? 2 and 2 right - tricuspid + pulmonary left - mitral + aortic Ch 7. the right side of our heart sends blood to our ______, left side send it's blood to the ______. lungs body Ch 7. Describe pulmonary and systemic circulation. Pulmonary 1. deoxygenated blood from right ventricle to lungs 2. oxygenated blood from lungs to left atrium systemic 1. oxygenated blood from left ventricle throughout the body Ch 7. what are the 3 layers of the main blood vessels starting from outer working in. 1. tunica adventitia 2. tunica media 3. tunica intima Ch 7. which blood vessels carry oxygenated blood away from the heart? arteries + arterioles Ch 7. which blood vessels carry a mixture of arterial and venous blood? capillaries Ch. 7 which blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart? venules + veins Ch 7. Patients with end stage failure are treated with hemodialysis. what is hemodialysis? - blood is withdrawn from the artery, purified, and returned to a vein Ch 8. what is the percentage of plasma in our blood? what is the percentage of elements (cells) in our blood? describe what's in plasma and cells. plasma - 55% --- nutrients, lipids, vitamins, O2, CO2 cells - 45% --- platelets, RBC, WBC We have an expert-written solution to this problem! Ch 8. what are thrombocytes? where are they formed? what is their purpose? 1. platelets 2. bone marrow 3. repair blood vessels + blood coagulation Ch 8. what are erythrocytes? what is their purpose? 1. Red blood cells (RBC) 2. contain hemoglobin = oxygen carrying protein Ch 8. what are leukocytes? what is their purpose? 1. White blood cells (WBC) 2. provide infection protection to the body Ch 8. what does leukocytosis diagnose? what does leukopenia diagnose? -cytosis = increased WBC = infection/leukemia -penia = decreased WBC = viral infection/chemotherapy Ch 8. name the percentage ranges for the following WBC: neutrophils lymphocytes monocytes eosinophils basophils 1. 40-60% 2. 20-40% 3. 3-8% 4. 1-3% 5. 0-1% Ch 8. describe the purposes for the following WBC: neutrophils lymphocytes monocytes eosinophils basophils 1. phagocytic= engulf + digest bacteria 2. immunity during viral infection 3. largest WBC - intracellular infections/tuberculosis 4. active against antibody-labeled foreign molecules + fight allergies 5. allergic reactions Ch 8. what is plasma? what is serum? plasma = liquid portion of anticoagulated blood (contains clotting factors) serum = liquid portion of coagulated blood (no clotting factors) 4. royal blue + red stripe 5. Red top (plastic) 6. SST (tiger) 7. light green 8. dark green 9. Pink 10. Lavender 11. royal blue + blue/lavender line 12. Grey Ch 10. Blood Cultures? additive lab solution collection method - Nutrient broth + SPS (sodium polyanethole sulfonate) - Microbiology - Anaerobic (O2) & Aerobic (no O2) Ch 10. Light Blue tube? additive yields lab common tests -Sodium Citrate -plasma -Coagulation -PT, PTT, aPTT ---- PTT + aPTT used to test same functions Ch. 10 Royal Blue + Red strip? Additive Yields Lab Common tests - None - Serum - Toxicology - Lead poisoning / heavy metal toxicology Ch 10. Red Top Tube? additive yields lab common tests -glass = none / plastic = clot activator - serum - chemistry - serum pregnancy test Ch 10. SST tubes (tiger, marble, gold, speckled) additive yields lab common tests - silica (clot activator) + thixotropic gel - Serum - Chemistry - Basic metabolic panel (BMP), Complete Metabolic Panel (CMP), serum pregnancy, lipids/cholesterol Ch 10. Light green? Additive Yields Lab Common tests - Lithium heparin (anticoagulant) + thixotropic gel (plasma separator) - Plasma - Chemistry - STAT electrolytes, (hCG + hcG qualitative/quantitative = pregnancy tests) Ch 10. Green? Additive Yields Lab Common tests - Sodium heparin (anticoagulant) - Plasma - Chemistry - Ammonia Ch. 10 Pink? Additive Yields Lab Common tests - Potassium EDTA (anticoagulant) - Plasma - Blood bank - Type & screen ratio (TSR), cross match Ch. 10 Lavender? Additive Yields Lab Common tests - EDTA - Plasma - Hematology - Sickle cells, platelets, hemoglobin, blood count Ch. 10 Royal blue + lavender? Additive Yields Lab Common tests - EDTA - Plasma - Toxicology - Lead poisoning / heavy metal toxicology Trough (lowest chemical blood level) + peak (highest chemical blood level) Ch 12. Name an example for each section that requires special handling: 1. Chilling 2. Warm 3. Light protection 4. Without statis (no tourniquet) 1. Ammonia, PTT, ABG 2. Cryoglobulin 3. Bilirubin, vitamin B6 4. Lactic acid Ch 13. What is the glucose tolerance test used for? Does blood have to be drawn at different times or only just once? - Diagnose diabetes mellitus and gestational diabetes ( during pregnancy) --- Test are ordered in different time windows Ch. 13 What is a PKU screening test? Which age is it for? - Detect phenylketonuria = genetic disease that causes mental retardation + brain damage - Infants (72 hours) Ch 13. What are the 4 most common tests performed on Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)? Can you draw other samples after conduction a ABG blood draw? 1. Oxygen 2. Carbon dioxide 3. pH balance 4. bicarbonate - nothing else must occur between that collection and testing Ch 14. According to the CLSI, what percentage of blood draws are unsuccessful? 5% Ch 14. For bariatric (obese) patients, which vein is recommended to use? Cephalic Ch 14. For I.V. therapy, you always draw blood ____ a patient's IV site. If IV is in the hand, draw from the ____ arm - BELOW - OTHER Ch 14. What is the most common complication in phlebotomy when it comes to performing the puncture? Hematoma (aka bruising) = caused by bloods leaks under the skin or needle punctured the bottom side of the vein Ch 14. What is the best way to avoid veins from rolling? Having a strong anchor and entering the vein quickly Ch 14. What is syncope when talking about a patient getting blood drawn? Unpleasant physical or emotional stimuli such as pain, fright, or sight of blood = dizziness Ch 14. What is the first thing to do if a patient faints? Remove and dispose of the needle in their arm Ch 14. List and describe the 2 types of circulation issues? 1. Petechiae = tiny, non-raised dots that occur around restrictions due to backpressure in the circulatory system 2. Thrombosis = blood clots Ch 15. What is the recommended allowance for the total volume of blood that should be drawn from an adult patient within a 24 hour period? 1-5% Ch 15. What is polycythemia vera? How it is treated? - Too many red bloods cells - Blood draw of 500 mL = therapeutic donation Ch 15. What is hemochromatosis? Patient is holding too much iron in their system Ch 15. What is the purpose of a centrifuge? What is the one thing you have to remember to do before running the centrifuge? - Separating the formed cells + plasma + serum of blood - Make sure the sample is balanced in the machine = placed on opposite side + equal weight Ch 15. How full must a capillary tube be when running a hematocrit (total red blood cell ratio to total blood volume expressed) test? 2/3 full Ch 15. When creating a blood smear, which colored tube should be used during collection? What is the characteristic of a good blood smear on microscopic slides? - Lavender = EDTA (plasma) - Feathered edge = single cell layer Ch 15. True/False Hemolyzed specimens are usually caused by the phlebotomist and consist of the serum or plasm having a pink to reddish tint TRUE = breaking a red blood cell membranes Ch 15. Name one test from each category.