Genetics and Molecular Biology, Exams of Pathophysiology

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Patho Practice Questions

Which bases are single-ringed structures in the DNA molecule? a. Cytosine and thymine b. Cytosine and adenine c. Thymine and guanine d. Guanine and adenine - ANS a. Cytosine and thymine The single-ringed bases (pyrimidines) are cytosine and thymine. The double-ringed bases (purines) are adenine and guanine. The term describing the DNA subunit of one deoxyribose molecule, one phosphate group, and one base is a: a. polypeptide. b. double helix. c. nucleotide. d. codon. - ANS c. nucleotide. A nucleotide consists of one deoxyribose molecule, one phosphate group, and one base. The double helix is the twisted staircase presentation of DNA that was proposed by Watson-Crick. A polypeptide is a chain of proteins. A codon is a triplet of amino acids. Which statement regarding codons is TRUE?

a. There are 80 possible codons. b. There are three codons that signal the end of a gene. c. There are 70 codons that specify amino acids. d. Each amino acid has one codon. - ANS b. There are three codons that signal the end of a gene. There are three codons that signal the end of a gene, and they are called termination or nonsense codons. There are 64 possible codons, and 61 specify amino acids. There is more than one codon for an amino acid. The function of DNA polymerase is to: a. synthesize RNA from the DNA template. b. synthesize a polypeptide. c. perform base-pairing in replication. d. split DNA molecules. - ANS c. perform base-pairing in replication. The function of DNA polymerase is to assist with base-pairing when replicating DNA. This enzyme travels along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotides to the free end of the new strand and proofreading. Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from DNA and uses RNA polymerase. Translation is the formation of a polypeptide from RNA and does not require DNA polymerase. An accurate description of a silent mutation is: a. a change in the DNA without a change in amino acid. b. insertion or deletion of one or more base-pairs.

c. an increase in the number or frequency of mutations. d. a mutation that occurs in the absence of exposure to a mutagen. - ANS a. a change in the DNA without a change in amino acid. A silent mutation occurs if a base-pair is changed but the DNA still codes for the same amino acid. This is possible as amino acids have more than one codon (triplet) that codes for them. Insertion or deletion of one or more base-pairs is a frameshift mutation and can change the entire reading frame. A mutagen is an agent that increases the frequency of mutations. A spontaneous mutation occurs when a mutation occurs but there is no exposure to a mutagen. Base pairs are appropriately described as: a. adenine pairs with guanine. b. guanine pairs with thymine. c. cytosine pairs with adenine. d. uracil pairs with adenine. - ANS d. uracil pairs with adenine. Uracil is structurally similar to thymine. Therefore, the correct base-pairs are adenine with thymine, guanine with cytosine, and uracil with adenine. The term describing the sequence for the beginning of a gene is: a. intron. b. exon. c. promoter site. d. anticodon. - ANS c. promoter site.

The promoter site signals the beginning of a gene and is the location of the RNA polymerase binding. Excised sequences are called introns. Exons are the portions of code that remain after introns are excised, and they code for the actual proteins. The anticodon is the sequence of three nucleotides that undergo complementary base-pairing in translation. Which chemical complex is secreted into the cytoplasm and synthesized in the nucleolus? a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Cisternae c. Ribosome d. Lysosome - ANS c. Ribosome The ribosomes are RNA complexes that are synthesized in the nucleolus and secreted into the cytoplasm, possibly through pores in the nuclear envelope. Cisternae are tubular or sac-like channels that extend throughout the cytoplasm. The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane factory that specializes in synthesis. Lysosomes are sac-like structures that originate from the Golgi complex. Which is a characteristic of a somatic cell? A somatic cell: a. contains three different cell types. b. contains 46 chromosomes. c. has gametes that are diploid cells. d. contains diploid cells that are formed through meiosis. - ANS b. contains 46 chromosomes. Somatic cells have 46 chromosomes in the nucleus and are considered diploid cells. There are two cell types: somatic cells and gametes. Somatic cells are all cells that are not gametes (sperm and

eggs). The gametes are haploid cells that have only 23 chromosomes and are formed from diploid cells through meiosis. Which term describes a cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes? a. Aneuploid b. Monsomy c. Trisomy d. Tetraploidy - ANS a. Aneuploid The term aneuploid means that the cell does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes. Monsomy is the presence of only one copy of a given chromosome in a cell. Trisomy is when there are three copies of a chromosome. Tetraploidy is a cell that contains 92 chromosomes. Which is correct regarding Down syndrome? Down syndrome: a. occurs in 1 in 400 live births. b. produces an individual with a normal IQ. c. results in a distinctive facial appearance. d. has a symptomatology that includes above average muscle tone. - ANS c. results in a distinctive facial appearance. Down syndrome, trisomy 21, is one of the best-known examples of aneuploidy, occurring in 1 in 800 live births. Persons with Down syndrome have a distinctive facial appearance with a low nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, protruding tongue, and flat low-set ears. They also have poor muscle tone and short stature. The disease produces mental retardation, with an IQ between 25 and 70 (low).

A female patient born with short stature, webbing of the neck, sparse body hair, and narrowing of the aorta is likely exhibiting symptomatology of: a. Klinefelter syndrome. b. Down syndrome. c. Turner syndrome. d. fetal alcohol syndrome. - ANS c. Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome has a karyotype of 45, X. Persons with Turner syndrome are females who are usually sterile, have minimal body hair, and have short stature with a webbed neck. They also have coarctation of the aorta. Down syndrome produces mental retardation, with an IQ between 25 and 70 (low). Persons with Down syndrome have a distinctive facial appearance with a low nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, protruding tongue, and flat low-set ears. They also have poor muscle tone and short stature. Persons with Klinefelter syndrome are male with 47, XXY. The testes are small, body hair is sparse, and the voice is somewhat high pitched. A moderate degree of mental impairment is present. Fetal alcohol syndrome does produce some mental retardation and facial changes; however, there is no webbing of the neck or sparse body hair. A patient born with the deletion of the short arm of the chromosome 5 is exhibiting a characteristic of: a. Down syndrome. b. Turner syndrome. c. fragile X syndrome. d. cri du chat syndrome. - ANS d. cri du chat syndrome. This patient most likely will have cri du chat syndrome. This is the most often cited example of a chromosomal deletion-in this case, chromosome 5. Turner syndrome affects the sex chromosomes of females. Down syndrome is an example of aneuploidy. Fragile X syndrome develops due to a

break or gap on the X chromosome; thus, the term "fragile sites." These patients may not manifest any disease, but may pass it on to their offspring. An autosomal dominant gene transmission results in: a. the affected parent transmitting the gene to half of his or her children. b. the affected gene being found in males only. c. the skipping of generations for transmission. d. females transmitting the gene more often than males. - ANS a. the affected parent transmitting the gene to half of his or her children. The affected parent will transmit the trait to half of the children (approximately). This is because in each match there is a 50% chance that either a normal gene or an affected gene will be transmitted to the child. The affected gene is found equally in males and females, both sexes transmit the trait equally, and there is no skipping of generations. Which statement regarding autosomal recessive trait inheritance is accurate? Autosomal recessive trait inheritance results in: a. parents consistently displaying the trait. b. approximately 50% of children displaying the trait. c. both males and females being affected equally. d. the child being heterozygous. - ANS c. both males and females being affected equally. Males and females are equally affected by autosomal recessive traits. Generally, parents will not display the trait; that is, they are heterozygous themselves, but each will pass the recessive trait to 25% of their children. The child must be homozygous for the trait to express the recessive trait.

Regarding sex-linked inheritance, select the true statement. a. Most sex-linked traits occur on the Y chromosome. b. X-linked recessive diseases are more common than X-linked dominant diseases. c. Males are less affected by X-linked diseases. d. Females are always homozygous for X-linked traits. - ANS b. X-linked recessive diseases are more common than X-linked dominant diseases. X-linked recessive diseases are more common than X-linked dominant diseases. Most sex-linked diseases occur on the X chromosome, as the Y chromosome does not carry as many genes. Females are less likely than males to carry an X-linked recessive disease. They have two X chromosomes—one from their mother and one from their father—and, thus, are usually heterozygous for the gene rather than homozygous. Because most X-linked diseases are recessive, females would have to receive two defective chromosomes, which is rare. Males, however, have only one X chromosome, which comes from their mother, and there are no genes on the Y chromosome to counteract that recessive gene; thus, they are more likely to have X-linked recessive genes. The DNA is composed of: (Select all that apply.) a. phosphate. b. deoxyribose. c. pyrimidine base. d. ribosome. e. purine base. - ANS a, b, c, e

Genes are composed of DNA, which has three basic components: the five-carbon monosaccharide deoxyribose; a phosphate molecule; and four types of nitrogenous bases. Two of the bases, cytosine and thymine, are single carbon-nitrogen rings called pyrimidines. The other two bases, adenine and guanine, are double carbon-nitrogen rings called purines. The four bases are commonly represented by their first letters: A, C, T, and G. A ribosome is an RNA complex that is synthesized in the nucleolus and secreted into the cytoplasm. Which statement best captures the definition of epigenetics? a. The study of switching on or silencing genes. b. The study of pharmacology and genes. c. The study of inherited phenotype traits. d. The study of DNA. - ANS a. The study of switching on or silencing genes. Epigenetics is the study of mechanisms that will switch genes "on," such that they are expressed, and "off," such that they are silenced. Epigenetic mechanisms include chemical modifications to DNA and associated histones and the production of small RNA molecules. Gene regulation by epigenetic processes can occur at the level of either transcription or translation. Which describe epigenetic mechanisms? a. DNA methylation, histone modifications, RNA-based modifications. b. RNA methylation, protease modifications, DNA-based modifications. c. Genetic disruption, protease modifications, DNA-based modifications. d. Histone modification, DNA-based modifications, RNA methylation. - ANS a. DNA methylation, histone modifications, RNA-based modifications.

DNA methylation, histone modifications, RNA-based modifications are epigenetic mechanisms. RNA methylation and protease modifications are not. Additionally DNA-based modifications although important are not mechanisms of epigenetics. Which is a characteristic of Russell-Silver syndrome? a. Round moon-shaped face b. Tall in stature c. Severe mental retardation d. Leg length discrepancy - ANS d. Leg length discrepancy Russell-Silver syndrome is characterized by growth retardation; proportionate short stature; leg length discrepancy; and a small, triangular-shaped face. About one third of Russell-Silver syndrome cases are caused by imprinting abnormalities of chromosome 11p15.5 that lead to downregulation of IGF-2 and therefore diminished growth. Which is correct with regard to facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHMD)? a. Arises through loss of normal methylation. b. Arises through gain of abnormal methylation. c. Has limited effect on skeletal musculature. d. Persons with FSHMD rarely live past 30 years. - ANS a. Arises through loss of normal methylation. FSHMD is a disease whose phenotype arises through loss of normal methylation rather than gain of abnormal methylation. Symptoms of the disease include adverse impacts on skeletal musculature. Though life span is not typically reduced by the disease, wheelchair use becomes necessary late in life for a subset of individuals.

Which is correct about the epigenetic screening of cancer? a. Epigenetic screening is of no use to cancer detection. b. Epigenetic screening involves invasive procedures. c. This is a very expensive alternative to current testing. d. Can complement, or possibly replace, current detection methods. - ANS d. Can complement, or possibly replace, current detection methods. The common finding of epigenetic alteration in cancerous tissue raises the possibility that epigenetic screening approaches could complement or even replace existing early detection methods. In some cases, epigenetic screening could be done using bodily fluids, such as urine or sputum, eliminating the need for the more invasive, costly, and risky strategies currently in place. How does the drug 5-azacytidine work? It: a. inhibits histone deacetylase. b. demethylates DNA. c. recodes miRNA. d. increases chromatin compaction. - ANS b. demethylates DNA. 5 - Azacytidine has been used as a therapeutic drug in the treatment of leukemia and myelodysplastic syndrome. A cytosine analog, 5-azacytidine, is incorporated into DNA opposite its complementary nucleotide, guanine. The drug is a DNA demethylator. It does not work on histones and it does not recode miRNA. Chromatin compaction is a function of histone deacetylase inhibitors. Which is true about epigenetic modifications? They:

a. alter gene expression by modifying DNA. b. can be influenced by diet and lifestyle. c. occur only at the time of birth. d. at best, only involve benign processes - ANS b. can be influenced by diet and lifestyle. Epigenetic modification alters gene expression without changes to DNA sequence. Environmental factors, such as diet and exposure to certain chemicals, may cause epigenetic modifications. These modifications can occur as adults and can result in devastating disease processes such as cancer. Which is true of Prader-Willi syndrome? (Select all that apply.) a. Associated with long arm deletion of chromosome 15 b. Taller than average due to excessive eating c. Severe mental retardation d. Answer Obesity due to overeating e. Hypogonadism - ANS a, d, e A well-known disease example of imprinting is associated with a deletion of about 4 million base (Mb) pairs of the long arm of chromosome 15. When this deletion is inherited from the father, the child manifests Prader-Willi syndrome whose features include short stature, hypotonia, small hands and feet, obesity, mild to moderate mental retardation, and hypogonadism. Which is true about Angelman syndrome? (Select all that apply.) a. Inherited from the mother

b. Characterized by mild mental retardation c. Typically manifests in seizures d. Associated with an ataxic gait - ANS a, c, d A 4 Mb deletion, when inherited from the mother, causes Angelman syndrome which is characterized by severe mental retardation, seizures, and an ataxic gait. Which of the following characterizes Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased predisposition to cancer b. Sometimes identifiable at birth c. Typically small birth stature (lower 10 percentile) d. Increased predisposition to developing Wilms' tumor. e. Some experience asymmetrical overgrowth of a limb. - ANS a, b, d, e Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is usually identifiable at birth because of large size for gestational age, neonatal hypoglycemia, a large tongue, creases on the earlobe, and omphalocele (birth defect infant intestines). Children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome have an increased risk of developing Wilms' tumor or hepatoblastoma. Usually children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome are severely retarded. Some children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome also develop asymmetrical overgrowth of a limb or one side of the face or trunk (hemihyperplasia). A decrease in workload, use, pressure, or blood supply appropriately describes: a. physiologic atrophy. b. pathologic atrophy.

c. hypertrophy. d. hyperplasia. - ANS b. pathologic atrophy. Pathologic atrophy is a decrease in cell size due to decreased use. Physiologic atrophy usually occurs early in development; for example, the thymus gland atrophies during childhood. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells. The appropriate term for the reversible replacement of one mature cell by another is: a. metaplasia. b. hyperplasia. c. dysplasia. d. atypical hyperplasia. - ANS a. metaplasia. The term metaplasia refers to one cell type being replaced by another. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a change in their type. Dysplasia, also referred to as atypical hyperplasia, refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of cells. A patient with a collection of blood located between the skull and the dura is diagnosed with a condition referred to as a(n): a. epidural hematoma. b. contusion. c. subdural hematoma. d. abrasion. - ANS a. epidural hematoma.

An epidural hematoma is a collection of blood between the inner surface of the skull and the dura. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the surface of the dura and the brain. A contusion is a bruise or bleeding into the skin and underlying tissue. Abrasion is a scrape caused by removal of the superficial layers of the skin. A tear or rip of the skin with a jagged and irregular edge is described as a(n): a. abrasion. b. incision. c. laceration. d. avulsion. - ANS c. laceration. Lacerations occur when the tensile strength of the skin is exceeded. An incision is a precise cut with an instrument that leaves regular clean edges. In a laceration, edges are often jagged and irregular. An abrasion results from the removal of the superficial layers of the skin caused by friction between the skin and the injuring object. An avulsion is an injury in which an area of tissue is pulled away, creating a flap. A characteristic of a stab wound includes: a. the injury is deeper than it is long. b. the injury is longer than it is deep. c. there is a broken bone. d. there is significant crush injury. - ANS a. the injury is deeper than it is long.

The injury is deeper than it is long. There is little crush injury because the object used is sharp and it makes a clean entrance. An injury that is longer than it is deep is considered an incised wound. A broken bone is a fracture. The appropriate term for fragments of burning or unburned pieces of gunpowder that are embedded in the epidermis is: a. exit wound. b. stippling. c. blowback. d. tattooing. - ANS d. tattooing. Tattooing results from fragments of burning or unburned pieces of gunpowder exiting the barrel and striking the skin surface with enough force to be driven into the epidermis. Stippling results when fragments of gunpowder strike the skin with enough force to abrade the skin but not actually penetrate the surface. An exit wound is where the bullet exits the body. Blowback is disruption of the tissues resulting in a large, gaping, and jagged appearance to the wound. Which term describes oxygen failing to reach the blood? a. Suffocation b. Strangulation c. Drowning d. Petechiae - ANS a. Suffocation Suffocation occurs when oxygen fails to reach the blood and is a subgroup of asphyxial injuries. Strangulation is caused by compression and closure of the blood vessels and air passages by external pressure on the neck. Drowning occurs when water or fluid alters delivery of oxygen. Petechiae are

found on the neck of a victim who is strangled. It is the result of compression of soft tissue and the breakage of blood vessels. The pigment correctly paired with its color is: a. melanin: brown-black. b. hemosiderin: green-black. c. blue nevus: brown-black. d. bilirubin: yellow-brown. - ANS a. melanin: brown-black. Melanin is brown-black pigment. This is what causes a suntan. Hemosiderin is a yellow-brown pigment and is derived from hemoglobin. Blue nevus is a benign mole that is dark blue-black in color. Bilirubin is yellow-green in color and is derived from bile. The appropriate term to identify the nuclear dissolution and destruction of chromatin by action of hydrolytic enzymes is: a. autolysis. b. pyknosis. c. karyorrhexis. d. karyolysis. - ANS d. karyolysis. Karyolysis is the nuclear dissolution and lysis of chromatin. Autolysis is a term for autodigestion. In pyknosis, the nucleus shrinks and becomes a small, dense mass of genetic material. Karyorrhexis means fragmentation of the nucleus into smaller particles, or "nuclear dust." Which statement is true with regard to calcium?

a. Calcium salts accumulate in healthy, living cells with normal body function. b. Dystrophic calcification occurs in chronic tuberculosis. c. Metastatic calcification occurs in damaged tissue. d. Psammoma bodies are individual calcium molecules. - ANS b. Dystrophic calcification occurs in chronic tuberculosis. Dystrophic calcification occurs in dead or dying tissues and chronic tuberculosis and is usually found in lungs and lymph nodes. Calcium accumulation normally occurs in dead or dying tissues. Psammoma bodies are several layers of calcium that clump together and form grains. Metastatic calcification consists of mineral deposits that occur in undamaged tissues as a result of hypercalcemia. Tuberculous infections are likely to result in a form of necrosis called: a. coagulative. b. liquefactive. c. fat. d. caseous. - ANS d. caseous. Caseous necrosis is normally found in the lung from infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a combination of liquefactive and coagulation necrosis. Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in the kidneys, heart, and adrenal glands due to protein degradation. Liquefactive necrosis occurs commonly in the neurons and glial cells. Fat necrosis occurs in the breast, pancreas, and other abdominal structures and is caused from cellular dissolution by enzymes called lipases. The term apoptosis is appropriately defined as:

a. second-messenger system. b. autostimulation. c. programmed cell death. d. pass-it-on signal. - ANS c. programmed cell death. Another term for apoptosis is programmed cell death. Autostimulation is when a cell releases a signal that actually affects the cell of origin. A pass-it-on signal is a description for a second- messenger system. A second-messenger system is a means by which a ligand binds with receptors of a membrane system and then triggers a second system/reaction. The process of atrophy is a result of: (Select all that apply.) a. aging. b. lack of blood supply. c. work demand. d. hormonal stimulation. e. need to replace lost cells. - ANS a, b, d Atrophy is a decrease in cellular size caused by aging, disuse or lack of blood supply, hormonal stimulation, or neural stimulation. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of cells caused by increased work demands or hormonal stimulation. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells caused by an increased rate of cellular division. Normal hyperplasia is stimulated by hormones or the need to replace lost tissues. Which structure is a part of the upper airway?

a. Trachea b. Nasopharynx c. Larynx d. Bronchi - ANS b. Nasopharynx The nasopharynx and oropharynx are the structures of the upper airway. The larynx divides the upper and lower airways. The trachea and bronchi are in the lower airway. Which statement regarding the lower airway is accurate? The: a. trachea bifurcates at the larynx. b. trachea has no supportive structure. c. right and left main bronchi enter the lungs at the hila. d. goblet cells are air-filled cells. - ANS c. right and left main bronchi enter the lungs at the hila. The right and left main bronchi enter the lungs at the hila. The trachea bifurcates at the carina and has supportive U-shaped cartilaginous rings. The goblet cells secrete mucus. What is the process where carbon dioxide (CO2) is exchanged for oxygen? a. Ventilation b. Respiration c. Circulation

d. Alveolar ventilation - ANS b. Respiration Ventilation is the mechanical movement of gas or air into and out of the lungs. Ventilation often is misnamed respiration. Respiration is the exchange of CO2 for oxygen. Circulation refers to actual blood flow and oxygen delivery. Alveolar ventilation refers to the amount of air delivered to the alveoli. Which receptors in the human body monitor pH, PaCO2, and PaO2 of arterial blood? a. Stretch receptors b. Irritant receptors c. J receptors d. Chemoreceptors - ANS d. Chemoreceptors Chemoreceptors monitor arterial blood indirectly by sensing changes in the pH of CSF. Irritant receptors are found in the epithelium of conducting airways. They are sensitive to noxious aerosols, gases, and particles. Stretch receptors are located in smooth muscle and are sensitive to increases in the size or volume of the lungs. J receptors are located near the capillaries in the alveolar septa. They are sensitive to increased capillary pressure. Which statement regarding the zones of the lung is accurate? a. Zone 1 is above the level of the left atrium. b. In zone 2, alveolar pressure exceeds pulmonary arterial and venous pressures. c Zone 2 is a small part of the lung at the apex. d. Zone 3 is in the base of the lung. - ANS d. Zone 3 is in the base of the lung.

In zone 1, the alveolar pressure exceeds pulmonary arterial and venous pressures. Zone 2 is above the level of the left atrium. Zone 3 is at the base of the lung. Which of the following would shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left? a. Acidosis b. Hypocapnia c. Increased H+ ion d. Increased metabolic activity - ANS b. Hypocapnia Only hypocapnia would shift the curve to the left. The other options either have no effect or result in a shift to the right. Which are steps in the process of gas exchange? (Select all that apply.) a. Ventilation b. Sighing c. Diffusion d. Perfusion e. Rebreathing - ANS a, c, d Ventilation, diffusion, and perfusion are the three steps involved in gas exchange in the lungs. The remaining options are not involved in the process of gas exchange. Which structures are considered part of the acinus? (Select all that apply.)

a. Trachea b. Respiratory bronchioles c. Alveolar ducts d. Alveoli e. Nare - ANS b, c, d An acinus is made up of respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli. The other structures are related to the upper respiratory tract. Which muscle has a major role in respiration? (Select all that apply.) a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Trapezius c. External intercostal d. Diaphragm e. Scalene - ANS c, d The two major muscles of respiration are the diaphragm and the external intercostals. The sternocleidomastoid and the scalene are accessory muscles, and the trapezius has no direct impact on respirations. Which are characteristics of the respiratory center? (Select all that apply.)

a. Being located in the brainstem b. Affecting the respiratory muscles' ability to contract and relax c. Containing one major type of neuron d. Transmitting impulses that bring about the physical act of breathing e. Being influenced by emotions and pain - ANS a, b, d, e The respiratory center in the brainstem controls respiration by transmitting impulses to the respiratory muscles, causing them to contract and relax. The respiratory center is composed of several groups of neurons: the dorsal respiratory group (DRG), the ventral respiratory group (VRG), the pneumotaxic center, and the apneustic center. The pattern of breathing can be influenced by emotion, pain, and disease. Which is a characteristic of hypoventilation? a. Inadequate alveolar ventilation in relation to metabolic demands. b. Rapid breathing with little to no expiratory pause. c. Difficulty breathing due to body position. d. The feeling of "not getting enough air." - ANS a. Inadequate alveolar ventilation in relation to metabolic demands. Inadequate alveolar ventilation in relation to metabolic demands correctly defines hypoventilation. Hyperpnea is rapid breathing with little to no expiratory pause. Orthopnea is difficulty breathing due to body position. Dyspnea is the feeling of not getting enough air. Which breathing pattern is generally identified with Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

a. A lack of expiratory pause b. Presence of occasional sighs c. Rapid cycle of inspirations and expirations d. Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing - ANS d. Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing. Apnea lasting from 15 to 60 seconds is followed by ventilations that increase in volume until a peak is reached; then ventilation (tidal volume) decreases again to apnea. Kussmaul respiration (hyperpnea) is characterized by a slightly increased ventilatory rate, very large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause. Normal breathing (eupnea) is rhythmic and effortless with an occasional deeper breath, or sighs. A rapid ventilatory rate is referred to as tachypnea. A patient is experiencing the abnormal dilation of major air passages of the lungs. What term is used for this condition? a. Atelectasis b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Bronchiolitis d. Bronchiectasis - ANS d. Bronchiectasis Bronchiectasis is the persistent abnormal dilation of the bronchi. Atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue. Pulmonary fibrosis is an excessive amount of fibrous or connective tissue in the lung. Bronchiolitis is a diffuse, inflammatory obstruction of the small airways or bronchioles. Which statement regarding bronchiolitis is TRUE? It is: a. usually caused by a virus in adults.