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Genetics and Molecular Biology: Exploring the Fundamentals of Life, Exams of Advanced Education

This document covers the core concepts of genetics and molecular biology, from DNA structure and replication to gene expression, mutations, and evolution. It provides a comprehensive overview of the principles and mechanisms underlying the fundamental building blocks of life, the relationships between genotype and phenotype, and the impact of genetic variations on human health. This knowledge can be applied in various fields, including medicine, biotechnology, and evolutionary biology.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 09/30/2024

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Bio 100 Exam 2 With 100% Correct

Answers 2023

Which part of the nucleotide binds two nucleotides together to form a single strand of DNA? (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer-Phosphate group The term for a nitrogenous base with one carbon ring is known as ______________; while a nitrogenous base with two carbon rings is known as ______________. (Ch. 16)

  • Correct Answer-Pyrimidine, Purine A DNA double helix is formed through the interactions of which part of a nucleotide? (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer-Nitrogenous base Every cell in your body contains ______________ percent of your genome. (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer- Two double stranded DNA molecules are made from DNA replication. Which of the following statements is true about the 2 new DNA molecules? (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer-Both molecules contain one original strand and one new strand Create the correct opposite strand for TGCACCA. (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer-ACGTGGT Where is the information necessary to make a protein stored in our DNA? (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer-Genes The most important reason we study DNA is that it... (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer- Determines the function of the cell The cellular information to make a protein is stored long-term as which type of molecule? (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer-DNA For guanine to bond to adenine, it requires (Ch. 16) - Correct Answer-Base pairing What does it mean for a gene to be expressed? In other words, what does "gene expression" really mean? (Ch. 17) - Correct Answer-Information in a gene is made into a protein Within a stretch of DNA, one ______________ encodes for one______________. (Ch.
    • Correct Answer-Gene, Protein Transcribe the following DNA sequence into mRNA: TGACCTGAA (Ch. 17) - Correct Answer-ACUGGACUU

The protein, RNA polymerase, has which of the following functions? (Ch. 17) - Correct Answer-Unwinding DNA and synthesizing a complementary strand to the template strand Transcription of a gene has just finished. What happens next? (Ch. 17) - Correct Answer-mRNA is transported out of the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis The final product of transcription is which of the following? (Ch.17) - Correct Answer- Single strand RNA How does tRNA bring the correct amino acid to the translation complex for protein synthesis? (Ch. 17) - Correct Answer-The two features of a tRNA molecule, the anti- codon and the specific binding of one amino acid, allows tRNA to bring in the correct amino acid When the ACTIVATOR and INDUCER are bound together, they bind to a region of the promoter called the operator and signal that transcription should start. The______________ senses the environment and binds to the ______________. (Ch.

    • Correct Answer-Inducer, Activator Transfer RNA is produced from which of the following? (Ch. 17) - Correct Answer-DNA The product of RNA polymerase is which of the following? (Ch. 17) - Correct Answer- RNA that will be used in transcription Both sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis manifest their specific diseases because: (Ch.
    • Correct Answer-Their mutations cause abnormal proteins to be produced A nucleotide sequence was mutated during replication and the amino acid sequence changed from His, Gly, Val, ... to His, Val, ... What was the likely cause of this change in amino acid sequence? (Ch. 18) - Correct Answer-The three nucleotides encoding Gly were deleted in the nucleotide sequence Which of the following is NOT true of sickle cell anemia? (Ch. 18) - Correct Answer-The amino acid substitution causes the hemoglobin protein to clump together causing misshaped red blood cells. A young patient is experiencing difficulty breathing and is coughing up thick mucous. Your patient also appears to be malnourished. You suspect a devastating genetic disease and get a DNA sample. How will you know if your hypothesis is correct? (Ch.
    • Correct Answer-The DNA sequence shows a deletion of the nucleotides that encode phenylalanine in the CFTR gene that leads to cystic fibrosis After sequencing DNA from a patient, you observe a loss of the nucleotides that encodes phenylalanine in the CTFR gene. This mutation is consistent with all of the following symptoms EXCEPT: (Ch. 18) - Correct Answer-Acute chest syndrome

The HBB mutation observed in sickle cell anemia causes the disease by all of the following ways EXCEPT: (Ch. 18) - Correct Answer-The mutated hemoglobin is degraded and no longer functions Although there are no current cures for genetic diseases, there is a therapy on the horizon thanks to our understanding of the ______________ that may provide cures in our lifetime. (Ch. 18) - Correct Answer-Human genome All of the following are ways gene therapy can correct a mutated gene: (Ch. 18) - Correct Answer-Altering regulation of the mutated gene; Swapping the abnormal gene with a normal copy of the gene; Introducing a normal copy of the gene into another location on the genome Mutations can occur at which of the following steps? (Ch. 18) - Correct Answer-DNA separation, Transcription and Translation Cystic Fibrosis is caused by the lack of a gene that makes CFTR Channel act normally. How does the gene control the CFTR channel? (Ch. 18) - Correct Answer-Production of ATP, Lipids and Enzymes Each of us is made of an estimated ______________ cells, yet we begin from the fusion of just ______________ cell(s). (Ch. 19) - Correct Answer-100 trillion, two How many chromatids does each chromosome have during G2? - Correct Answer- At which step of the cell cycle are microtubules made? - Correct Answer-G What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture? - Correct Answer-Interphase A defect exists in a cell that results in the failure of microtubules to bind kinetochores. Which of the following is the most likely result? (Ch. 19) - Correct Answer-The cell cycle does not proceed Meiosis involves ______________ round(s) of DNA replication and ______________ round(s) of cell division. (Ch.19) - Correct Answer-One, two Homologous recombination... (Ch. 19) - Correct Answer-Occurs during Prophase I Meiotic nondisjunction can result in which of the following? (Ch. 19) - Correct Answer- Trisomy Which of the following activities is a direct example of mitosis? (Ch. 19) - Correct Answer-Healing of a wound; Hair growth; Bone growth

During which meiotic phase do the homologous chromosomes pair up? (Ch. 19) - Correct Answer-Meiotic division 1 A drug is developed that blocks angiogenesis by inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation. It will have which of the following effect(s) on cancer cells? (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer- Tumors would be limited in size The function of angiogenesis is to do which of the following? (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer- Bring oxygen to the cells Necrosis is defined as which of the following? (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer-When a damaged cell dies through an external force. (Ex: a blow to the head -> kills brain cells or a decrease in blood flow to the heart -> kills heart cells) The ability of cancer to spread to new tissues is called... (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer- Metastasis Your doctor checks your DNA and informs you that he found proto-oncogenes. You should do which of the following? (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer-Do nothing A tumor suppressor gene... (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer-Stops cell cycle progression Both radiation therapy and chemotherapy cause? ( Be complete with your answer) (Ch.

    • Correct Answer-Apoptosis and healthy cells to die Which of the following increases the risk of cancer? (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer-Being inactive; Smoking cigarettes; Being overweight You have a mole growing on your arm. Which of the following characteristics would suggest it may be cancerous? (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer-Large diameter; Border irregularity; Asymmetry The function of oncogenes is which of the following? (Ch. 20) - Correct Answer-Promote cancerous growth Which of the following is the theory that governs development? (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-An interaction between nature and nurture According to this diagram, R is... (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-Incomplete dominant Which of the following laws denotes that, "in the gametes, alleles of one gene separate independently of those of another gene, and thus all possible combinations of alleles are equally probable"? (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-Law of independent assortment DNA methylation results in which of the following? (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-Gene- silencing

Epigenetics refers to which of the following? (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-Changes in gene function that occur without DNA mutations, and that are passed on The term phenotype refers to which of the following? (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-The observable characteristics of an individual which result from expression of genes The inherited modification in the expression of a gene, which is not directly related to the nucleotide sequence of that gene, is called... (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-Epigenetic Inheritance A heterozygous individual with free earlobes must have which of the following? (Ch. 21)

  • Correct Answer-Two different alleles Methylation of a tumor suppressor gene may lead to which of the following? (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-Loss of cell cycle regulation Genetics is an expression of which of the following? (Ch. 21) - Correct Answer-Both transcription and translation If sperm were not able to synthesize ATP, which of its functions would be most directly affected? (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer-Motility Which of the following stages involved in implantation comes first? (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer-Fertilization Early embryonic cell divisions are called ______________. (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer- Cleavage Gastrulation is defined by which of the following? (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer-Stage of embryonic development following cleavage, hallmarked by movement of cells through the primitive streak to establish the three germ layers Embryonic stem cells are harvested from which embryonic stage? (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer-Option B The purpose of implantation is to ______________. (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer-Establish a physical connection to the mother Imagine that scientists removed 2 blastomere cells from a young 8-cell stage embryo in order to perform a genetic test. How would this impact the embryo's development? (Ch.
    • Correct Answer-There will not be a major impact on the embryo's development Which of the following cannot form from mesoderm? (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer-Brain

Which of the following describes the axial location of your heart? (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer-Anterior, ventral, left Which of the following steps is the first sign of mitosis? (Ch. 22) - Correct Answer- Cleavage From which embryonic layers does your brain originate? (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer- Ectoderm Human embryonic stem cells from the inner cell mass are at which level of potency? (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-Pluripotent, because they can form all cell types in the future embryo's body, but not extra-embryonic tissues ______________ refers to substance secreted in fetal lungs that prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-Surfactant Hox genes are ______________. (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-Required during nervous system development; Transcription factors; Required during vertebrae development Mesoderm instructing a region of endoderm to become the stomach is an example of ______________. (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-Cell communication During embryonic development, do organs assemble into tissues? (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-No, tissues assemble into organs The indicated structure becomes the ______________ later in development. (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-Brain and spinal cord Which organ derives from the foregut? (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-Lungs; Pancreas; Liver; Stomach Self-renewal is defined as which of the following? (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-Stem cell characteristic describing the ability to divide repeatedly while retaining an undifferentiated state in daughter cells Your finger cells have all the same chromosomes as your leg bone cells. Why do your fingers not look like your leg bone? (Ch. 23) - Correct Answer-Both stem cells in the leg bone cells are expressed differently than in the finger cells and certain genes are expressed only in the finger cells and stem cells in the leg bone cells are expressed differently than in the finger Which of the following is correct? (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-Reproductive cloning does not lead to artificial ontogenesis Which of the following statements about retinoic acid is false? (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-It does not harm the embryo if present in excess amounts

The ultimate goal of therapeutic cloning is to do which of the following? (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-Create stem cells for future disease treatments In somatic cell nuclear transfer, DNA from a(n) ______________ is transferred into a(n) ______________. (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-Adult somatic cell; egg lacking a nucleus Stem cell research is useful for ______________. (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-Basic research on cell differentiation; Drug screening; Finding ways to grow replacement organs; Finding cures for disease The most common source of embryonic stem cells is which of the following? (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-The inner cell mass of embryos created by in vitro fertilization Induced pluripotent stem cells are a promising breakthrough for stem cell research because ______________. (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-They can avoid problems with genetic compatibility and host rejection; An embryo is not destroyed when iPS cells are made; They are pluripotent, like embryonic stem cells Which of the following is an advantage of using adult stem cells rather than embryonic stem cells to develop disease treatments? (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-They avoid the ethical problems associated with embryonic stem cells and they have been used successfully in the past The fact that Hox gene ______________, ______________, and ______________ are so highly conserved supports the theory of a common ancestor. (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer-Sequence; Chromosomal arrangement; Function A doctor tells her pregnant patient not to drink ethanol during the pregnancy. The patient says that she complied with the request but nevertheless her child has wide set eyes, a flat face and a small head- classic signs of fetal alcohol syndrome(FAS). The reason that her child has FAS is which of the following? (Ch. 24) - Correct Answer- Patient did not comply with the request What drives the evolution of new life forms? (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-Nucleotide changes Which of the following is an important feature in Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection? (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-Descent with modification Why did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species? (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-Darwin was concerned about the negative reactions concerning the implications of his theory. Which of the following does NOT provide evidence for evolution? (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-Geographical distribution of ecosystems

The fossil record is incomplete because ....? (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-Some fossils have decomposed; Not all fossils have been found; Some life forms left no fossils. Tectonic Plate movement influences evolution by which of the following? (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-Changing the location of different types of ecosystems, increasing atmospheric carbon; Leaving deposits of lava, wiping out or reducing populations of species; Causing mass extinctions that open up opportunities of new species; Changing the locations of continents, causing some species to be geographically isolated from others. Which of the following statements about the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat is INCORRECT? (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor. Molecular biologist have uncovered-------- concerning Hox Genes. (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-Hox genes direct the building of common body plans between very diverse animal species. Which of the following support Darwin's theory of evolution? - Correct Answer-From the strong principle of inheritance, any selected variety will tend to propagate its new and modified form; As many more individuals of each species are born than can possibly survive; there is a frequently recurring struggle for existence; There are situations in which gradual evolution can not explain the changes seen. "Descent with Modification" refers which of the following?Choose the most complete answer) (Ch. 25) - Correct Answer-Both, different species adapt to different ecological niches and DNA explains the evolution of different species Variation (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Dictates that there are traits within a population that can lead to countless variations as well as traits within that same population that have little to no variations Inheritance (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Dictates that traits which are consistently passed to the offspring after every generation show strong heritability as opposed to the traits that are easily influenced by the environment which show weak heritability High rate of population growth (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Every generation produces more offspring than can survive Differential survival (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Populations with the most offspring will continue while those with fewer offspring will more likely go extinct Which of the following statements is NOT true: (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Homo sapiens have zero probability of becoming extinct

A population of Sri Lankan brown cockroaches lives on a forest floor. They suffer heavy predation from chameleons. Because their heads are small, the chameleons are unable to eat the very largest adult cockroaches, and instead prey upon small and medium sized adults. What type of selection does the chameleons impose on the roaches? (Ch.

    • Correct Answer-Directional selection At what level can adaptations occur? (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Physiological; Behavioral; Structural Mutations can be caused by which of the following affecting DNA? (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Radioactivity; X rays; Ultraviolet light; Certain chemicals Gene flow does which of the following? (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Increases the genetic variation in a population Hunting in the 1980s reduced the population of Northern Elephant Seals and their genetic variation. Their population size was decreased to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Their population has since rebounded to over 30,000 but they have much less genetic variation than a population of Southern Elephant Seals that was not so intensely hunted. This result in less genetic variation in the Northern Elephant Seal population is called? (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Bottleneck effect Which of the following statements is NOT true? (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Fitness refers to the strongest who survive. Examples of microevolution are which of the following? (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer- Mosquitoes that have evolved in response to global warming; Bacteria that have evolved to be resistant to antibiotics; House sparrows that have adapted to the climate of North America; Insects that have evolved resistance to our pesticides. Natural selection changes which of the following? (Ch. 26) - Correct Answer-Phenotype of the population