Geriatric Medicine: Comprehensive Care for Older Adults, Exams of Nursing

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NR 601 FINAL EXAM NEWEST ACTUAL

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You are reviewing a pt chart before the exam. You note that the pt is using topical capsaicin. You know that topical capsaicin is often used for tx of: a. Diabetic neuropathy b. Stress reduction c. All answers are appropriate d. Depression Correct Answer A Symptoms of depression distinct to elderly include: a. Loss of pleasure in usual activities b. Lack of emotions c. Flat affect d. Appetite/wt disturbances Correct Answer B 55yo woman presents with somatic complaints. You suspect anxiety. You know that somatic symptoms of anxiety include: a. All answers are appropriate b. Palpitations, CP, tachycardia c. Fatigue, insomnia, diaphoresis d. Diarrhea, nausea, vomiting Correct Answer A KK, 53yo man, presents w/concerns about low energy, lack of joy. You assess him using SIG-E-CAPS. You know the C stands for:

a. Catatonia b. Concentration c. Cognition d. Control Correct Answer B Pt presents w/neuropathic pain. You know the most effective meds include: a. Opioids & tramadol b. Gabapentin c. Tramadol d. Topical lidocaine e. Opioids f. Gabapentin and topical lidocaine Correct Answer F Justification for ordering CBC, TSH, serum B12 for a pt you suspect may have clinical depression is: a. Overlapping symptoms w/anemia, thyroid dysfunction, nutritional deficiencies b. Rule out vascular dz c. Differentiate between depression and anxiety d. Determine the cause of sadness Correct Answer A 65yo woman w/BMI 29, 15yr h/o HTN, on HCTZ 25mg for years w/excellent response. Follow up visit: reports that for last 1-2mo, she has been thirsty, increased urination. Last fasting BGL was

118. What action should you take next? a. Plan to recheck BGL as scheduled at yearly physical b. Check POC glucose now, since she has just eaten breakfast c. Educate that the diuretic is causing the increased thirst d. Order fasting BGL Correct Answer D

48yo female presents for annual exam. A1C is 6.2%. You interpret this result as: a. Prediabetes b. T2DM c. T1DM d. Normal Correct Answer A Foot problems are a major concern for diabetics due to vascular insufficiency and neuropathy. Part of the annual exam for detection of neuropathy should include: a. Monofilament testing b. Assess for loss of temp sensation c. Physical exam of feet d. POC glucose Correct Answer A Pt with BPH is seen for follow-up, has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6mo. You should assess for which side effect: a. Glaucoma b. Headache c. Ejaculatory dysfunction d. HTN Correct Answer C Pt is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Three days later, he c/o nausea and stomach cramping. How should you respond? a. D/C med immediately b. Reassure pt that this is anticipated side effect c. Double the dosage and have pt return in 1 wk d. Order chem 7 to check for lactic acidosis Correct Answer B According to ADA guidelines, which of the following are appropriate screening tests for T2DM?

a. Fasting plasma glucose b. 2-hour OGTT c. HgbA1C d. All of the above Correct Answer D Which dx should be considered in a pt presenting with erectile dysfunction? a. HTN b. DM c. Atherosclerosis d. All of the above Correct Answer D Which would be an appropriate tx for pt with minimal symptoms of BPH? a. Watchful waiting b. Refer to urology for surgery c. Prescribe trial of tamsulosin d. Recommend cranberry supplements Correct Answer A Lifestyle approaches to postmenopausal symptom management include: a. Avoiding sugar, caffeine, chocolate, ETOH b. Sleeping more than 8hrs per night c. Decreasing levels of physical activity d. More than 1000 iu/day of Vit E Correct Answer A 59yo female c/o pain when she urinates. She has been seen three times for this in the last 3mo. Each time, dx'd with UTI, given abx. She carefully followed instructions, but has no relief of symptoms. Last UA: WBC: 2- 3

RBC: 0- 2

Epithelial cells: few Nitrite: neg Leuk: neg Which should be done next? a. Perform pelvic exam b. Reassure the pt that she has asymptomatic bacteriuria and does not need abx c. Obtain clean catch urin for UA and C&S d. Order pelvic ultrasound Correct Answer A Which pt should be screened for DM? a. 47yo Caucasian male w/HTN b. 45yo female on disability from back injury, unable to exercise c. Hispanic man, BMI 26 d. Overweight middle-aged African American woman w/fam h/o T2DM e. All of the above Correct Answer E According to the GU presentation, #1 risk factor for urinary incontinence is: a. Uncontrolled DM b. Obesity c. Aging d. Smoking and caffeine intake Correct Answer C Which med can blunt the signs of hypoglycemia in diabetics? a. Beta blockers b. ARBs c. CCBs

d. Diuretics Correct Answer A What is a sign of insulin resistance that can present in African American pts? a. Seborrheic Nigricans b. Psoriasis Nigricans c. Bullemic Nigricans d. Acanthosis Nigricans Correct Answer D All of the following pts have a risk of adverse reaction from Metformin except: a. Pts w/alcoholic disorder b. Pts w/BMI > c. Pts w/hypoxia d. Pts w/renal dz Correct Answer B Pt presents with sudden, compelling desire to pass urine that is difficult to prevent. This type of incontinence is cause by: a. Impaired mobility b. Detrusor overactivity c. Urethral hypermobility d. Weakness of the pelvic floor muscle Correct Answer B 55yo woman w/BMI of 28, has 20yr h/o primary HTN, has been on HCTZ 25mg for years w/excellent response. During this follow up visit, she reports that for the last 6mo she has felt thirsty all of the time even though she drinks at least 10 glasses of water/day. Previous fasting BGL was 136. No further testing was done at that time. You check random BGL now, is 210. What is the next appropriate step? a. Order 3hr OGTT

b. Order another random BGL in 2wks c. Order A1C d. Prescribe metformin XR 500mg PO Correct Answer D Acanthosis Nigricans is associated with all of the following except: a. Colon cancer b. Tinea versicolor c. Obesity d. DM Correct Answer B 66yo dx'd with acute prostatitis, afebrile w/out severe pain, deemed appropriate to be managed outpt. An appropriate initial treatment option for mild case is: a. Septra x6wks b. Cipro x10-14 days c. Bactrim x14 days d. Levaquin x3wks Correct Answer B 55yo Caucasian man w/T2DM presents as new pt. Take metformin 500mg BID. Labs reveal albuminuria and A1C was 7%. He's current on eye/foot exams. BP today is 136/84. According to 2017 ACC Guidelines, the most appropriate med for his current status is: a. Furosemide b. Amlodipine c. Lisinopril d. Clonidine Correct Answer C Urinary incontinence is defined as: a. Sudden, compelling desire to pass urine that is difficult to prevent.

b. Urination occurs more frequently during the day than what would be considered normal c. Continuous loss of urine or leakage of urine d. Unintentional voiding, loss, or leakage of urine Correct Answer D How does women's anatomy make them more susceptible to UTIs? a. Their urethras are shorter b. There's a longer distance between urethra and anus c. Women tend to get UTIs when pregnant d. Asymptomatic UTIs do not resolve themselves w/out tx Correct Answer A 76yo man seen for c/o UI. You should explore which of these causes of UI in men? a. UTI b. Sildenafil c. Urethral polyps d. All of the above Correct Answer A Male pt with BMI of 30 presents with c/o fatigue, increased hunger, wt gain despite exercise. You suspect prediabetes. Initial testing to confirm can include: a. Fasting plasma BGL b. A1C c. OGTT d. All of the above Correct Answer D Mr. X returns to office for follow-up of first line tx of UI. He reports continued UI despite compliance w/first line measures. PE and

lab findings today are normal. You initiate 2nd line tx and prescribe: a. Morabegron b. Solifenacin c. Oxybutynin d. Doxazosin Correct Answer D Chronic pain can have major impact on pt's ability to function and have profound impact on overall QOL. Ongoing pain may be linked to: a. Depression b. Sleep disturbance c. Decreased socialization d. All of the above Correct Answer D Pathophysiology of HF is due to: a. Incomplete closure of tricuspid valve b. Impaired atrial filling c. Normal ventricular function d. Inadequate cardiac output to meet metabolic and O2 demands of the body Correct Answer D Meds known to contribute to constipation include all of the following except: Correct Answer Broad-spectrum abx Distinguishing delirium from dementia can be problematic since they may co-exist. The primary consideration in the DD is: Correct Answer Rapid change and fluctuating course of cognitive function Presbystasis is best described as: Correct Answer Age-related disequilibrium of unknown pathology characterized by gradual onset of difficulty walking

If dizziness has a predictable patter associated w/it, the clinician should first consider: Correct Answer Hypoglycemia All of the following are considered as contributors to dysphagia except: Correct Answer Smooth muscle relaxants Microscopic hematuria is defined as: Correct Answer 3 or more RBCs on 3 or more samples of urine Recent wt loss is defined as: Correct Answer Loss of >10lbs over the past 3-6mo Lipedema is best described as: Correct Answer Bilat distribution of fat in lower extremities All of the following statements about tremor are true except: Correct Answer The most common tremor is the Parkinson tremor Overflow incontinence is usually associated with: Correct Answer Bladder outlet obstruction Wandering is best described as: Correct Answer Purposeful excessive ambulatory behavior Symptoms of depression distinct to the elderly include: Correct Answer Lack of emotions One major difference that is useful in the DD of dementia vs delirium is that: Correct Answer Dementia develops slowly and delirium develops quickly Which of the following is the most appropriate screening tool for delirium? Correct Answer Confusion Assessment Method

The proposed mechanism by which diphenhydramine causes delirium is: Correct Answer Anticholinergic effects Elderly are at high risk for delirium because of: Correct Answer All of the above (multisensory declines, polypharmacy, multiple medical problems) Consistent finding in delirium, regardless of cause, is: Correct Answer Reduction in regional cerebral perfusion Older adults w/dementia sometimes suffer from agnosia, which is defined as the inability to: Correct Answer Recognize objects In late stages of dementia, a phenomenon called "sun downing" occurs, in which cognitive disturbances tend to: Correct Answer Become worse toward the evening Of the following, which one is most useful clinical eval tool to assist in dx of dementia? Correct Answer St. Louis University Mental Status Exams (SLUMS) The cornerstone of pharmacotherapy in treating Alzheimer's is: Correct Answer Cholinesterase inhibitor's The comorbid psych problem w/the highest frequency in dementia is: Correct Answer Depression When treating depression associated w/dementia, which of the following would be a poor choice and should not be prescribed? Correct Answer Amitriptyline A fluoroquinolone (Cipro) is prescribed for a male pt w/a UTI. What should you teach the pt regarding taking this med? Correct Answer Its effectiveness is decreased by antacids, iron, or caffeine

60yo obese male has T2DM and lipid panel of TC 250, HDL 32, LDL 165. You teach the pt about his modifiable cardiac risk factors, which include? Correct Answer DM, obesity, hyperlipidemia Diabetic pt presents w/the c/o R foot pain but denies recent known injury. He states it has gotten progressively worse over the past few months. On exam, vibratory sense as well as sensation tested w/a monofilament was abnormal. Pt's foot is warm, edematous, misshapen. You suspect Charcot foot. What intervention is indicated? Correct Answer Refer to podiatry 62yo male has chronic kidney dz that has been relatively stable. He has h/o hyperlipidemia, OA, HTN. He is compliant w/meds, BP has been well-controlled on a CCB. Last lipids showed TC 201, HDL 40, TG 180, LDL 98. He currently takes Crestor 20mg daily. Today his BP is 188/90 and urine dip shows significant proteinuria. He denies any changes in dietary habits or med regimen. What would be the best med change for him at this point? Correct Answer Change CCB to ACEI You're working in the Fast Track of ER. 76yo male presents w/LUQ pain. There can be many conditions that present as LUQ pain, but which of the following is least likely to cause pain in LUQ? Correct Answer Acute pancreatitis Which is a cardinal feature of failure to thrive? Correct Answer Poor nutritional status Feeding gastrostomy tubes at end-of-life Alzheimer's pts have been associated with: Correct Answer Aspiration Pna Which of the following nutritional indicators is not an indication of poor nutritional status in elderly? Correct Answer BMI 25

Which ethnic group has highest incidence of prostate ca? Correct Answer African Americans Men w/an initial PSA <2.5 can reduce their screening frequency to what intervals? Correct Answer Every 2yrs All of the following may be reasons associated w/an elevated PSA besides prostate ca except: Correct Answer UTI In dx'ing acute bacterial prostatitis, a midstream urine cx is of benefit. To be diagnostic, the specimen should reveal how many WBCs per high-power field? Correct Answer 10 In chronic bacterial prostatitis, what is the organism most commonly associated with the dz? Correct Answer E. coli In acute prostatitis, an exam of the prostate may find it to be: Correct Answer Swollen and tender All of the following antimicrobials may be indicated in chronic bacterial prostatitis except: Correct Answer Azithromycin Age-related changes in the bladder, urethra, and ureters include all of the following in older women except: Correct Answer Increased estrogen production's influence on the bladder and ureter 68yo male, retired Air Force pilot, has been dx'd w/prostate ca in the past wk. He's never had surgery and seeks clarification on availability of tx's for prostate ca. He asks you to tell him the SE of radical prostatectomy. Which of the following is NOT a potential SE of this procedure? Correct Answer Selected low back pain

You're evaluating a pt's pelvic muscle strength by digital exam. This is performed when: Correct Answer You need to confirm a cystocele or stress incontinence A pelvic mass in a post-menopausal woman: Correct Answer Is highly suspicious for ovarian ca 79yo man is being eval'd for frequent urinary dribbling w/out burning. Physical exam reveals smooth but slightly enlarged prostate. His PSA is 3.3. He undergoes formal urodynamic studies and findings are as follows: decreased bladder capacity of 370mL, few involuntary detrusor contractions at a low bladder volume of 246mL, increased postvoid residual urine volume of 225mL, and slightly decreased urinary flow rate. Which of the following is not consistent with normal age-associated change? Correct Answer Increased postvoid residual urine volume 65yo female presents to the clinic for the first time and c/o urinary incontinence and dyspareunia. She went through menopause 10yrs ago w/out any hormone replacement therapy and had hysterectomy for a fibroid. Her mom had hip fx at 82. Pt's most recent mammo was 5yrs ago, no known fam h/o breast ca. She is not taking any meds. Exam is unremarkable except for findings consistent w/atrophic vaginitis. You decide to begin topical hormone replacement therapy. Which of the following evals would be necessary prior to initiating HRT? Correct Answer Mammo 77yo Caucasian female has h/o breast ca. She's been in remission for 6yrs. As her PCP, you are seeing her for follow up of her recent c/o intermittent abd pain x3mo and general malaise. Given the hx above, what will you direct your assessment at during the exam? Correct Answer Thorough abd and gyn exam to rule out masses and ID any tenderness

Older adult pt is being eval'd after a stroke, which affected the anterior cerebral circulatory system. Which of the following s/s would be positive in the assessment of the pt? Correct Answer Disorders in behavior and cognition When assessing pt who c/o tremor, you must differentiate essential tremor from PD tremor. Which of the following assessment findings are consistent with essential tremor? Correct Answer Tremor occurs w/purposeful movements Which of the following assessments are commonly noted in a pt w/PD? Correct Answer Microphagia and bradykinesia An older adult w/a h/o sz disorder comes into the clinic for routine checkup. Although sz-free, the pt continues on long-term phenytoin tx. You would assess for which of the following long- term effects? Correct Answer Gingival hyperplasia and nystagmus An elderly nursing home pt is maintained on phenytoin tx for h/o sz. In addition to periodic serum drug concentrations, which of the following are needed for annual eval? Correct Answer CBC, LFT, platelet count 78yo female presents w/sz that occurred over the weekend. In selecting the most important diagnostics for this presentation, it is important to know that the least common site of sz's in the elderly is: Correct Answer Temporal lobe An elderly pt has had a CVA in the anterior cerebral circulatory system (frontal lobe). What symptoms are most likely expressed? Correct Answer Disorders of behavior and cognition The most common neuro cause of sz in older adults is: Correct Answer Stroke

You are evaluating an elderly pt's c/o new onset of hand shaking when he drinks from a cup. The pt is euthyroid and does not drink ETOH. Which of the following signs indicate that this tremor is most likely an essential tremor rather than a PD tremor? Correct Answer It is a moderate amplitude tremor that occurs only w/movement or activity. Which of the following assessment findings is commonly noted in a pt w/advanced PD? Correct Answer Microphagia Older adult male presents w/incontinence, has a wide-based and irregular gait, and progressive dementia. Which of the following presents w/these cardinal signs? Correct Answer Normal pressure hydrocephalus In review of a nursing home pt's chart, you discover that the neuro consult ID'd that the pt has a homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following statements accurately describes these findings? Correct Answer Loss of vision in either R or L halves of the visual fields The Mini-Cog is a short screening tool used to assess cognition. Which of the following statements pertaining to the test is a true statement? Correct Answer A score of 0-2 is positive screen for dementia Hospice care differs from palliative care in that: Correct Answer It supports pts and families through both the dying and bereavement process Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except: Correct Answer Lack of sufficient staff

The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except: Correct Answer Lower extremity weakness Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except: Correct Answer HA Strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists w/: Correct Answer Chronic kidney dz The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is: Correct Answer Methylnaltrexone Pharm interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except: Correct Answer Sedatives Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except: Correct Answer Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity The first step in treating delirium is to: Correct Answer ID the cause The majority of pts enrolled in hospice care die: Correct Answer At home A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying pt (pain and dyspnea) is: Correct Answer Morphine The tasks of grieving include all of the following except: Correct Answer Begin to disengage The best description of complicated grief is: Correct Answer Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchized

All of the following statements are true about interventions in working w/the bereaved except: Correct Answer There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with: Correct Answer Opioids for dyspnea The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with: Correct Answer Neuropathic pain pts are candidates for adjuvant analgesia What are some risk factors for prediabetes? Correct Answer

45yo Overwt/obesity Sedentary lifestyle Fam h/o T2DM What is the ADA recommendations for screening for T2DM? Correct Answer - Screen all adults at 45yo

• Test all adults who are overwt/obese w/1 risk factor (BMI >25,

23 for Asians)

• Screen at risk adults every 3yrs
• Screen yearly: prediabetes, increasing hyperglycemia, multiple risk factors What are the appropriate screening tests for T2DM? Correct Answer FBG: least expensive, requires fasting 2hr OGTT: most sensitive, expensive, requires prep/fasting. HgbA1C: no fasting, convenient What is a normal A1C? Correct Answer <5. What is the A1C level indicative of prediabetes? Correct Answer 5.7-6.

What is the A1C level indicative of T2DM? Correct Answer >/= 6. What is the fasting plasma glucose level indicative of prediabetes? Correct Answer 100 - 125 What is the fasting plasma glucose level indicative of T2DM? Correct Answer >/= 126 What is the OGTT level indicative of prediabetes? Correct Answer 140 - 199 What is the OGTT level indicative of T2DM? Correct Answer >/= 200 What are complications of uncontrolled DM? Correct Answer - Leading cause of CV mortality/morbidity

• Vision loss
• Renal complications
• Amputation What are the two types of hematuria and what do they mean? Correct Answer - Transient: occurs on one occasion
• Persistent: occurs on 2 or more occasions What are some dietary substances that can cause hematuria? Correct Answer Caffeine Spices Tomatoes Chocolate ETOH Citrus Soy sauce Meds that contribute to hematuria. Correct Answer Beta-lactam abx

Sulfonamides NSAIDs Cipro Allopurinol Tagamet Dilantin Anticoagulants ASA What are some diagnostic tests used to rule out hematuria causes? Correct Answer UA: positive blood Urine Cx & ID/sensitivities Micro UA: RBCs (if <3, hemoglobinuria? If >3, test for cause: ANA, immunoglobulins, CMP, CBC) What is gross hematuria usually associated with? Correct Answer Malignancy What is proteinuria usually associated with? Correct Answer Renal pathology, usually glomerular. Can be functional. Can be intermittent (stress, UTI, exercise). Can be from overproduction of filterable plasma protein, which can be associated with multiple myeloma. What is the best test for continuous proteinuria? Correct Answer 24hr urine What is an abnormal amount of protein in a 24hr urine? Correct Answer >160mg What amount of protein in a 24hr urine is indicative of nephrotic dz? Correct Answer >3.5g

Name some differentials for proteinuria. Correct Answer Exercises Environmental conditions Fever Illness CHF Injury Nephrotic syndrome Multiple myeloma (indicated by finding of Bence Jones protein) What are some diagnostic tests used in evaluating proteinuria? Correct Answer 24hr urine (measure protein & creatinine) Chemistry panel Lipids Urine Cx w/sensitivity CBC w/diff Bence Jones test When do you refer to nephrology? Correct Answer Positive nephrotic syndrome per 24hr urine (>3.5g) Abnormal renal function Any complicated management What is the initial workup for UI in men? Correct Answer Complete PMH PE (DRE, prostate eval) UA PSA if new onset UI What is the initial workup for UI in women? Correct Answer Complete PMH PE (Pelvic: perineal/vag exam to eval estrogen status, pelvic prolapse, fistula) UA Cough test

When do you refer male pt to urology? Correct Answer h/o pelvic surgery/radiation/pain Severe UI Severe lower urinary tract symptoms Recurrent urologic infections Abnormal prostate exam Elevated PSA What symptoms should you be alert to with new onset and underlying new onset urinary symptoms? Correct Answer UI Hematuria Pelvic pain Abd mass Dysuria Proteinuria Glucosuria CVA tenderness Nodular prostate Any neuro symptoms What are treatment goals for UI? Correct Answer Individualized Similar for men and women Reduce urgency symptoms Reduce frequency Reduce nocturia Reduce UI episodes Improve QOL Increase social activities Reduce leakage volume Increase dryness Use less protection Avoid leakage during certain activities Increase independence in UI management Decrease caregiver burden

What are first-line management guidelines for UI? Correct Answer Behavioral therapy (bladder training, prompted/timed voiding, Kegels, pelvic floor training) Lifestyle modification Wt loss Eliminate bladder irritants: Smoking, ETOH, sodas, coffee, acidic/spicy foods Maintain adequate fluid balance How long should first-line UI management be tried before using pharm therapy? Correct Answer 3 months What is second-line management strategies for UI and overactive bladder in women? Correct Answer Antimuscarinics (first-line meds for women; response unpredictable; SE common): oxybutynin, tolterodine (Detrol), fesoterodine (Toviaz), trospium. Beta-3 adrenergic agonists (less SE than antimuscarinics): mirabegron (Myrbatriq) What are the most common SE for antimuscarinics? Correct Answer Dry mouth Blurred vision Constipation Nausea Dizziness HA What is the MOA for antimuscarinics? Correct Answer Block acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, relaxes bladder smooth muscle, inhibits involuntary detruser muscle contraction. When are antimuscarinics contraindicated? Correct Answer Narrow-angle glaucoma

Gastric retention Urinary retention When are beta-3 adrenergic agonists contraindicated? Correct Answer HTN (do not use if SBP >180 or DBP >100) Severe renal/liver dz What is MOA for beta-3 adrenergic agonists? Correct Answer Stimulates beta-3 adrenergic receptors, which relaxes bladder smooth muscle What is 2nd line management for UI in males? Correct Answer Alpha-1 blockers (doxazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin, alfuzosin, silodosin) What are common SE of alpha-1 blockers? Correct Answer Dizziness (doxazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin, alfuzosin) Dyspnea (doxazosin) Edema (doxazosin) Fatigue (doxazosin) Somnolence (doxazosin) Postural hypotension (terazosin) Asthenia (terazosin, tamsulosin) Abnormal ejaculation (tamsulosin) Back pain (tamsulosin) Increased cough (tamsulosin) URI (alfuzosin) Retrograde ejaculation (silodosin) What is the main MOA of alpha-1 blockers? Correct Answer Prostatic smooth muscle relaxation What is the definition of interstitial cystitis? Correct Answer Chronic bladder inflammation syndrome Characterized by pelvic pain and irritative voiding symptoms

Pathology unknown Related to autoimmune, allergic, or infection etiology Dx of exclusion Mostly women What is the age of onset for interstitial cystitis? Correct Answer 30 - 70 What are symptoms of interstitial cystitis? Correct Answer Voiding small amounts Uncomfortable constant urge to void May worsen the week of menstruation What are some diff dx's for interstitial cystitis? Correct Answer UTI Prostatitis Cystitis Vaginitis Endometriosis Neuropathic bladder dysfunction Neoplasm Overactive bladder What are some diagnostic tests for interstitial cystitis? Correct Answer UA Urine cx Potassium sensitivity test Cystoscopy What is the treatment goal for interstitial cystitis? Correct Answer Symptom management What should be avoided in interstitial cystitis? Correct Answer Acidic food Caffeine