HAZWOPER 40 - FINAL EXAM 2024, Exams of Nursing

Download HAZWOPER 40 - FINAL EXAM 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e HAZWOPER 40 - FINAL EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|NEWEST|GUARANTEED PASS |LATEST UPDATE PAPR stands for Powered Air Purifying Respirator the most common type of supplied-air respirator is the _______ self-contained breathing apparatus what must be present to use an air-purifying respirator 19.5% oxygen or greater APR's are NOT approved for _______ IDLH (immediately dangerous to life and health) atmospheres Cartridges must be changed prior to chemical ___ breakthrough what three variables must be identified before APRs can be considered for use? identity of hazard, concentration, and oxygen content in an atmosphere which is IDLH, your best respiratory protection is a positive pressure SCBA pressure demand SCBAs have a protection factor of 10,000 the two types of entry and escape SCBAs are 2 | P a g e open circuit and closed circuit when should you wear an SCBA when an APR protection factor is not sufficient for the chemical concentration in the work area ______ is determined experimentally by measuring face piece seal and exhalation valve leakage the protection factor (PF) an air-purifying respirator provides _________ than a supplied-air respirator less protection (PF)(PEL or TLV) = Maximum Value Limit define the acronym IDLH Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health the two types of respirator fit tests are qualitative and quantitative what are the two quick checks for wearing a respirator positive and negative the individual who uses a respirator is required to perform a _______ to ensure that an adequate seal is achieved each time the respirator is put on user seal check all personnel and equipment leaving the hazardous water site must be ______ to prevent the spread of hazardous materials off the site decontaminated the ________ is part of the site-specific health and safety plan decontamination plan _______ might be either on the surface of the PPE or may have permeated the PPE material contaminants you should always try to _____ contact with contaminants minimize for _____ contaminants, treatment can only be performed by qualified physicians inhaled 5 | P a g e what is defined as a one time or an infrequent exposure to a high concentration of a substance? chronic personnel that handle chemicals need to follow a hygiene program that will prevent the accidental ingestion of hazardous material true what is considered to be a synergistic effect? (2+2 = 6) what is considered to be an additive effect? (2+2 = 4) chronic or delated effects rarely occur a long time after exposure false what are the two main types of materials that are capable of skin and metal destruction? acids and bases what information must the safety data sheet contain? -product identification and manufacturers name -hazardous ingredients -fire and explosion hazard data what information must a label contain? -standardized signal words -pictogram -hazard statement for each class and category -precautionary statements local fire codes generall require facilities to post NFPA signs on buildings and doors to warn of the hazardous chemicals within true what is the first thing you should do if a chemical enters your eyes? flush the eyes with water if exposed to acids or bases, what factors into the extend of the injury? -concentration of the acid or base -quantity of acid or base involved -body area affected -duration of the contact 6 | P a g e what is the rule of 9? a chemical burn is 9 times as damaging as a thermal burn in an acid-base neutralization reaction, it is not important to reduce the possibilities of an uncontrolled reaction false what is a colorless, vicous fluid that is relatively insoluble in water and can withstand high temperatures without degradation? PCB mixture what action with different types of materials is a potential hazard at any waste site? mixing what can happen if hydrogen gas is present with an ignition source? explosion some fish products from the US waters and baltic sea were found to contain several parts per million of PCBs and all have been cleared for human comsumption false what does acute effects of inhalation include? -muscular weakness -loss of coordination -disorientation and confusion -unconsciousness and sometimes death what is included in the fire triangle? fuel, oxygen, ignition source over the long term, chronic effects of solvents tend to affect the function of the liver or the kidneys true if a solvent is splashed into the eyes, how long should you flush with cool water? 15 minutes what is, by chemical definition, any material that will gain electrons during a chemical reaction? oxidizer _______ not only mix oxides and flammable components, but also readily decompose if subjected to friction, heat, shock, or contamination organic peroxides 7 | P a g e what happens to oxygen during a cooling process? liquifies what are the hazards involved in using water as an extinguishing agent to fight an oxidizer fire? -run off -impregnation of combustibles -possible water reactivity of the oxidizer water reactive metals tend to be soft metals that have high melting points false water reactive metals tend to be soft metals that have ____ melting points low treat unstable materials as ________ until they are proven otherwise explosives what hazardous materials exist as liquids or crystalline liquids? unstable which form of radiation will generally not penetrate intact skin, but can be a serious hazard if ingested or inhaled? alpha _______ amounts of radiation are chronic doses over a long period of time, such as our normal daily exposures over a lifetime small what can stop beta particles thin piece of metal what can be stopped by lead? gamma waves what is the term which describes how sensitive a given cell is to radiation damage? radiosensitivity what is referred to as the way particles and rays radiate from their source at speeds up to that of light? radiation what consists of particles or rays given off from a source that produces ionization in its path? ionizing radiation 10 | P a g e -volume of sample to be taken -type of sample container to be used when is a sample considered to be in a person's custody? -it is in their possession -it is in view of the person after they have taken possession -it is placed in a restricted area off-limits to unauthorized personnel the first person on site determines from available site information the personal protective equipment to be used by sampling personnel false what is the best sampling device for direct sample recovery since they provide a large volume of sample in a short time? bucket augers soil samples may be collected using a variety of methods and equipment, what is the method and equipment dependent on? -depth of desired sample -type of soil -if the sample needs to be from disturbed or undisturbed soil the disadvantage of using bailers is that they are time consuming because of their limited sample volume true a peristaltic pump is useful when relatively small samples are needed false sludge and sediment sampling is similar to soil sampling in that the material may be collected as though it is a solid true what should you do if a drum shows signs of swelling or bulging -relieve excess pressure glass tubing should be used with materials containing hydrofluroic acid or strong alkali solutions false what are the three phases of site characterization? -off site characterization -onsite surveys -ongoing-monitoring 11 | P a g e what should be performed when site hazards are largely unknown or when there is no need to go on site immediately? perimeter reconnaissance what should the off site characterization be used for prior to site entry? developing a site safety plan for site entry gather as much information as possible after you enter a hazardous site, not before false upon entering a site, what safety hazards should be noted? -conditions of site structures -obstacles to entry and exit -terrain instability and stability of stacked material what does site characterization include? -perimeter reconnaissance -interview records and research -information sources why is site characterization performed? to assess hazards at the waste site why is proper documentation and document control essential? -ensures accurate communication -ensures the quality of the data collected -provides reasons for safety decisions -supports possible legal actions what are some examples of works hazards created by using PPE? -physical and psychological stress -heat stress -impaired vision and reduced mobility where does OSHA require a written program for selection and use of respirators? 29 CFR 1910.134 the two basic goals of a PPE program are to protect the wearer from safety and health hazards and prevent injury to the wearer from wearing incorrect use/malfunction of PPE true how often should the PPE program be reviewed? annually 12 | P a g e what EPA level of protection provides the highest degree of respiratory and skin protection against gases and vapors? Level A what is the primary difference between Level A and B PPE? splash protection what level of PPE should be worn when the airborne contaminants are known, the concentrations are measured, and the requirements for using air-purifying respirators are met? Level C Level D should be worn when a minimum level of protection is needed from chemical hazards true ideally how often should all chemical protective suits should be inspected? monthly what is the process by which a chemical dissolves in an or moves through a protective clothing material? permeation permeation of PPE is affected by? temperature, material thickness, and chemical composition what is the loss of or change in the fabrics chemical resistance or physical properties? degradation when planning an SCBA-assisted work mission, what variables should be considered? work rate, fitness, body size which factors limit a mission length? air-supply consumption suit permeation and penetration by chemical contaminants ambient temperature coolant supply the ambient temperature has minor influence on work mission duration true heat stress can occur in relatively moderate temperatures true what records should be kept for all reusable pieces of equipment? 15 | P a g e -if a n engineer approves the work -if the site safety and health officer approves the work when is a competent person equired? if workers will be entering the excavation order the soil types from the most stable to least most stable- type A less stable- type B least stable- type C who is responsible for classifying soils? competent person what type of soil crumbles freely or with moderate pressure into individual grains? type C in a visual test, the entire excavation site is observed, including the soil adjacent to the site and the soil being excavated true who approves trench boxes or shields? registered P.E. There is no sloping requirement for _____ stable rock "Distress" in OSHA parlance, means that a cave-in is ______ imminent or likely to occur what type of wood is typically used in timber shoring? oak employee records may be used to: -conduct future epidemiological studies -provide evidence in litigation -report workers medical conditions to federal ,state, and local agencies as required by law -assess the effectiveness of engineering controls, work practices, and PPE the employee should receive a baseline or initial medical examination based on an activity hazard assessment prior to being assigned to a hazardous or potentially hazardous activity true 16 | P a g e to ensure that the physician understands the OSHA and EPA medical surveillance requirements, the physician must provide their own copy of the standard and its appendices false following the OSHA hazardous waste standard, the employer must maintain and preserve medical records of a worker's exposure to hazardous materials for what period of time? for the term of employment plus 30 years during a physical exam, conditions such as a missing or anthric finger, facial scars, dentures, poor eyesight, or perforated eardrums should not be noted false Workers enrolled in medical surveillance programs must have medical examinations at the following times: -before and after assignment -after any possible over exposure to a hazardous substance in an emergency situation -annually or at more frequent times if necessary, according to the physician why is assessment of the cardiovascular system an important part of a baseline medical surveillance exam? identified people with cardiovascular risk factors who may not be permitted to use personal protective equipment including respirators What does evacuate mean? locate personnel to a safe distance downwind what is removing or assisting victims from an area? extricate when should you attempt emergency response or rescue? when backup personnel and evacuation routes have been identified government authorities are responsible for large-scale public evacuations true The purpose of a site control program is to... all of the above an effective site control program contains key procedures that reduce worker and public exposure to ____ all of the above the level of site control needed depends on _______ 17 | P a g e all of the above the ______ serves as a central source of information about the site and can help personnel plan and organize activities. site map the safety officer is normally found in the Contamination Reduction Zone or Support Zone the support zone is typically has the following: all of the above what is a hotline? a place that divides the contaminated area from all other zones the boundary between the support zone and CRZ is called the contamination control line which of the following is not true about site security? site security is necessary to intimidate the competition an external communication system between on site and off site personnel is ________ necessary verbal communication at a site can be _______ by on site background noise and the use of personal protective equipment impeded Two sets of communication systems should be established: ______ and ______ internal and external Exercise ____ in handling drums that are not intact and tightly sealed extreme caution until contents can be verified, what should personnel assume that unlabeled drums contain? hazardous materials what does the appropriate procedures for handling drums depend on? drum contents what may occur during handling of drums and other hazardous waste containers? accidents 20 | P a g e briefing for rescue operations, the rescue line needs to pass a _______ test 2,000 pounds at what percent does the LEL need to be to before continuing entry preparation? less than 10% what are two factors that can cause an atmosphere to become flammable? oxygen and flammable components which of the following are sources of ignition? metal friction, static electricity, unapproved electrical equipment, lit cigarette, sparks from welding what is LEL Lower Explosive Limit what must portable electric tools used in a confined space be protected by? ground-fault circuit interrupter confined spaces with top and side openings should be entered from the side whenever practicable. When entry must be made into a confined space through a top opening, the following requirements apply -harness-type safety belt that supports a person in an upright position must be used -a hoisting device with a minmium mechanical advantage of 4:1 must be provided for lifting workers out of the confined space before an entry permit is issued, what is required before entry to ensure the atmosphere is acceptable? ventilation oxygen content must be tested every? 20 minutes what should you never rely on to identify a cylinder? color what is a nonflammable gas that can support and vigorously accelerate combustions in the presence of an ignition source and fuel? oxidizer gas hazards of reactivity and toxicity of the gas and asphyxiation can be caused by high concentrations of harmless gases such as nitrogen true 21 | P a g e All compressed gas cylinders are required to have _______ identifiers where should cylinders with a valve be placed? in an accessible location how should a cylinder with a valve to be opened? slowly select the following rules that should always be followed in regards to piping -plastic piping shall no be used for any portion of a high pressure system -do not use cast iron pipe for chlorine - do not conceal distribution lines where a high concentration of a leaking hazardous gas can build up and cause an accident -distribution lines and their outlets should be clearly labeled as to the type of gas contained cylinders containing flammable gases must not be stored in: -close proximity to an open flame -areas where electrical sparks are generated -areas where other sources of ignition may be present what should you do if a leak occurs at the junction of the cylinder valve and cylinder? call the supplier when moving a cylinder, you should -protect the valve during transportation -cylinders should never be rolled or dragged -when moving large cylinders they should be strapped to a properly designed wheeled cart to ensure stability what is the first thing you should do if a gas pipeline is leaking? -ensure the pressure has been released and equipment is purged leaks that occur at the valve outlet connection is frequently due to: dirt, damaged connections, and damaged washers Chronic responses to chemical exposures occurs only a short time after exposure. False Which of the following is NOT on the "to-do" list for solvents? Keep solvents in a non-ventilated area. A corrosive is a substance, usually a liquid, which is capable of completely dissolving another substance. 22 | P a g e True Which of the following is NOT a way to protect yourself from toxins? Conduct all activities with the maximum amount of PPE possible. Which class of helmets has no resistance to electrical voltage? Class C Toxic dose is the same for every living thing False Which of the following is NOT a step that should be covered in an emergency response procedure? Clarification An OSHA standard dealing with general slip and fall protection would be an example of ______. Horizontal A change in season, weather, or changes in job tasks are examples of reassessment indicators for a site. True The contingency plan should include ______ personnel. Both on and off-site A decontamination plan should be developed ______ any operations begin with any hazardous substances. Before When the exposure of two different toxic chemicals produces a more severe effect than either one alone is called ______ interaction. Synergisitic Where are titles representing broad areas that are subject to Federal regulation found? Code of Federal Regulations In the Code of Federal Regulations, which section explains who is subject to the regulation and under what circumstances? Scope and application paragraph The entry team and reserves should always consist of how many persons? 3 25 | P a g e Which of the following is a component from a Medical Surveillance Program? All of the above The area where decontamination takes place is called the ______. Contamination Reduction Zones 29 CFR 1910.120 gives employers the option to develop a Medical Surveillance Program. False All personnel should have some form of emergency training? True HAZWOPER regulations apply to emergency response operations only for releases and not for threats of releases No, this statement is not correct Identify the acronym for Hazardous Water Operations and Emergency Response HAZWOPER The primary components of the OSHA regulation applicable to the proper management of hazardous materials are: 29 CFR Part 1910 What does RCRA stand for? Resource Conservation and Recovery Act The Hazard Communication Standard applies to what type of hazard? both physical and natural hazards Material safety data sheets (MSDS) are known as Safety Data Sheets (SDS) When must hazard communication training be done? All of the above- includes: -at initial assignment -when a new chemical is used -when there is a change in the process what is GHS? Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals What conveys health, physical, and environmental hazard information, assigned to a hazard and category? 26 | P a g e pictograms what must be labeled? containers if a chemical has a GHS rating of 4 it is? least hazardous if a chemical has a GHS rating of 1, it is most hazardous How many sections are there on an SDS? 16 An ________ must be on hand for each hazardous chemical used SDS How many mandatory sections are there on an SDS? 12 SDS must be ____________ accessible to employees during their work shift readily the _____ should specifically identify the names and organizational relationships among key personnel HASP Who has the responsibility for overall management of projects? project manager The Site Safety and Health Officer is responsible for _____ managing the health and safety program for the site who is responsible for maintaining line-of-sight contact at a HAZWOPER site? command post supervisor the security officer is responsible for _________ controlling facility access and egress the ______ is responsible for planning and mobilization of the facilities logistics officer ___________ consisting of field team members who complete the on site tasks required to fulfill the work plan, should be identified 27 | P a g e specialty teams the specific responsibilities of the ______ should be stated bomb squad expert which of the following is true about the exclusion zone? eating is prohibited what must be posted at the entrance access control point? health and safety procedure in order to prevent the injuries at the work sire, people should be trained on ______ proper operating procedures Keep cabs free of all _____ and secure all ____ Non-essential items, loose items the three components essential for a fire are: Oxygen, fuel, ignition source flammable gases with a wide flammable range, such as hydrogen or acetylene, are ________ than a material with a narrow flammable range easier to ignite gases and vapors are heavier than air....? pose a hazard because they can displace air, especially in low lying areas a safety data sheet tells us that a material has a pH of 1.2. this chemical data tells us that the material is a? acid the NFPA 704 system identifies that hazards of materials in? instability, health, and flammability what does the white section of the NFPA 704 hazard diamond represent? special hazards the blue section of the NFPA hazard diamond designates which hazard? health define the acronym JSA Job Safety Analysis 30 | P a g e When the exposure of two different toxic chemicals produces a more severe effect than either one alone is called ______ interaction. Synergisitic Where are titles representing broad areas that are subject to Federal regulation found? Code of Federal Regulations Which one of the following is a step in treatment for solvent exposure? Both A and C In the Code of Federal Regulations, which section explains who is subject to the regulation and under what circumstances? Scope and application paragraph The entry team and reserves should always consist of how many persons? [X] 3 Which method of toxic chemical entry is the least commonly found at the workplace? Injection Which act regulates and enforces the clean-up of abandoned hazardous waste sites and hazardous waste sites created prior to RCRA? CERCLA Which of the following is NOT a step in the employers Hazard Communication Program? Conducting a review meeting weekly of rules under HCS Decontamination facilities should be located in ______. The Contamination Reduction Zone Which of the following is NOT a requirement covered in 29 CFR 1910 regarding face, head, foot, and hand protection? All workers have the responsibility of evaluating their workplace to determine hazards Pre-planning is essential for Emergency and Non-emergency medical treatment. True A contingency plan ______. 31 | P a g e [X] Sets forth policies and procedures for responding to site emergencies [?] All of the above If a coworker is being electrically shocked, you should ______. Shut of the power Which of the following should be conducted first? An off-site survey Who is responsible for assessing the potential risk of a hazard, and, if the level of risk is acceptable, determining if something needs to be done to lower the risk? The Site Health and Safety Officer Explosives, organic peroxides, and oxidizers are examples of ______. [X] Chemical health hazards [?] Chemical physical hazards What is an example of an item that would be located in a refuge area? Both B and C Any substance, situation, or condition that is capable of harming human health, property, or the environment is called a/an ______. Hazard The level of site control needed depends on ______. All of the above If you see blood spilled in the workplace, you should immediately clean it up, even without proper training or equipment. False NFPA signage is developed by the DOT and details hazard classes for materials that are shipped. False Which of the following is NOT a standard operating procedure for decontamination? Evacuate the premises in all contamination circumstances The best way to stop the chemical action of corrosives is to ______. Flush with water Solvents are typically solids. False 32 | P a g e Corrosive class chemicals are the most commonly used and transported group of hazardous materials. False Occupational medical tests have limitations and can be inaccurate. True Which of the following is NOT an example of a pathogen? [X] Fungi [?] None of the above Which of the following is NOT something that a site map should highlight? Bathrooms When hiring and assigning tasks, make the job fit the person, not force the person to fit the job. True Record keeping should be kept and preserved for _____ years post employment. 30 Decontamination protects the community by preventing uncontrolled transportation of contaminants from the site. True If new information is obtained and a situation is less hazardous than originally thought, PPE should be re-evaluated. True A hazardous substance that has no commercial value is called a hazardous ______. Waste The degree of permeation depends on what factor? All of the above Which of the following is a component from a Medical Surveillance Program? All of the above The area where decontamination takes place is called the ______. Contamination Reduction Zones 29 CFR 1910.120 gives employers the option to develop a Medical Surveillance Program. False To whom should employee medical records be available to?