HAZWOPER 8 Hour Refresher Test: Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

Download HAZWOPER 8 Hour Refresher Test: Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! hazwoper 8 hour refresher test With Questions And 100% SURE ANSWERS 2024 Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of a hazardous substance accident? A Broken or rusted pipes B Following standard operating procedures C Faulty valves or transfer hoses D Leaking tank - Answer- b What is a hazardous substance? A Any substance defined under section 101(14) of CERCLA B Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent that could cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction), or physical deformations in exposed people or their offspring C Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as a hazardous material under 49 CFR 172.101 and its appendices D Hazardous waste E All of the above - Answer- e All hazardous substances are hazardous wastes. A True B False - Answer- b The floodwaters of Hurricane Katrina were polluted with which of the following hazardous substances? A Petroleum B Dioxin C Mercury D Pesticides E All of the above - Answer- e The law that requires employers to provide a workplace that is "free from recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious physical harm" is known as: A OSH Act B RCRA C HSWA D SARA - Answer- a Which of the following acts was passed in 1976 to protect human health and the environment from the potential hazards of waste disposal? A HSWA B RCRA C OSH Act D CERCLA - Answer- b Which regulation deals with cleaning up inactive and abandoned hazardous waste sites? A Solid Waste Disposal Act B Clean Air Act C CERCLA D Clean Water Act - Answer- c Hazard analysis for all tasks on-site B Site control measures C Names of key personnel D Medical surveillance guidelines E All of the above - Answer- e Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA - Answer- a Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander - Answer- a A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: A Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities B Enter the hot zone for the purpose of stopping the release C Implement the Incident Command System for the response D All of the above - Answer- b Which training level describes individuals who assume control of the incident scene and implement the Incident Command System and emergency procedures? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander - Answer- d Commonly known as the Superfund program, ________ was enacted by Congress in 1980 in response to the Love Canal situation. A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA - Answer- c Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? - Answer- not CERCLA Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? - Answer- not First Responder Operations Level A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: - Answer- not Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities So how much waste must a facility generate to earn these classifications? - Answer- CESQG: Less than 100 kg hazardous waste per month SQG: 100 kg to 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month LQG: More than 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month Generators may accumulate up to _____ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. - Answer- 55 It is the responsibility of the generator to determine whether a waste is hazardous. - Answer- TRUE Discharges of industrial wastewater generally do not require a permit. - Answer- FALSE Stormwater pollution is caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from: A) Outdoor equipment B) Processes C) Wastes D) Storage areas Knowledge Check: Stormwater E) ALL OF ABOVE - Answer- E How often must small or large quantity generators conduct inspections of their storage areas? A Daily B Weekly C Monthly D Yearly - Answer- b Generators may accumulate up to ___ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. A 45 B 55 C 65 D 75 - Answer- b You must label drums or other containers of hazardous waste: A Once the drum or container is full B Only if stored at a satellite location C Before placing any waste in them D If the accumulation start date is within the current calendar year - Answer- c Stormwater pollution may be caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from outdoor equipment or storage areas. A True B False - Answer- a Which of the following requires special management in order to avoid disposal as a hazardous waste? A Scrap metal B Scrap tires C Used batteries D Empty drums E Empty paint cans F All of the above - Answer- f Industrial wastewater includes domestic sanitary wastes (e.g., from sinks or toilets). A True B False - Answer- b When industrial wastewaters are discharged to surface waters (e.g., a creek, ditch, pond or lake), the EPA or state requires a: A National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit B Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) C Best Management Practice (BMP) - Answer- a A facility that has no outdoor exposures may be exempt from stormwater permitting requirements. A True B False - Answer- a Wastewater and stormwater permits will never require sampling, inspections or recordkeeping. A True B False - Answer- b Best Management Practices (BMPs) are: A A defined set of procedures released from the EPA to control the level of pollutants and dangerous chemicals in the environment B Administrative practices to ensure the cost-effective storage of hazardous chemicals C Common-sense practices to prevent the introduction of pollutants to stormwater and to prevent the discharge of dangerous chemicals - Answer- c Which type of battery is OK to dispose of in the general trash? A Automobile True B False - Answer- a Which are the four major areas covered by the standard? Hazard classification, written program, SDSs and labels, and: A Engineering controls B Monitoring C Training D PPE - Answer- not b, not d The purpose of the GHS is to: A Establish the United States' standards worldwide B Improve reading comprehension among workers C Protect employers from worker lawsuits D Reduce confusion and worker injury and illness - Answer- d The GHS standardizes an international approach to the HazCom Standard. A True B False - Answer- a The hazard statement on Chemical A's label says it can cause skin irritation and respiratory problems. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Ambiguous hazard B Health hazard C Physical hazard D Retroactive hazard - Answer- c Chemical B is pyrophoric. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Health hazard B Layered hazard C Physical hazard D Physical and health hazards - Answer- c Who must provide labels when they ship chemicals? A Manufacturers B Importers C Distributors D All of the above - Answer- d When performing a hazardous chemical inventory, employers must consider chemicals in liquid or gas form only. A True B False - Answer- b In chemical inventories, employers must identify chemicals in: A Chewing tobacco B Clothes detergent C Pipes D Soft drinks - Answer- c At a multi-employer worksite, employers must include details in their ________ about how they will share information with the other employers. A Inspection reports B Insurance paperwork C Work agreements D Written programs - Answer- d Requirements for which of the following should be included in the written program? A Yours B Your employer's C Your supervisor's D OSHA's - Answer- a There is a specific ____-section format required for Safety Data Sheets. A 6 B 10 C 16 D 20 - Answer- c Employees must be trained on the Hazard Communication program whenever: A A new hazard is introduced into their work area B The season changes C They start work every day D They go on vacation and then return - Answer- a An unplanned event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness, damage to or loss of equipment or property, or damage to the environment, is referred to as: A A hazard B A mishap C A risk - Answer- b Risk is the likelihood that a ___ will cause a ____. A Hazard, mishap B Mishap, hazard C Loss, injury D Injury, loss - Answer- a A hazard related to the composition, structure and properties of substances is called a: A Mechanical hazard B Physical hazard C Chemical hazard D Biological hazard - Answer- c Toxicity can be measured by: A Threshold Limit Value (TLV) B Lethal Concentration (LC) C Lethal Dose (LD) D All of the above - Answer- d Acids and alkaline caustic liquids are examples of: A Corrosives B Flammables and explosives C Oxidizers D Pyrophoric materials - Answer- a Which physical property affects the ease with which a fuel can be ignited? A Flashpoint B Ignition temperature True B False - Answer- a Relying on your senses will always alert you to the presence of a hazard. A True B False - Answer- b DOT labels and placards are: A Color-coded B Word-coded C Symbol-coded D Number-coded E All of the above - Answer- e A green DOT placard indicates a non-flammable hazard. A True B False - Answer- a There are 11 different DOT hazard classes. A True B False - Answer- b A low-pressure chemical carrier is usually: A An oval cylinder B Circular in diameter with reinforcing exterior stiffening rings C A round cylinder D Used for carrying cryogenic materials - Answer- c Pressurized tank cars usually carry flammable and nonflammable gases and poisons. A True B False - Answer- a A sign that a hazard may be present is: A Seeing a spill or release B Smelling an unusual odor C Hearing a release or process alarm D Witnessing a fire or explosion E Hearing a warning signal F All of the above - Answer- f Which of the following elements of a risk assessment may be impossible to determine? A The source and size of the spill or release B The immediate effects of the spill or release C Characteristics of the scene D Preliminary identification of the material E Potential hazards - Answer- not b, not c, not a Contact with a chemical, physical or biological agent is referred to as: A Exposure B Threshold Limit Value (TLV) C Absorption D Injection E Inspiration - Answer- e Taking care not to eat, drink, smoke or apply cosmetics in a contaminated area will help prevent exposure via which route of entry? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection - Answer- b Which of the following are symptoms of acute exposure? A Irritation to the skin, eyes or lungs B Bad smell C Chest pain D Dizziness E All of the above F B and D only - Answer- e Which of the following effects may be caused by chronic exposure to chemicals? A Skin irritation B Central nervous system effects C Liver, kidney or other organ damage D Cancer E Asbestosis F All of the above - Answer- f Skin irritation from UV radiation is an example of: A Local effects B Systemic effects - Answer- a Nephrotoxins produce liver damage. A True B False - Answer- b DNA and gene changes resulting in birth defects in infants is an example of what type of toxic effect? A Biochemical B Carcinogenic C Mutagenic D Teratogenic - Answer- c Exposure to cotton dust is most likely to affect which body part? A Reproductive system B Chest and lungs C Bones and joints D Stomach and intestines - Answer- b Which of the following factors influence reactions to chemical exposure? A Solubility of toxic agent B C The kidneys D The nervous system - Answer- a Which of the following is NOT true of monitoring? A It detects the presence of a potentially hazardous condition B It measures the concentration of hazardous substances C It replaces the need for personal protective equipment D It is done before exposure occurs and on an ongoing basis - Answer- c The four types of monitoring systems commonly used are: A Personal, Environmental, Biological, Medical B Personal, Impersonal, Biological, Medical C Personal, Environmental, Remote, Compositional D Environmental, Biological, Medical, Examination - Answer- a Biological monitoring is the measurement of contaminant concentrations in the workplace. A True B False - Answer- b Gases, liquids and solids can contaminate air. A True B False - Answer- a How is monitoring data used? A To detect potential hazards B To measure concentrations C To identify substances D To assist in the selection of protective clothing E All of the above - Answer- e Which of the following CANNOT be detected by air monitoring? A Toxic chemicals B Fire and explosion hazards C Mechanical hazards D Oxygen deficiency or enrichment - Answer- c Protective clothing and respirators that protect the responder from toxic hazards provide adequate protection against fire or explosions. A True B False - Answer- b An oxygen-enriched atmosphere is defined as one containing more than what percentage of oxygen? A 19.5% B 21% C 23.5% D 10% - Answer- c Fiber concentrations are usually measured in: A ppm B mg/m3 At which of the following is medical surveillance required? A Cleanup operations involving hazardous substances B Uncontrolled hazardous waste sites C State and national priority sites and sites recommended for national listing D Initial investigations at government-identified sites E All of the above F None of the above - Answer- e HAZWOPER requires medical surveillance for which employees: A Employees who are or may be exposed to hazardous substances or health hazards at or above the established permissible exposure limit B Employees who wear a respirator for 30 days or more a year C Employees who develop signs or symptoms due to possible overexposure involving hazardous substances during a hazardous waste operation D Members of the HAZMAT team E All of the above - Answer- e How frequently must medical examinations be given to covered employees? A At least once every 24 months B At least once every 12 months C At least once every 6 months D At least every other month - Answer- b All medical evaluations must be made confidential and you must be given the opportunity to discuss the questionnaire and examination result with the physician. A True B False - Answer- a Employees are not permitted to view the content of their medical examinations. A True B False - Answer- b Employees are required by law to keep a record of their own medical examinations. A True B False - Answer- b Engineering controls should be used to control atmospheric hazards as much as possible. If those controls don't eliminate harmful substances from the air, respirators are required. A True B False - Answer- a Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the written respiratory protection program? A Engineering controls used B Respirator selection procedures C Respirator use and maintenance procedures D Respiratory hazards training - Answer- a What are the two main types of respirators? A Supplied-air and self-contained B Air-purifying and atmosphere-supplying C Air-purifying and self-contained D Powered and unpowered - Answer- not a not c In which type of seal check would you place your hands over the cartridge intakes and inhale gently? A Positive-pressure test B Negative-pressure test - Answer- b PPE will protect you from all hazardous exposures. A True B False - Answer- b Which of the following must be considered in PPE selection? A Identification of hazards B Routes of entry for hazards C Performance of the PPE D Cost of PPE materials E A, B, C only - Answer- e If you cannot find PPE materials that will provide continuous protection from a particular hazardous substance, the breakthrough time of the protective material should exceed the duration of your work. A True B False - Answer- a The effects of PPE in relation to heat stress and task duration are a factor in selecting and using PPE. A True B False - Answer- a Which agency designates levels of protection for PPE? A CDC B IDLH C EPA D DOT - Answer- c Level A personal protective equipment requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes and the respiratory system. A True B False - Answer- a Which level of protection is needed when you are working with a substance with a high degree of hazard to the skin? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - Answer- a Which level of protection is needed when working in atmospheres with IDLH concentrations of a specific substance that present a severe inhalation hazard but do not represent a severe skin hazard? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - Answer- b At which level of protection can an air-purifying respirator be used? A Level A B Level B B Training should take place within a month after a confined-space entry C When confined-space hazards change, workers should be retrained D Attendants are responsible for training workers immediately before they enter confined spaces - Answer- c Which of the following is a responsibility of authorized entrants? A Cancel confined space permits when work is done B Keep unauthorized people from entering the space C Maintain communication with attendants D Make sure emergency rescue services are available - Answer- c Any area considered to be a permit-required confined space must be posted at all entry points with a warning sign that reads: A CONFINED SPACE - GO AWAY! B DANGER - PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE - DO NOT ENTER C DEATH ZONE D HAZARD CONTROLS IN PLACE AT THIS SITE - KEEP OUT - Answer- b For a space to be considered a permit-required confined space, it must contain enough serious hazards that at least one person has been injured or killed in the space. A True B False - Answer- b If you believe you are in danger because you observe signs and symptoms of a hazard in the space, you should: A Stay in the confined space to see what will happen B Tell your co-workers C Call your supervisor D Evacuate - Answer- d In the event that an entrant becomes unconscious, attendants must NOT attempt to enter the space to perform rescue. A True B False - Answer- a If engineering controls or work practices don't eliminate or control atmospheric hazards, then: A PPE must be worn B The confined space cannot be entered C Two attendants are required D Emergency personnel should be contacted - Answer- a Ventilation is one of the most common examples of: A Work practice controls B Personal protective controls C Engineering controls D Administrative controls - Answer- c Work practice controls reduce or eliminate hazards by making changes such as: A Assuming the local fire department will quickly rescue all entrants in confined space emergencies B Removing warning systems C Allowing more unauthorized people into a confined space D Rotating workers - Answer- d It doesn't matter if emergency responders remain on-site or off-site, as long as they are able to meet your needs in the event of an emergency. A True B False - Answer- a What is the correct order for atmospheric testing? Employer - Answer- d Which spill control agents prevent vigorous reactions when added to a spill? A Chelates B Absorbents C Precipitates D Inhibitors - Answer- d What does the letter "I" in the spill response acronym "SLIP" stand for? A Isolate the leak B Identify the leak source C Irrigate with water D Implement control measures - Answer- a Selection of personal protective clothing for spill response should be based on the hazardous materials and/or conditions present and should be appropriate for the hazard encountered. A True B False - Answer- a Which of the following sorbents is inappropriate for use on many hazardous materials? A Charcoal B Clay C Sawdust D Polyolefin type fibers - Answer- c Absorbents do NOT retain the properties of the absorbed hazardous liquid. A True B False - Answer- b This method of leak control is a temporary form of mitigation for radioactive, biological and some chemical substances such as magnesium. A Dilution B Overpacking C Vapor dispersion D Covering - Answer- d Which of the following are physical methods to prevent or reduce the quantity of liquid flowing into the environment? A Dikes B Dams C Diversion D Retention E All of the above - Answer- e The process of moving a liquid, gas or some form of solids from a leaking or damaged container or tank is called: A Overpacking B Plugging and patching C Transfer D Covering - Answer- c When dealing with high vapor pressure liquids or liquefied compressed gases, ________ is one possible method of leak and spill control. B False - Answer- false What is the purpose of site control? A Reduce the spread of hazardous substances from contaminated areas to clean areas B Identify and isolate contaminated areas of the site C Facilitate emergency evacuation and medical care D Prevent unauthorized entry to the site E Deter vandalism and theft F All of the above - Answer- f Which of the following is NOT used in site control? A Engineering controls B Work practices C Personal protective equipment D Medical surveillance - Answer- d Which of the following are elements of the site control plan? A Site map B Site work zones C Decontamination procedures D Toxicology E All of the above F A, B, C only - Answer- f A site map identifies: A Work zones for dealing with contamination B Hazard zones C Access routes D Wind direction E All of the above - Answer- e In the event of an emergency involving hazardous materials, the 3 work zones are: A Clear Zone, Pressurized Zone, Buddy Zone B Exclusion Zone, Contamination Reduction Zone, Support Zone C Primary Zone, Secondary Zone, Tertiary Zone D Red Zone, Orange Zone, Green Zone - Answer- b In which work zone is contamination the highest? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D None of the above - Answer- a In which work zone(s) are emergency response activities such as first aid administration carried out? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D All of the above E C Decontamination D Fire prevention - Answer- c Standard operating procedures are intended to provide workers with necessary guidelines to carry out work tasks safely. A True B False - Answer- a Site-specific training must be given on which of the following topics? A Medical assistance identification B Training assignments C Buddy system D Site mapping E All of the above F A and B only - Answer- f The presence of an unwanted or hazardous substance or material on or in protective equipment, is known as: A Contamination B Decontamination C Hazard zones - Answer- a Contamination occurs most commonly from: A Vapor B Dust C Mist D Liquid chemical contact E Gaseous contact - Answer- d Which of the following activities is NOT likely to result in contamination? A Contacting air containing vapors, gases, mists, dusts, fumes and smoke B Walking through puddles of liquids or on a contaminated surface C Showering after exposure to hazardous materials D Using a contaminated instrument or contaminated equipment - Answer- c Decontamination consists of either physically removing the contaminants or changing them to harmless substances. A True B False - Answer- a How can contamination be minimized? A Use remote handling techniques B Protect monitoring and sampling equipment C Use disposable outer garments D Encase the source of the contaminants E All of the above F A and B only - Answer- e Which of the following is NOT required in the Decontamination Plan? A List of equipment needed for possible hazards B Safe disposal methods for clothing and equipment that are not completely decontaminated Clothing B Tools C Buckets D Brushes E All of the above - Answer- e To prevent slips and falls in the decontamination line: A Provide hand holds while boots are being washed or boot covers removed B Use gripper decals or other material C Provide stools for personnel to sit down at stations where boots or suits are removed D All of the above E A and B only - Answer- d Which of the following actions should take place in the Contaminated Area (or Hot Zone) of the decontamination line? A Remove outer garments B Rinse outer garments C Boot drop D Trash drop - Answer- not a, not b Off-site operations include which of the following? A Waste dumps B Loading docks C Rail transportation D Warehouses - Answer- c On-site emergencies typically ________. A Will be more likely to include public agencies B Will have a defined perimeter C Will occur in uncontrolled locations D Are caused by truck accidents on a highway - Answer- b The Emergency Response Plan for on-site emergencies must include: A Site topography, layout and prevailing weather conditions B Each employee's job description C The cell phone number of the on-site supervisor D Detailed information on every chemical workers may be exposed to - Answer- a Which of the following is an additional requirement specific to an off-site ERP? A Decontamination B Emergency recognition and prevention C Preplanning in conjunction with public agencies D Critique of response and follow-up - Answer- c Who assumes total control of the incident response? A Incident Commander B Toxicologist C EPA D The first person on the scene - Answer- a What is the level of training for the person who responds to releases or potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release? A Hazardous Materials Specialist B Storage rooms for flammable and combustible liquids should have ventilation systems that completely re- supply the air at least ____ times an hour. A 2 B 4 C 6 D 16 - Answer- NOT A NOT B You should maintain an aisle at least ________ wide in a storage room. A 1 foot (0.3 meters) B 2 feet (0.6 meters) C 3 feet (0.9 meters) D 5 feet (1.5 meters) - Answer- C Cabinets storing flammable and combustible liquids should be: A Bomb-proof B Conspicuously labeled C Located underground D Registered with local police - Answer- B How much highly flammable liquid can you have outside a storage room or cabinet in a given building or fire area? A 25 gallons (95 liters) B 50 gallons (190 liters) C 100 gallons (379 liters) D 200 gallons (757 liters) - Answer- A Containers that house flammable and combustible liquids should always be: A Stored outside buildings and away from power lines B Painted red and yellow and labeled correctly C Designed and certified by appropriate safety organizations D Stacked as high as possible within storage areas - Answer- C After cleaning a spill of flammable liquids, what should you immediately do? A Place the rags you used in an appropriate covered container B Leave the rags you used out in the open so they can quickly dry C Put the rags you used in an uncovered wood container D Throw out the rags you used in tied-off plastic bags or recycle them - Answer- NOT D, NOT B Appropriate ________ should be available where flammable and combustible liquids are stored. A Video surveillance equipment B Pen and paper C Extinguishers and hoses D All of the above - Answer- C A continuously discharged portable fire extinguisher can run out of extinguishing agent in: A Seconds B Thirty minutes C Hours D Days - Answer- a Which of the following is a question you should ask yourself when deciding to fight or flee a fire? A Am I getting paid to do this? B How much money is the fire damage going to cost? C Is there a safe evacuation route? D Will this go on my performance review? - Answer- c You see a fire. It looks small, but smoke is filling the room rapidly. What should you do? A Find the source of the smoke B Fight the fire while wearing a respirator C Flee the area immediately D Wait for instructions from firefighters - Answer- c There is a small fire in your work area that involves a puddle of liquid leaking from a large drum of a flammable chemical. Should you fight or flee? A Fight B Flee - Answer- b You are fighting a fire. You look back toward your evacuation route and notice that flames are getting close to the door you planned to use. What should you do? A Evacuate immediately B Get another fire extinguisher C Lie on the floor, below the smoke D Stay and fight the fire - Answer- a Fire extinguishers work by removing one or more of these elements of fire: ________, oxygen and fuel. A Argon B Electricity C Heat D Water - Answer- c There is a fuse box on fire. You should use a fire extinguisher labeled: A ABC B D C E D K - Answer- a Where should you look to find out how far to stand away from flames to effectively extinguish them? A Employee handbook B Extinguisher label C Fire safety poster D Internet search - Answer- b C Yellow, black, white and/or magenta D Blue and green - Answer- c Glove boxes and other means of containment minimize exposure through: A Decreasing time B Using shielding C Increasing distance D Increasing time - Answer- b What should you do if you discover radioactive material that is somewhere it does not belong? A Warn other personnel not to approach the area B Pick it up and dispose of it C Stand next to it until your supervisor arrives D Wait until the end of your shift and notify your site's environment, health, safety and radiological control personnel - Answer- a Hydrogen sulfide is a toxic, potentially deadly gas that is formed in nature when organic materials decay, and also: A As a by-product of some industrial and chemical processes B In certain chemical cleaning solutions C In home appliances, such as stoves and refrigerators D When wood or lumber burns - Answer- a Hydrogen sulfide smells like ________. A Burnt popcorn B Curdled milk C Fermented grains D Rotten eggs - Answer- d What is the SAFEST type of respiratory protection to use when you work in atmospheres that contain hydrogen sulfide? A Air-purifying respirator B Disposable particulate mask C Escape-only air pack D Supplied-air respirator - Answer- d If a co-worker passes out after being exposed to hydrogen sulfide, what is your FIRST AND MOST IMPORTANT task? A Calling for help B Ensuring your own safety C Moving your co-worker to a safe area D Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation - Answer- b Which of the following is a health effect of hydrogen sulfide? A Heightened sense of smell B Labored breathing C Rapid weight gain D Internal bleeding - Answer- b Eyewashes and emergency showers can be substitutes for: A Good work practices B Reading Safety Data Sheets C Safety precautions D None of the above - Answer- d The longer chemicals stay on the skin or eyes, the deeper they can penetrate, and the: A Less likely you are to have permanent injury B Less likely you are to need medical assistance C More effective an eyewash or emergency shower is D More harm they can cause - Answer- d Permanent scarring and other long-term effects can occur just seconds after chemical exposure. A True B False - Answer- a When you have been exposed to a chemical, immediately flushing the exposed area typically: A Cures any damage B Increases damage C Prevents any damage D Reduces damage - Answer- d Signs of neglected eyewashes and emergency showers include: A Adequate water pressure B Dust covers on nozzles C Low fluid levels in self-contained eyewashes D Operable activating valves - Answer- c The area underneath an emergency shower should be: A Covered with a tarp or cloth B Filled with boxes C Free from obstructions D Impassable - Answer- c The water flow through an eyewash or emergency shower should be: A Blue B Clear C Cloudy D Slightly colored - Answer- b Eyewash water pressure should be strong enough that the water streams: A Do not touch each other C Loosen our muscles to an unsafe degree D Repeat behaviors that are not working - Answer- not c If you are fatigued, you should: A Make jerky fine-motor movements B Perform physical tasks to keep you awake C Slow down and allow more distance than usual D Work faster so that you can stop and rest sooner - Answer- c One way to make sure you understand the feedback you receive is to: A Actively listen and repeat what you heard B Defend your actions C Get a second opinion D Make a judgement about why you are receiving feedback - Answer- a Which of the following best describes a slip? A Loss of balance due to an interruption of movement by an obstacle B Falling from a distance C Loss of balance due to too little friction between your foot and the walking surface D Loss of balance while walking - Answer- c Slip and fall injuries can be caused by a combination of slippery surfaces and the wrong footwear. A True B False - Answer- a Injuries can occur from inappropriately using which of the following as a makeshift ladder? A Shelves B Boxes C Chairs D All of the above - Answer- d Before using a ladder at work for the first time, you must: A Choose the right ladder B Receive ladder safety training C Know where to place it D Make sure the ladder steps are dry and clean - Answer- b Which of the following best defines a trip? A Loss of balance due to an interruption of movement by an obstacle B Falling from a distance C Loss of friction between your foot and the walking surface D Step and fall - Answer- a Which of the following typically helps people to avoid slips, trips and falls? A Poor housekeeping B Improper use of equipment C Bad habits D Good lighting - Answer- d In the event of a fall, you should do which of the following? A Stop, drop and roll B Keep your wrists, elbows and knees bent C Use your hands to break the fall D Land on your back - Answer- b Whom should you check with to determine if your shoes are suitable for the workplace? A No one as long as the label says they're slip-resistant B The salesclerk C The manufacturer D Your employer - Answer- d You should always keep stairs and floors __________ to prevent slips, trips and falls. A Dry and cluttered B Wet and cluttered C Dry and uncluttered D Wet and uncluttered - Answer- c What are some basic housekeeping tasks to prevent slips, trips and falls? A Secure or anchor floor mats B Clean up any liquid spills or puddles C Step over strung-out cords D Both A and B - Answer- d What is one way the body tries to get rid of excess heat in a hot environment? A By slowing the heart rate B By circulating blood closer to the surface of the skin C By increasing blood flow to the brain D By reducing the thirst drive - Answer- b Sweating does not cool the body unless the moisture is removed from the skin by ________. A Evaporation B Blood loss C Hot towels D Misting fans - Answer- a Increased body temperature and physical discomfort promote irritability, anger and other emotional states, which may cause workers to: A Overlook safety procedures B Focus carefully on hazardous tasks C Work quickly and more efficiently A confused B fidgeting C shivering D talkative - Answer- a You are walking along a sidewalk when you accidentally step in a puddle of icy water. Your shoes and socks are soaked. What should you do as soon as possible? A Call for emergency help B Change into dry clothing C Jump around D No action is needed - Answer- b If your fingers are numb and discolored after you've been in the cold, you should hold them close to a fireplace or radiator to quickly warm them up. A True B False - Answer- b A pre-job briefing informs workers of: A Activities that are going on around the entire site B Controls that are absent C Safety issues to keep in mind while working D The cost of the work to be performed - Answer- c When should a pre-job briefing take place? Before the job begins and: A At the end of the job B Whenever there is a significant change in working conditions C At the beginning of the month D Every morning - Answer- not d A pre-job briefing could cover electrical, mechanical and environmental conditions; obstructions in the area; and: A Brands of equipment B Project budget C Worker qualifications D Working space constraints - Answer- d Who should conduct a pre-job briefing? A The supervisor or lead worker B The site or facility owner C Any worker who has a safety concern D A local government representative - Answer- a Document the pre-job briefing to include: A Anticipated rest break times B The address where the briefing took place C Names of attendees D Phone numbers of attendees - Answer- c