hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions and answers.d, Exams of Biology

Download hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions and answers.d and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity! hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions and answer s Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of a hazardous substance accident? A Broken or rusted pipes B Following standard operating procedures C Faulty valves or transfer hoses D Leaking tank - answer b What is a hazardous substance? A Any substance defined under section 101(14) of CERCLA B Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent that could cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction), or physical deformations in exposed people or their offspring C Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as a hazardous material under 49 CFR 172.101 and its appendices Which regulation deals with cleaning up inactive and abandoned hazardous waste sites? A Solid Waste Disposal Act B Clean Air Act C CERCLA D Clean Water Act - answer c The U.S. EPA enforces the HAZWOPER Standard. A True B False - answer b Which of the following standards does not usually apply to HAZWOPER situations? A Subpart O - Machinery and Machine Guarding B Subpart H - Hazardous Materials C Subpart I - Personal Protective Equipment D Subpart Z - Toxic and Hazardous Substances - answer a The HAZWOPER Standard applies to: A Cleanup operations involving hazardous substances that are conducted at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites B Corrective actions involving cleanup operations at sites covered by RCRA C Emergency response operations for releases or substantial threats of release of hazardous substances regardless of location D Materials that are currently destined for disposal or recycling E All of the above F A, B and C only - answer f How many levels of training apply to "regardless of location" emergency responders? A 3 B 5 C 7 - answer b Refresher training is only required for individuals who took 40 hours of HAZWOPER training initially. A True B False - answer b The OSHA HAZWOPER Standard requires employers to develop and implement a written safety and health program for their employees involved in hazardous waste operations. A True B A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: A Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities B Enter the hot zone for the purpose of stopping the release C Implement the Incident Command System for the response D All of the above - answer b Which training level describes individuals who assume control of the incident scene and implement the Incident Command System and emergency procedures? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander - answer d Commonly known as the Superfund program, ________ was enacted by Congress in 1980 in response to the Love Canal situation. A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA - answer c Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? - answer not CERCLA Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? - answer not First Responder Operations Level A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: - answer not Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities So how much waste must a facility generate to earn these classifications? - answer CESQG: Less than 100 kg hazardous waste per month SQG: 100 kg to 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month LQG: More than 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month Generators may accumulate up to _____ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. - answer 55 It is the responsibility of the generator to determine whether a waste is hazardous. - answer TRUE Discharges of industrial wastewater generally do not require a permit. - answer FALSE Stormwater pollution is caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from: A) Outdoor equipment B) Processes C) Wastes D) Storage areas Who is responsible for determining whether any wastes generated are hazardous? A The generator of the waste B The EPA C The local municipality D Your EMS administrator - answer a If the monthly generation threshold is exceeded for classification, the classification status will only be changed for the duration of the exceeded threshold. A True B False - answer b CESQGs are exempt from many of the requirements pertaining to the other generator classifications. A True B False - answer a How often must small or large quantity generators conduct inspections of their storage areas? A Daily B Weekly C Monthly D Yearly - answer b Generators may accumulate up to ___ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. A 45 B 55 C 65 D 75 - answer b You must label drums or other containers of hazardous waste: A Once the drum or container is full B Only if stored at a satellite location C Before placing any waste in them D If the accumulation start date is within the current calendar year - answer c Stormwater pollution may be caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from outdoor equipment or storage areas. A True B False - answer a Which of the following requires special management in order to avoid disposal as a hazardous waste? A A defined set of procedures released from the EPA to control the level of pollutants and dangerous chemicals in the environment B Administrative practices to ensure the cost-effective storage of hazardous chemicals C Common-sense practices to prevent the introduction of pollutants to stormwater and to prevent the discharge of dangerous chemicals - answer c Which type of battery is OK to dispose of in the general trash? A Automobile B Nickel-cadmium C Lead-acid D None of the above - answer d When you want to get rid of an old or unused chemical, which is generally the least preferable option? A Use it B Throw it away C Donate it D Recycle it - answer b Which classification describes a facility that generates less than 100 kg of hazardous waste per month? A Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator (CESQG) B Small Quantity Generator (SQG) C Large Quantity Generator (LQG) - answer a What is the PRIMARY purpose of the HazCom Standard? Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure to hazardous substances Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals - answer Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals Phosphoric acid: Extremely corrosive to some metals, and can severely irritate and burn the skin and eyes. Breathing its vapors can make the lungs ache. Health Physical Both - answer both Acetone: Can irritate the skin and eyes. Repeated exposure can affect a person's central nervous system. It is also very flammable in liquid or vapor form. Health Physical Both - answer both What is the primary purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard? A False - answer a The hazard statement on Chemical A's label says it can cause skin irritation and respiratory problems. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Ambiguous hazard B Health hazard C Physical hazard D Retroactive hazard - answer c Chemical B is pyrophoric. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Health hazard B Layered hazard C Physical hazard D Physical and health hazards - answer c Who must provide labels when they ship chemicals? A Manufacturers B Importers C Distributors D All of the above - answer d When performing a hazardous chemical inventory, employers must consider chemicals in liquid or gas form only. A True B False - answer b In chemical inventories, employers must identify chemicals in: A Chewing tobacco B Clothes detergent C Pipes D Soft drinks - answer c At a multi-employer worksite, employers must include details in their ________ about how they will share information with the other employers. A Inspection reports B Insurance paperwork C Work agreements D Written programs - answer d Requirements for which of the following should be included in the written program? A Labels and other forms of warning B Names of all machine brands A Safety Data Sheet needs to include the following: A Price of product B Routes of exposure C Size of container D Types of applications - answer b Whose responsibility is it to ensure that you know exactly where the SDSs are kept in your workplace? A Yours B Your employer's C Your supervisor's D OSHA's - answer a There is a specific ____-section format required for Safety Data Sheets. A 6 B 10 C 16 D 20 - answer c Employees must be trained on the Hazard Communication program whenever: A A new hazard is introduced into their work area B The season changes C They start work every day D They go on vacation and then return - answer a An unplanned event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness, damage to or loss of equipment or property, or damage to the environment, is referred to as: A A hazard B A mishap C A risk - answer b Risk is the likelihood that a ___ will cause a ____. A Hazard, mishap B Mishap, hazard C Loss, injury D Injury, loss - answer a A hazard related to the composition, structure and properties of substances is called a: Boiling point F All of the above - answer f Organic peroxides are very stable chemicals. A True B False - answer b Which of the following is a pyrophoric material? A Phosphorus B Nitric acid C Formaldehyde D Sulfur - answer a Oxidizers should never be stored near fuels. A True B False - answer a Substances that restrict or prevent the oxygenation of the blood are called: A Oxidizers B Oxygenators C Asphyxiants D Reactors - answer c Which of the following is NOT a source of radiation? A Gamma rays B X-rays C Radio waves D Neutrons - answer c A hazardous waste is a waste with a chemical composition or other properties that make it capable of causing illness, death or some other harm to humans and other life forms when mismanaged or released into the environment. A True B False - answer a Relying on your senses will always alert you to the presence of a hazard. A True A True B False - answer a A sign that a hazard may be present is: A Seeing a spill or release B Smelling an unusual odor C Hearing a release or process alarm D Witnessing a fire or explosion E Hearing a warning signal F All of the above - answer f Which of the following elements of a risk assessment may be impossible to determine? A The source and size of the spill or release B The immediate effects of the spill or release C Characteristics of the scene D Preliminary identification of the material E Potential hazards - answer not b, not c, not a Contact with a chemical, physical or biological agent is referred to as: A Exposure B Threshold Limit Value (TLV) C Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) D Concentration - answer a Exposure that occurs over a short period of time is called: A Acute B Chronic C Concentrated D Permissible - answer a The airborne concentration of a substance to which workers can be exposed day after day without adverse effect is referred to as: A Lethal Concentration B Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) C Taking care not to eat, drink, smoke or apply cosmetics in a contaminated area will help prevent exposure via which route of entry? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection - answer b Which of the following are symptoms of acute exposure? A Irritation to the skin, eyes or lungs B Bad smell C Chest pain D Dizziness E All of the above F B and D only - answer e Which of the following effects may be caused by chronic exposure to chemicals? A Skin irritation B Central nervous system effects C Liver, kidney or other organ damage D Cancer E Asbestosis F All of the above - answer f Skin irritation from UV radiation is an example of: A Local effects B Systemic effects - answer a Nephrotoxins produce liver damage. A True B False - answer b DNA and gene changes resulting in birth defects in infants is an example of what type of toxic effect? A Biochemical B Carcinogenic C Mutagenic Benzene may be absorbed or inhaled, but exposure affects the bone marrow or brain rather than the skin or lungs. This is an example of: A Local effects B Systemic effects - answer b The skin on which of these body parts is the most absorbent? A Feet B Hands C Arms D Scalp - answer d Vinyl chloride causing cancer of the liver is an example of what type of toxic effect? A Biochemical B Carcinogenic C Mutagenic D Teratogenic - answer b Pulmonary hazards irritate or damage: A Lung tissue B The liver C The kidneys D The nervous system - answer a Which of the following is NOT true of monitoring? A It detects the presence of a potentially hazardous condition B It measures the concentration of hazardous substances C It replaces the need for personal protective equipment D It is done before exposure occurs and on an ongoing basis - answer c The four types of monitoring systems commonly used are: A Personal, Environmental, Biological, Medical B Personal, Impersonal, Biological, Medical C Personal, Environmental, Remote, Compositional Protective clothing and respirators that protect the responder from toxic hazards provide adequate protection against fire or explosions. A True B False - answer b An oxygen-enriched atmosphere is defined as one containing more than what percentage of oxygen? A 19.5% B 21% C 23.5% D 10% - answer c Fiber concentrations are usually measured in: A ppm B mg/m3 C psi D f/cc - answer d The exposure level to which workers should never be exposed, even for a short time, is known as the: A STEL B TWA C Ceiling D TLV - answer c You are exposed to acetone at a concentration of 80 ppm for 6 hours and 20 ppm for 2 hours. What is the TWA? A 8 ppm B 20 ppm C 100 ppm D 65 ppm - answer d The minimum concentration of a substance in the air that is required for ignition is called the: A Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) B Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) C Explosive range D Time-Weighted Average (TWA) - answer a Employees who are or may be exposed to hazardous substances or health hazards at or above the established permissible exposure limit B Employees who wear a respirator for 30 days or more a year C Employees who develop signs or symptoms due to possible overexposure involving hazardous substances during a hazardous waste operation D Members of the HAZMAT team E All of the above - answer e How frequently must medical examinations be given to covered employees? A At least once every 24 months B At least once every 12 months C At least once every 6 months D At least every other month - answer b All medical evaluations must be made confidential and you must be given the opportunity to discuss the questionnaire and examination result with the physician. A True B False - answer a Employees are not permitted to view the content of their medical examinations. A True B False - answer b Employees are required by law to keep a record of their own medical examinations. A True B False - answer b Engineering controls should be used to control atmospheric hazards as much as possible. If those controls don't eliminate harmful substances from the air, respirators are required. A True B False - answer a Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the written respiratory protection program? A Engineering controls used B Respirator selection procedures C Respirator use and maintenance procedures D Respiratory hazards training - answer a A PAPR B SAR C APR D SCBA - answer d Only respirators approved by ________ should be used. A NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) B OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) C CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) D EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) - answer a Which of the following are considerations when selecting a respirator for emergency response? A Is there enough oxygen in the atmosphere? B What are the hazardous substances a worker may be exposed to? C Is the atmosphere immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH)? D What is the concentration of the substance in the air? E What is the maximum permissible exposure limit for the substance? F All of the above - answer f In which type of seal check would you place your hands over the cartridge intakes and inhale gently? A Positive-pressure test B Negative-pressure test - answer b PPE will protect you from all hazardous exposures. A True B False - answer b Which of the following must be considered in PPE selection? A Identification of hazards B Routes of entry for hazards C Performance of the PPE D Cost of PPE materials E A, B, C only - answer e If you cannot find PPE materials that will provide continuous protection from a particular hazardous substance, the breakthrough time of the protective material should exceed the duration of your work. Level D - answer a Which level of protection is needed when working in atmospheres with IDLH concentrations of a specific substance that present a severe inhalation hazard but do not represent a severe skin hazard? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - answer b At which level of protection can an air-purifying respirator be used? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - answer c Which level of protection offers no respiratory protection and only minimal skin protection? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - answer d To be considered a "confined space," a space must: A Be designed for continuous occupancy B Be so small that an employee cannot enter it C Have limited or restricted means for entry or exit D All of the above - answer c Who is responsible for determining if a confined space is permit-required? A The employee B The employer C OSHA D EPA - answer b Which of the following is NOT required on the confined space entry permit? A Names of entrants B Purpose of entry C Results of atmosphere testing DANGER - PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE - DO NOT ENTER C DEATH ZONE D HAZARD CONTROLS IN PLACE AT THIS SITE - KEEP OUT - answer b For a space to be considered a permit-required confined space, it must contain enough serious hazards that at least one person has been injured or killed in the space. A True B False - answer b If you believe you are in danger because you observe signs and symptoms of a hazard in the space, you should: A Stay in the confined space to see what will happen B Tell your co-workers C Call your supervisor D Evacuate - answer d In the event that an entrant becomes unconscious, attendants must NOT attempt to enter the space to perform rescue. A True B False - answer a If engineering controls or work practices don't eliminate or control atmospheric hazards, then: A PPE must be worn B The confined space cannot be entered C Two attendants are required D Emergency personnel should be contacted - answer a Ventilation is one of the most common examples of: A Work practice controls B Personal protective controls C Engineering controls D Administrative controls - answer c Work practice controls reduce or eliminate hazards by making changes such as: A Assuming the local fire department will quickly rescue all entrants in confined space emergencies B Removing warning systems C Allowing more unauthorized people into a confined space D Rotating workers - answer d It doesn't matter if emergency responders remain on-site or off-site, as long as they are able to meet your needs in the event of an emergency. A Guard - answer c The ________ is responsible for controlling entry to the confined space and maintaining an accurate count of people in the space. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer - answer b Implementing a written permit space program, identifying all potential hazards, and providing training to affected employees are all responsibilities of the: A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer - answer d Which spill control agents prevent vigorous reactions when added to a spill? A Chelates B Absorbents C Precipitates D Inhibitors - answer d What does the letter "I" in the spill response acronym "SLIP" stand for? A Isolate the leak B Identify the leak source C Irrigate with water D Implement control measures - answer a Selection of personal protective clothing for spill response should be based on the hazardous materials and/or conditions present and should be appropriate for the hazard encountered. A True B False - answer a Which of the following sorbents is inappropriate for use on many hazardous materials? A Charcoal B Clay C Sawdust D Transfer D Covering - answer c When dealing with high vapor pressure liquids or liquefied compressed gases, ________ is one possible method of leak and spill control. A Adsorption B Neutralization C Overpacking D Flaring - answer d Which leak and spill control method uses controlled combustion to render a container's escaping materials less hazardous? A Vent and burn B Solidification C Polymerization D Gelation - answer a Prevention is the key to avoiding spills, leaks and other releases of hazardous materials. - answer true If unlabeled drums and containers are found, you should assume that they contain ________ and handle them accordingly. - answer c Hazardous substances Which of the following should be kept available and used in areas where spills, leaks or ruptures may occur? A DOT-specified salvage drums B Sawdust C Proper absorbent D Newspapers E All of the above f A and C only - answer A and C only If drums and containers appear to be under pressure, which action should be taken? A Do not move them until the cause of the pressure is determined B Implement appropriate containment procedures C Vent the drums to release pressure D Overpack the drums E All of the above F A and B only - answer A and B only Toxicology E All of the above F A, B, C only - answer f A site map identifies: A Work zones for dealing with contamination B Hazard zones C Access routes D Wind direction E All of the above - answer e In the event of an emergency involving hazardous materials, the 3 work zones are: A Clear Zone, Pressurized Zone, Buddy Zone B Exclusion Zone, Contamination Reduction Zone, Support Zone C Primary Zone, Secondary Zone, Tertiary Zone D Red Zone, Orange Zone, Green Zone - answer b In which work zone is contamination the highest? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D None of the above - answer a In which work zone(s) are emergency response activities such as first aid administration carried out? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D All of the above E A and B only - answer not d, not c In which work zone(s) are administrative functions located? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D A, B, D only - answer f Which of the following is NOT a routine SOP? A Lockout/tagout B Confined space entry C Decontamination D Fire prevention - answer c Standard operating procedures are intended to provide workers with necessary guidelines to carry out work tasks safely. A True B False - answer a Site-specific training must be given on which of the following topics? A Medical assistance identification B Training assignments C Buddy system D Site mapping E All of the above F A and B only - answer f The presence of an unwanted or hazardous substance or material on or in protective equipment, is known as: A Contamination B Decontamination C Hazard zones - answer a Contamination occurs most commonly from: A Vapor B Dust C Mist D Liquid chemical contact E Gaseous contact - answer d Which of the following activities is NOT likely to result in contamination? A Contacting air containing vapors, gases, mists, dusts, fumes and smoke B