hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions with Complete Verified Solutions 2024, Exams of Safety and Fire Engineering

Download hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions with Complete Verified Solutions 2024 and more Exams Safety and Fire Engineering in PDF only on Docsity! hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions with Complete Verified Solutions 2024 Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of a hazardous substance accident? A Broken or rusted pipes B Following standard operating procedures C Faulty valves or transfer hoses D Leaking tank b What is a hazardous substance? A Any substance defined under section 101(14) of CERCLA B Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent that could cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction), or physical deformations in exposed people or their offspring C Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as a hazardous material under 49 CFR 172.101 and its appendices D Hazardous waste E All of the above e All hazardous substances are hazardous wastes. A True B False b The floodwaters of Hurricane Katrina were polluted with which of the following hazardous substances? A Petroleum B Dioxin C Mercury D Pesticides E All of the above e The law that requires employers to provide a workplace that is "free from recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious physical harm" is known as: A OSH Act B RCRA C HSWA D SARA a Which of the following acts was passed in 1976 to protect human health and the environment from the potential hazards of waste disposal? A HSWA B RCRA C OSH Act D CERCLA Hazard analysis for all tasks on-site B Site control measures C Names of key personnel D Medical surveillance guidelines E All of the above e Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA a Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander a A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: A Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities B Enter the hot zone for the purpose of stopping the release C Implement the Incident Command System for the response D All of the above b Which training level describes individuals who assume control of the incident scene and implement the Incident Command System and emergency procedures? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander d Commonly known as the Superfund program, ________ was enacted by Congress in 1980 in response to the Love Canal situation. A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA c Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? not CERCLA Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? not First Responder Operations Level A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: not Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities So how much waste must a facility generate to earn these classifications? CESQG: Less than 100 kg hazardous waste per month SQG: 100 kg to 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month LQG: More than 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month Generators may accumulate up to _____ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. 55 It is the responsibility of the generator to determine whether a waste is hazardous. TRUE Discharges of industrial wastewater generally do not require a permit. FALSE Stormwater pollution is caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from: A) Outdoor equipment B) Processes C) Wastes D) Storage areas Knowledge Check: Stormwater E) ALL OF ABOVE E Which of the following is a Best Management Practice for handling industrial waste? A Disposing of paint, solvents or oil directly onto the ground B Locating an industrial waste storage area adjacent to a storm drain or body of water C Cleaning up chemical spills at the end of every week D Taking measures to prevent or minimize soil erosion at the facility d Which of the following are EPA-regulated areas? A Hazardous waste generation B Industrial wastewater discharges C Stormwater discharges D If the accumulation start date is within the current calendar year c Stormwater pollution may be caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from outdoor equipment or storage areas. A True B False a Which of the following requires special management in order to avoid disposal as a hazardous waste? A Scrap metal B Scrap tires C Used batteries D Empty drums E Empty paint cans F All of the above f Industrial wastewater includes domestic sanitary wastes (e.g., from sinks or toilets). A True B False b When industrial wastewaters are discharged to surface waters (e.g., a creek, ditch, pond or lake), the EPA or state requires a: A National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit B Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) C Best Management Practice (BMP) a A facility that has no outdoor exposures may be exempt from stormwater permitting requirements. A True B False a Wastewater and stormwater permits will never require sampling, inspections or recordkeeping. A True B False b Best Management Practices (BMPs) are: A A defined set of procedures released from the EPA to control the level of pollutants and dangerous chemicals in the environment B Administrative practices to ensure the cost-effective storage of hazardous chemicals C Common-sense practices to prevent the introduction of pollutants to stormwater and to prevent the discharge of dangerous chemicals c Which type of battery is OK to dispose of in the general trash? A Automobile B Nickel-cadmium C Lead-acid D None of the above d When you want to get rid of an old or unused chemical, which is generally the least preferable option? A Use it B Throw it away C Donate it D Recycle it b Which classification describes a facility that generates less than 100 kg of hazardous waste per month? A Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator (CESQG) B Small Quantity Generator (SQG) C Large Quantity Generator (LQG) a What is the PRIMARY purpose of the HazCom Standard? Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure to hazardous substances Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals Phosphoric acid: Extremely corrosive to some metals, and can severely irritate and burn the skin and eyes. Breathing its vapors can make the lungs ache. Health Physical Both both B Importers C Distributors D All of the above d When performing a hazardous chemical inventory, employers must consider chemicals in liquid or gas form only. A True B False b In chemical inventories, employers must identify chemicals in: A Chewing tobacco B Clothes detergent C Pipes D Soft drinks c At a multi-employer worksite, employers must include details in their ________ about how they will share information with the other employers. A Inspection reports B Insurance paperwork C Work agreements D Written programs d Requirements for which of the following should be included in the written program? A Labels and other forms of warning B Names of all machine brands C Phone numbers for all employees D Types of languages spoken on the site a Hazard warning labels must include: A Signal words and pictograms B Average national price for the chemical C Lists of stores that sell the chemical D Names of hospitals near the manufacturer a All hazardous chemical labels must be ________. A Orange B Legible C Made of paper D Permanent b The more severe hazards are identified on labels with which signal word? A Danger B Warning C Careful D Stop a Whom can you contact to obtain an SDS if you have not received one with a hazardous chemical? A EPA B OSHA C The local government D The supplier d A Safety Data Sheet needs to include the following: A Price of product B Routes of exposure C Size of container D Types of applications b Whose responsibility is it to ensure that you know exactly where the SDSs are kept in your workplace? A Yours B Your employer's C Your supervisor's D OSHA's a There is a specific ____-section format required for Safety Data Sheets. A 6 B 10 B Ignition temperature C Flammable limits D Specific gravity E Boiling point F All of the above f Organic peroxides are very stable chemicals. A True B False b Which of the following is a pyrophoric material? A Phosphorus B Nitric acid C Formaldehyde D Sulfur a Oxidizers should never be stored near fuels. A True B False a Substances that restrict or prevent the oxygenation of the blood are called: A Oxidizers B Oxygenators C Asphyxiants D Reactors c Which of the following is NOT a source of radiation? A Gamma rays B X-rays C Radio waves D Neutrons c A hazardous waste is a waste with a chemical composition or other properties that make it capable of causing illness, death or some other harm to humans and other life forms when mismanaged or released into the environment. A True B False a Relying on your senses will always alert you to the presence of a hazard. A True B False b DOT labels and placards are: A Color-coded B Word-coded C Symbol-coded D Number-coded E All of the above e A green DOT placard indicates a non-flammable hazard. A True B False a There are 11 different DOT hazard classes. A True B False b A low-pressure chemical carrier is usually: A An oval cylinder B Circular in diameter with reinforcing exterior stiffening rings C A round cylinder A Exposure B Toxicology C Threshold Limit Value D Permissible Exposure Limits b An IDLH atmosphere is one that: A Poses an immediate threat to life B Would cause irreversible adverse health effects C Would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere D Has a 50% probability of causing death E All of the above F A, B, C only f Which of the following is NOT a route of entry for toxic substances? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection E Inspiration e Taking care not to eat, drink, smoke or apply cosmetics in a contaminated area will help prevent exposure via which route of entry? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection b Which of the following are symptoms of acute exposure? A Irritation to the skin, eyes or lungs B Bad smell C Chest pain D Dizziness E All of the above F B and D only e Which of the following effects may be caused by chronic exposure to chemicals? A Skin irritation B Central nervous system effects C Liver, kidney or other organ damage D Cancer E Asbestosis F All of the above f Skin irritation from UV radiation is an example of: A Local effects B Systemic effects a Nephrotoxins produce liver damage. A True B False b DNA and gene changes resulting in birth defects in infants is an example of what type of toxic effect? A Biochemical B Carcinogenic C Mutagenic D Teratogenic c Exposure to cotton dust is most likely to affect which body part? A Reproductive system B Chest and lungs The kidneys D The nervous system a Which of the following is NOT true of monitoring? A It detects the presence of a potentially hazardous condition B It measures the concentration of hazardous substances C It replaces the need for personal protective equipment D It is done before exposure occurs and on an ongoing basis c The four types of monitoring systems commonly used are: A Personal, Environmental, Biological, Medical B Personal, Impersonal, Biological, Medical C Personal, Environmental, Remote, Compositional D Environmental, Biological, Medical, Examination a Biological monitoring is the measurement of contaminant concentrations in the workplace. A True B False b Gases, liquids and solids can contaminate air. A True B False a How is monitoring data used? A To detect potential hazards B To measure concentrations C To identify substances D To assist in the selection of protective clothing E All of the above e Which of the following CANNOT be detected by air monitoring? A Toxic chemicals B Fire and explosion hazards C Mechanical hazards D Oxygen deficiency or enrichment c Protective clothing and respirators that protect the responder from toxic hazards provide adequate protection against fire or explosions. A True B False b An oxygen-enriched atmosphere is defined as one containing more than what percentage of oxygen? A 19.5% B 21% C 23.5% D 10% c Fiber concentrations are usually measured in: A ppm B mg/m3 C psi D f/cc d The exposure level to which workers should never be exposed, even for a short time, is known as the: A STEL B TWA C Ceiling D TLV c You are exposed to acetone at a concentration of 80 ppm for 6 hours and 20 ppm for 2 hours. What is the TWA? A At least once every 24 months B At least once every 12 months C At least once every 6 months D At least every other month b All medical evaluations must be made confidential and you must be given the opportunity to discuss the questionnaire and examination result with the physician. A True B False a Employees are not permitted to view the content of their medical examinations. A True B False b Employees are required by law to keep a record of their own medical examinations. A True B False b Engineering controls should be used to control atmospheric hazards as much as possible. If those controls don't eliminate harmful substances from the air, respirators are required. A True B False a Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the written respiratory protection program? A Engineering controls used B Respirator selection procedures C Respirator use and maintenance procedures D Respiratory hazards training a What are the two main types of respirators? A Supplied-air and self-contained B Air-purifying and atmosphere-supplying C Air-purifying and self-contained D Powered and unpowered not a not c Which of the following is NOT true of a supplied-air respirator? A Never use pure oxygen with this type of respirator B The required hose can become tangled or damaged, or can be a trip hazard C It provides a virtually unrestricted supply of air D It is the most frequently-used type of respirator during emergency response not c not a Air-purifying respirators function by either mechanical filtration or chemical sorption. A True B False a When maintaining respirators, which of the following actions should be avoided? A Clean and disinfect respirators used exclusively by one employee as often as necessary B Clean respirators monthly if they are worn by more than one employee C After using a respirator kept for emergency use, clean it immediately D Store respirators away from sunlight and excessive moisture b When the identity and concentration of atmospheric hazards are not known, it is best to use this type of respirator: A PAPR B SAR C APR D SCBA d Only respirators approved by ________ should be used. A NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) B OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) C CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) D EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) a Which of the following are considerations when selecting a respirator for emergency response? A Is there enough oxygen in the atmosphere? B What are the hazardous substances a worker may be exposed to? C A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D a Which level of protection is needed when working in atmospheres with IDLH concentrations of a specific substance that present a severe inhalation hazard but do not represent a severe skin hazard? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D b At which level of protection can an air-purifying respirator be used? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D c Which level of protection offers no respiratory protection and only minimal skin protection? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D d To be considered a "confined space," a space must: A Be designed for continuous occupancy B Be so small that an employee cannot enter it C Have limited or restricted means for entry or exit D All of the above c Who is responsible for determining if a confined space is permit-required? A The employee B The employer C OSHA D EPA b Which of the following is NOT required on the confined space entry permit? A Names of entrants B Purpose of entry C Results of atmosphere testing D Pictures of all signs that will be posted d The surrounding and capture of a worker by a liquid or fine, flowing solid that can be breathed into the lungs or could crush or strangle is called: A Entrapment B Engulfment C Asphyxiation D Inhalation b Which of the following statements about confined space entry training is true? A Entry supervisors are the only workers who need training B Training should take place within a month after a confined-space entry C When confined-space hazards change, workers should be retrained D Attendants are responsible for training workers immediately before they enter confined spaces c Which of the following is a responsibility of authorized entrants? A Cancel confined space permits when work is done B Keep unauthorized people from entering the space C Maintain communication with attendants D Make sure emergency rescue services are available c Any area considered to be a permit-required confined space must be posted at all entry points with a warning sign that reads: A CONFINED SPACE - GO AWAY! B DANGER - PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE - DO NOT ENTER D Flammable gases, toxic gases, nitrogen a Equipment for testing, ventilation, communications and rescue should be ________ during confined-space entry. A Hidden B Available C Sold D Deactivated b The ________ must know the conditions or work practices that may produce a hazard in a confined space and must be trained to enter a specific space. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer a The ________ has a responsibility to verify that all tests have been conducted and all procedures and equipment are in place. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Guard c The ________ is responsible for controlling entry to the confined space and maintaining an accurate count of people in the space. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer b Implementing a written permit space program, identifying all potential hazards, and providing training to affected employees are all responsibilities of the: A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer d Which spill control agents prevent vigorous reactions when added to a spill? A Chelates B Absorbents C Precipitates D Inhibitors d What does the letter "I" in the spill response acronym "SLIP" stand for? A Isolate the leak B Identify the leak source C Irrigate with water D Implement control measures a Selection of personal protective clothing for spill response should be based on the hazardous materials and/or conditions present and should be appropriate for the hazard encountered. A True B False a Which of the following sorbents is inappropriate for use on many hazardous materials? A Charcoal B Clay C Sawdust D Polyolefin type fibers c Absorbents do NOT retain the properties of the absorbed hazardous liquid. A True B False b This method of leak control is a temporary form of mitigation for radioactive, biological and some chemical substances such as magnesium. A E All of the above f A and C only A and C only If drums and containers appear to be under pressure, which action should be taken? A Do not move them until the cause of the pressure is determined B Implement appropriate containment procedures C Vent the drums to release pressure D Overpack the drums E All of the above F A and B only A and B only Drums and containers must be identified and classified after being packaged for shipment. A True B False false What is the purpose of site control? A Reduce the spread of hazardous substances from contaminated areas to clean areas B Identify and isolate contaminated areas of the site C Facilitate emergency evacuation and medical care D Prevent unauthorized entry to the site E Deter vandalism and theft F All of the above f Which of the following is NOT used in site control? A Engineering controls B Work practices C Personal protective equipment D Medical surveillance d Which of the following are elements of the site control plan? A Site map B Site work zones C Decontamination procedures D Toxicology E All of the above F A, B, C only f A site map identifies: A Work zones for dealing with contamination B Hazard zones C Access routes D Wind direction E All of the above e In the event of an emergency involving hazardous materials, the 3 work zones are: A Clear Zone, Pressurized Zone, Buddy Zone B Exclusion Zone, Contamination Reduction Zone, Support Zone C Primary Zone, Secondary Zone, Tertiary Zone D Red Zone, Orange Zone, Green Zone b In which work zone is contamination the highest? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D None of the above a In which work zone(s) are emergency response activities such as first aid administration carried out? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C A True B False a Site-specific training must be given on which of the following topics? A Medical assistance identification B Training assignments C Buddy system D Site mapping E All of the above F A and B only f The presence of an unwanted or hazardous substance or material on or in protective equipment, is known as: A Contamination B Decontamination C Hazard zones a Contamination occurs most commonly from: A Vapor B Dust C Mist D Liquid chemical contact E Gaseous contact d Which of the following activities is NOT likely to result in contamination? A Contacting air containing vapors, gases, mists, dusts, fumes and smoke B Walking through puddles of liquids or on a contaminated surface C Showering after exposure to hazardous materials D Using a contaminated instrument or contaminated equipment c Decontamination consists of either physically removing the contaminants or changing them to harmless substances. A True B False a How can contamination be minimized? A Use remote handling techniques B Protect monitoring and sampling equipment C Use disposable outer garments D Encase the source of the contaminants E All of the above F A and B only e Which of the following is NOT required in the Decontamination Plan? A List of equipment needed for possible hazards B Safe disposal methods for clothing and equipment that are not completely decontaminated C Appropriate PPE D Worker vacation schedules d 7. The three main decontamination methods are pysical removal, inactivation and chemical removal. A True B False a Which of the following are examples of physical removal? A Water from either a pressurized or a gravity flow system being used to rinse off the contaminant B Evaporating or vaporizing a contaminant from fabric C Flame-treating contaminated clothing D All of the above E A and B only e Which of the following is NOT an example of inactivation? C Rail transportation D Warehouses c On-site emergencies typically ________. A Will be more likely to include public agencies B Will have a defined perimeter C Will occur in uncontrolled locations D Are caused by truck accidents on a highway b The Emergency Response Plan for on-site emergencies must include: A Site topography, layout and prevailing weather conditions B Each employee's job description C The cell phone number of the on-site supervisor D Detailed information on every chemical workers may be exposed to a Which of the following is an additional requirement specific to an off-site ERP? A Decontamination B Emergency recognition and prevention C Preplanning in conjunction with public agencies D Critique of response and follow-up c Who assumes total control of the incident response? A Incident Commander B Toxicologist C EPA D The first person on the scene a What is the level of training for the person who responds to releases or potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release? A Hazardous Materials Specialist B First Responder Awareness Level C Hazardous Materials Technician D First Responder Operations Level c What allows possible sources or methods of releases to be identified? A Site map B Facility survey C Critique of response and follow-up D Site control b Where are decontamination procedures described? A Site map B Fire department website C Off-site ERP D Site safety and security plan d The ERP must include a diagram of the facility showing routes of escape and assembly areas, along with a procedure to determine which route to use. A True B False a Critique of response and follow-up should include which of the following questions? A Who was there? B What went right? C What day did it happen? D How long did the incident last? b Flammable and combustible materials are classified by their: A Flash points B Toxicity C Evaporation rates D Volumes a Which of the following is NOT a basic component of fire? A Oxygen B Fuel C Heat D Electricity D Bonding and grounding only work if you have a continuous ________ connection A Metal-to-air B Metal-to-metal C Air-to-metal D Air-to-air C Lie on the floor, below the smoke D Stay and fight the fire a Fire extinguishers work by removing one or more of these elements of fire: ________, oxygen and fuel. A Argon B Electricity C Heat D Water c There is a fuse box on fire. You should use a fire extinguisher labeled: A ABC B D C E D K a Where should you look to find out how far to stand away from flames to effectively extinguish them? A Employee handbook B Extinguisher label C Fire safety poster D Internet search b The first step of the PASS method of using fire extinguishers is to: A Point the nozzle B Pull the pin C Puncture the can D Push the handle b You use a fire extinguisher to put out a small Class A fire. What should you do with the extinguisher afterward? A Inspect it for rust or damage B Re-mount it until it can be replaced C Replace it immediately D Take it home to reuse there c Radiation that has sufficient energy to remove electrons from atoms is called: A Infrared radiation B Ionizing radiation C Non-ionizing radiation D Ultraviolet radiation b Commonly encountered types of ionizing radiation are: A Microwaves B Beta particles C Omega particles D Infrared radiation b A unit of measurement used for measuring a dose of radiation in a person is called a: A Millirem B Milligram C Milliampere D Dosimeter not c A principal source of natural background radiation is ________, which is a gas from naturally- occurring uranium in the soil. A Radon B Cosmic radiation C Potassium-40 D Medical radiation a Exposure to radiation: A Always results in contamination of a worker B Always results in immediate injury when the dose is low to moderate C Has the same probability of causing health effects whether the exposure is acute or chronic D May include reddening of the skin, vomiting, hair loss or even death, if the exposure is acute not c For an individual exposed to doses of radiation, the extent of the damage, if any, can depend upon the organ(s) exposed, the time period and the dose rate. A True B False a To prevent unnecessary exposure to radiation, it is important to maintain radiation exposures using the concept commonly known as ALARA, which stands for: A As long as in radioactive area B As low as reasonably achievable C A low airflow radiological area D As large as reasonably actionable b Postings and markings used to warn of ionizing radiation are typically colored ________ and contain the standard radiation symbol. A Red, yellow and orange B Lavender, gray and/or deep purple C Yellow, black, white and/or magenta D Blue and green c Glove boxes and other means of containment minimize exposure through: A Decreasing time B Using shielding C Increasing distance D Increasing time b What should you do if you discover radioactive material that is somewhere it does not belong? A Warn other personnel not to approach the area B Pick it up and dispose of it C Stand next to it until your supervisor arrives D Wait until the end of your shift and notify your site's environment, health, safety and radiological control personnel a Hydrogen sulfide is a toxic, potentially deadly gas that is formed in nature when organic materials decay, and also: A As a by-product of some industrial and chemical processes B In certain chemical cleaning solutions C In home appliances, such as stoves and refrigerators D When wood or lumber burns a Hydrogen sulfide smells like ________. A Burnt popcorn B Curdled milk C 15 minutes D 60 minutes c Ideally, the water coming out of an eyewash or emergency shower should be: A Cold B Hot C Steamy D Tepid d How often should you drain and refill portable eyewash units with refillable reservoirs? A Daily B As frequently as the manufacturer recommends C Yearly D Never b The best time to learn where eyewashes and emergency showers are and how to use them is: A Before an emergency B During an emergency C After an emergency D Never a While you are using an eyewash, your eyes should be: A Closed B Crossed C Open D Shielded c What is the best way to find the flushing time for a given chemical? A Perform an Internet search for best practices B Look in your Human Resources policy manual C Read the Safety Data Sheet D There is no need to investigate, because the time is always 15 minutes c If your clothes have absorbed a chemical, you may need to: A Incinerate them B Stand still until the chemical dries C Remove them D Avoid using the emergency shower c Experience gives us an advantage because it: A May prepare us to react B Prevents all mistakes C Replaces any procedures that are in place D Takes the place of safety equipment a You can rely on personal protective equipment and machine safety devices to protect you from incidental contact with dangerous equipment. A True B False b Stress may cause us to: A Be hyper-aware of warning signs B Concentrate harder than usual C Loosen our muscles to an unsafe degree D Repeat behaviors that are not working not c If you are fatigued, you should: A Make jerky fine-motor movements B Perform physical tasks to keep you awake C Slow down and allow more distance than usual D Work faster so that you can stop and rest sooner c One way to make sure you understand the feedback you receive is to: A Actively listen and repeat what you heard B Defend your actions C Get a second opinion D Make a judgement about why you are receiving feedback a Which of the following best describes a slip? A Loss of balance due to an interruption of movement by an obstacle B Falling from a distance C Loss of balance due to too little friction between your foot and the walking surface D Loss of balance while walking c Slip and fall injuries can be caused by a combination of slippery surfaces and the wrong footwear. A True B False a Injuries can occur from inappropriately using which of the following as a makeshift ladder? A Shelves B Boxes C Chairs D All of the above d Before using a ladder at work for the first time, you must: A Choose the right ladder B Receive ladder safety training C Know where to place it D Make sure the ladder steps are dry and clean b Which of the following best defines a trip? A Loss of balance due to an interruption of movement by an obstacle B Falling from a distance C Loss of friction between your foot and the walking surface D Step and fall a Which of the following typically helps people to avoid slips, trips and falls? A Poor housekeeping B Improper use of equipment C Bad habits D Good lighting d In the event of a fall, you should do which of the following? A Stop, drop and roll B Keep your wrists, elbows and knees bent C Use your hands to break the fall D Land on your back b Whom should you check with to determine if your shoes are suitable for the workplace? A No one as long as the label says they're slip-resistant ensure no one works alone D Providing aid to workers is not considered until an emergency occurs not b Which of the following can help you maintain a high level of heat tolerance? A Consuming caffeine on hot days B Getting sufficient sleep C Working double shifts D Wearing dark-colored clothing b Which of the following is a good way to warm yourself when it is cold outside? A Drink alcoholic beverages to make your body temperature closer to the outside temperature B Keep an electric heater plugged in and on at all times C Stay as still as possible while in your house D Wear warm clothing, such as sweaters, to maintain body heat d If your skin and tissue is frozen, your body part may feel: A Itchy B Sweaty C Numb D Sticky c If someone has been exposed to cold and is ________, call for medical help immediately. A confused B fidgeting C shivering D talkative a You are walking along a sidewalk when you accidentally step in a puddle of icy water. Your shoes and socks are soaked. What should you do as soon as possible? A Call for emergency help B Change into dry clothing C Jump around D No action is needed b If your fingers are numb and discolored after you've been in the cold, you should hold them close to a fireplace or radiator to quickly warm them up. A True B False b A pre-job briefing informs workers of: A Activities that are going on around the entire site B Controls that are absent C Safety issues to keep in mind while working D The cost of the work to be performed c When should a pre-job briefing take place? Before the job begins and: A At the end of the job B Whenever there is a significant change in working conditions C At the beginning of the month D Every morning not d A pre-job briefing could cover electrical, mechanical and environmental conditions; obstructions in the area; and: A Brands of equipment B Project budget C Worker qualifications D Working space constraints d Who should conduct a pre-job briefing? A The supervisor or lead worker B The site or facility owner C Any worker who has a safety concern D A local government representative a Document the pre-job briefing to include: A Anticipated rest break times B The address where the briefing took place C Names of attendees D Phone numbers of attendees c