hazwoper 8 hour refresher test with complete answers for revision use/2025, Exercises of Nursing

Download hazwoper 8 hour refresher test with complete answers for revision use/2025 and more Exercises Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 67 hazwoper 8 hour refresher test with complete answers for revision use/2025 1. Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of a hazardous substance accident? A Broken or rusted pipes B Following standard operating procedures C Faulty valves or transfer hoses D Leaking tank: b 2. What is a hazardous substance? A Any substance defined under section 101(14) of CERCLA B Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent that could cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction), or physical deforma- tions in exposed people or their offspring C Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as a hazardous material under 49 CFR 172.101 and its appendices D Hazardous waste E All of the above: e 3. All hazardous substances are hazardous wastes. A Tru e B False: b 4. The floodwaters of Hurricane Katrina were polluted with which of the follow- ing hazardous substances? A Petroleu 2 / 67 m B Dioxi n C Mercu ry D 5 / 67 9. Which of the following standards does not usually apply to HAZWOPER situations? A Subpart O - Machinery and Machine Guarding B Subpart H - Hazardous Materials C Subpart I - Personal Protective Equipment D Subpart Z - Toxic and Hazardous Substances: a 10.The HAZWOPER Standard applies to: A Cleanup operations involving hazardous substances that are conducted at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites B Corrective actions involving cleanup operations at sites covered by RCRA C Emergency response operations for releases or substantial threats of release of hazardous substances regardless of location D Materials that are currently destined for disposal or recycling E All of the above F A, B and C only: f 11.How many levels of training apply to "regardless of location" emergency responders? A 3 B 5 C 7: b 12.Refresher training is only required for individuals who took 40 hours of HAZWOPER training initially. A 6 / 67 Tru e B False: b 7 / 67 13.The OSHA HAZWOPER Standard requires employers to develop and im- plement a written safety and health program for their employees involved in hazardous waste operations. A Tru e B False: a 14.The site safety and health plan must be kept on-site and must address the safety and health hazards of each phase of site operation. A Tru e B False: a 15.Which of the following must be included in the safety and health plan? A Hazard analysis for all tasks on-site B Site control measures C Names of key personnel D Medical surveillance guidelines E All of the above: e 16.Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect work- ers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? A SARA B HSW A C CERCL A D RCRA: a 17.Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? A 10 / CERCLA 11 / 22.Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a haz- ardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities?: not First Responder Operations Level 23.A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can:: not Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities 24.So how much waste must a facility generate to earn these classifications?- : CESQG: Less than 100 kg hazardous waste per month SQG: 100 kg to 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month LQG: More than 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month 25.Generators may accumulate up to gallons of hazardous waste indef- initely at the point of generation.: 55 26.It is the responsibility of the generator to determine whether a waste is hazardous.: TRUE 27.Discharges of industrial wastewater generally do not require a permit.: - FALSE 28.Stormwater pollution is caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollu- tants from: A) Outdoor equipment B) Processes C)Wastes D) Storage areas Knowledge Check: Stormwater E) ALL OF ABOVE: E 29.Which of the following is a Best Management Practice for handling indus- trial waste? A Disposing of paint, solvents or oil directly onto the ground B Locating an industrial waste storage area adjacent to a storm drain or body of water C Cleaning up chemical spills at the end of every week D 12 / Taking measures to prevent or minimize soil erosion at the facility: d 30.Which of the following are EPA- regulated areas? A Hazardous waste generation 15 / 35.CESQGs are exempt from many of the requirements pertaining to the other generator classifications. A Tru e B False: a 36.How often must small or large quantity generators conduct inspections of their storage areas? A Dail y B Weekl y C Month ly D Yearly: b 37. Generators may accumulate up to gallons of hazardous waste indefi- nitely at the point of generation. A 4 5 B 5 5 C 6 5 D 75: b 38.You must label drums or other containers of hazardous waste: A Once the drum or container is full B Only if stored at a satellite location C Before placing any waste in them D If the accumulation start date is within the current calendar 16 / year: c 39.Stormwater pollution may be caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from outdoor equipment or storage areas. A True 17 / B False: a 40.Which of the following requires special management in order to avoid disposal as a hazardous waste? A Scrap metal B Scrap tires C Used batteries D Empty drums E Empty paint cans F All of the above: f 41.Industrial wastewater includes domestic sanitary wastes (e.g., from sinks or toilets). A Tru e B False: b 42.When industrial wastewaters are discharged to surface waters (e.g., a creek, ditch, pond or lake), the EPA or state requires a: A National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit B Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) C Best Management Practice (BMP): a 43.A facility that has no outdoor exposures may be exempt from stormwater permitting requirements. A Tru e B False: a 44.Wastewater and stormwater permits will never require sampling, inspec- tions or recordkeeping. 20 / Small Quantity Generator (SQG) 21 / C Large Quantity Generator (LQG): a 49.What is the PRIMARY purpose of the HazCom Standard? Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure to hazardous substances Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals: Re- ducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals 50.Phosphoric acid: Extremely corrosive to some metals, and can severely irritate and burn the skin and eyes. Breathing its vapors can make the lungs ache. Health Physical Both: both 51.Acetone: Can irritate the skin and eyes. Repeated exposure can affect a person's central nervous system. It is also very flammable in liquid or vapor form. Health Physical Both: both 52.What is the primary purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard? A Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented B Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country C Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure 22 / to hazardous substances D Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals: d 25 / in their about how they will share information with the other employers. 26 / A Inspection reports B Insurance paperwork C Work agreements D Written programs: d 63.Requirements for which of the following should be included in the written program? A Labels and other forms of warning B Names of all machine brands C Phone numbers for all employees D Types of languages spoken on the site: a 64.Hazard warning labels must include: A Signal words and pictograms B Average national price for the chemical C Lists of stores that sell the chemical D Names of hospitals near the manufacturer: a 65. A ll hazardous chemical labels must be . A Orang e B Legibl e C Made of paper D Permanent: b 66.The more severe hazards are identified on labels with which signal word? A 27 / Danger 30 / 10 C 1 6 D 20: c 71.Employees must be trained on the Hazard Communication program when- ever: A A new hazard is introduced into their work area B The season changes C They start work every day D They go on vacation and then return: a 72.An unplanned event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupa- tional illness, damage to or loss of equipment or property, or damage to the environment, is referred to as: A A hazard B A mishap C A risk: b 73. Risk is the likelihood that a will cause a . A Hazard, mishap B Mishap, hazard C Loss, injury D Injury, loss: a 31 / 74.A hazard related to the composition, structure and properties of sub- stances is called a: A 32 / Mechanical hazard B Physical hazard C Chemical hazard D Biological hazard: c 75.Toxicity can be measured by: A Threshold Limit Value (TLV) B Lethal Concentration (LC) C Lethal Dose (LD) D All of the above: d 76.Acids and alkaline caustic liquids are examples of: A Corrosiv es B Flammables and explosives C Oxidize rs D Pyrophoric materials: a 77.Which physical property affects the ease with which a fuel can be ignited? A Flashpoi nt B Ignition temperature C Flammable limits D Specific gravity E 35 / rays B 36 / X- rays C Radio waves D Neutrons: c 83.A hazardous waste is a waste with a chemical composition or other prop- erties that make it capable of causing illness, death or some other harm to humans and other life forms when mismanaged or released into the environ- ment. A Tru e B False: a 84.Relying on your senses will always alert you to the presence of a hazard. A Tru e B False: b 85.DOT labels and placards are: A Color- coded B Word- coded C Symbol- coded D Number- coded E All of the above: e 86.A green DOT placard indicates a non-flammable hazard. A Tru e B 37 / False: a 40 / Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) C 41 / Threshold Limit Value (TLV) D Lethal Dose: c 95.The study of the poisonous properties of substances is known as: A Exposur e B Toxicolo gy C Threshold Limit Value D Permissible Exposure Limits: b 96.An IDLH atmosphere is one that: A Poses an immediate threat to life B Would cause irreversible adverse health effects C Would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere D Has a 50% probability of causing death E All of the above F A, B, C only: f 97.Which of the following is NOT a route of entry for toxic substances? A Inhalati on B Ingesti on C Absorpti on D Injecti 42 / on E Inspiration: e 45 / A Solubility of toxic agent 46 / B Time of administration C Temperature and humidity D Nutritional status E All of the above: e 106. If a small amount of a chemical causes a toxic response, it is considered to be relatively non-toxic. A Tru e B False: b 107. PELs are the regulatory limits on the amount or concentration of a sub- stance in the air. PEL stands for: A Possible Exposure Limit B Probable Exposure Limit C Permissible Exposure Limit: c 108. Benzene may be absorbed or inhaled, but exposure affects the bone marrow or brain rather than the skin or lungs. This is an example of: A Local effects B Systemic effects: b 109. The skin on which of these body parts is the most absorbent? A Fee t B Hand 47 / s C Arms 50 / C Personal, Environmental, Remote, Compositional D Environmental, Biological, Medical, Examination: a 114. Biological monitoring is the measurement of contaminant concentrations in the workplace. A Tru e B False: b 115. Gases, liquids and solids can contaminate air. A Tru e B False: a 116. How is monitoring data used? A To detect potential hazards B To measure concentrations C To identify substances D To assist in the selection of protective clothing E All of the above: e 117. Which of the following CANNOT be detected by air monitoring? A Toxic chemicals B Fire and explosion hazards C Mechanical hazards D 51 / Oxygen deficiency or enrichment: c 52 / 118. Protective clothing and respirators that protect the responder from toxic hazards provide adequate protection against fire or explosions. A Tru e B False: b 119. An oxygen-enriched atmosphere is defined as one containing more than what percentage of oxygen? A 19.5 % B 21% C 23.5 % D 10%: c 120. Fiber concentrations are usually measured in: A pp m B mg/ m3 C ps i D f/cc: d 121. The exposure level to which workers should never be exposed, even for a short time, is known as the: A STE L B TWA C Ceilin 55 / Toxic substances, explosives, oxygen 56 / C Explosives, toxic substances, oxygen D Oxygen, explosives, toxic substances: d 126. At which of the following is medical surveillance required? A Cleanup operations involving hazardous substances B Uncontrolled hazardous waste sites C State and national priority sites and sites recommended for national listing D Initial investigations at government- identified sites E All of the above F None of the above: e 127. HAZWOPER requires medical surveillance for which employees: A Employees who are or may be exposed to hazardous substances or health hazards at or above the established permissible exposure limit B Employees who wear a respirator for 30 days or more a year C Employees who develop signs or symptoms due to possible overexposure involving hazardous substances during a hazardous waste operation D Members of the HAZMAT team E All of the above: e 128. How frequently must medical examinations be given to covered employ- ees? 57 / A At least once every 24 months B At least once every 12 months 60 / C Respirator use and maintenance procedures D Respiratory hazards training: a 134. What are the two main types of respirators? A Supplied-air and self- contained B Air-purifying and atmosphere- supplying C Air-purifying and self- contained D Powered and unpowered: not a not c 135. Which of the following is NOT true of a supplied- air respirator? A Never use pure oxygen with this type of respirator B The required hose can become tangled or damaged, or can be a trip hazard C It provides a virtually unrestricted supply of air D It is the most frequently-used type of respirator during emergency response- : not c not a 136. Air-purifying respirators function by either mechanical filtration or chem- ical sorption. A Tru e B False: a 137. When maintaining respirators, which of the following actions should be avoided? A Clean and disinfect respirators used exclusively by one employee as often as necessary B Clean respirators monthly if they are worn by more than one employee C After using a respirator kept for emergency use, clean it 61 / immediately 62 / D Store respirators away from sunlight and excessive moisture: b 138. When the identity and concentration of atmospheric hazards are not known, it is best to use this type of respirator: A PAP R B SAR C APR D SCBA: d 139. Only respirators approved by should be used. A NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) B OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) C CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) D EPA (Environmental Protection Agency): a 140. Which of the following are considerations when selecting a respirator for emergency response? A Is there enough oxygen in the atmosphere? B What are the hazardous substances a worker may be exposed to? C Is the atmosphere immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH)? D What is the concentration of the substance in the air? E What is the maximum permissible exposure limit for the substance? F All of the above: f 141. In which type of seal check would you place your hands over the cartridge intakes and inhale gently? 65 / A CD C 66 / B IDL H C EPA D DOT: c 147. Level A personal protective equipment requires the highest level of pro- tection for skin, eyes and the respiratory system. A Tru e B False: a 148. Which level of protection is needed when you are working with a sub- stance with a high degree of hazard to the skin? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D: a 149. Which level of protection is needed when working in atmospheres with IDLH concentrations of a specific substance that present a severe inhalation hazard but do not represent a severe skin hazard? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D: b 67 / 150. At which level of protection can an air-purifying respirator be used? A 70 / A Names of entrants B Purpose of entry C Results of atmosphere testing D Pictures of all signs that will be posted: d 155. The surrounding and capture of a worker by a liquid or fine, flowing solid that can be breathed into the lungs or could crush or strangle is called: A Entrapme nt B Engulfme nt C Asphyxiati on D Inhalation: b 156. Which of the following statements about confined space entry training is true? A Entry supervisors are the only workers who need training B Training should take place within a month after a confined-space entry C When confined-space hazards change, workers should be retrained D Attendants are responsible for training workers immediately before they enter confined spaces: c 157. Which of the following is a responsibility of authorized entrants? A Cancel confined space permits when work is done B Keep unauthorized people from entering the space C Maintain communication with attendants D Make sure emergency rescue services are available: c 71 / 158. Any area considered to be a permit-required confined space must be posted at all entry points with a warning sign that reads: A CONFINED SPACE - GO AWAY! B DANGER - PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE - DO NOT ENTER C DEATH ZONE D HAZARD CONTROLS IN PLACE AT THIS SITE - KEEP OUT: b 159. For a space to be considered a permit-required confined space, it must contain enough serious hazards that at least one person has been injured or killed in the space. A Tru e B False: b 160. If you believe you are in danger because you observe signs and symp- toms of a hazard in the space, you should: A Stay in the confined space to see what will happen B Tell your co- workers C Call your supervisor D Evacuate: d 161. In the event that an entrant becomes unconscious, attendants must NOT attempt to enter the space to perform rescue. A Tru e B False: a 162. If engineering controls or work practices don't eliminate or control atmos- pheric hazards, then: A PPE must be 72 / worn B The confined space cannot be entered 75 / 167. Equipment for testing, ventilation, communications and rescue should be during confined-space entry. A Hidde n B Availab le C Sol d D Deactivated: b 168. The must know the conditions or work practices that may produce a hazard in a confined space and must be trained to enter a specific space. A Authorized entrant B Attenda nt C Entry supervisor D Employer: a 169. The has a responsibility to verify that all tests have been conducted and all procedures and equipment are in place. A Authorized entrant B Attenda nt C Entry supervisor D Guard: c 170. The is responsible for controlling entry to the confined space and maintaining an accurate count of people in the space. A Authorized entrant B 76 / Attenda nt C Entry supervisor 77 / D Employer: b 171. Implementing a written permit space program, identifying all potential hazards, and providing training to affected employees are all responsibilities of the: A Authorized entrant B Attenda nt C Entry supervisor D Employer: d 172. Which spill control agents prevent vigorous reactions when added to a spill? A Chelat es B Absorben ts C Precipitat es D Inhibitors: d 173. What does the letter "I" in the spill response acronym "SLIP" stand for? A Isolate the leak B Identify the leak source C Irrigate with water D Implement control measures: a 174. Selection of personal protective clothing for spill response should be based on the hazardous materials and/or conditions present and should be appropriate for the hazard encountered. 80 / s B Dams 81 / C Diversi on D Retenti on E All of the above: e 179. The process of moving a liquid, gas or some form of solids from a leaking or damaged container or tank is called: A Overpacki ng B Plugging and patching C Transf er D Covering: c 180. When dealing with high vapor pressure liquids or liquefied compressed gases, is one possible method of leak and spill control. A Adsorpti on B Neutralizati on C Overpacki ng D Flaring: d 181. Which leak and spill control method uses controlled combustion to ren- der a container's escaping materials less hazardous? A Vent and burn B Solidificati on C Polymerizati 82 / on D Gelation: a 85 / B False: false 187. What is the purpose of site control? A Reduce the spread of hazardous substances from contaminated areas to clean areas B Identify and isolate contaminated areas of the site C Facilitate emergency evacuation and medical care D Prevent unauthorized entry to the site E Deter vandalism and theft F All of the above: f 188. Which of the following is NOT used in site control? A Engineering controls B Work practices C Personal protective equipment D Medical surveillance: d 189. Which of the following are elements of the site control plan? A Site map B Site work zones C Decontamination procedures D Toxicolo gy E 86 / All of the above 87 / F A, B, C only: f 190. A site map identifies: A Work zones for dealing with contamination B Hazard zones C Access routes D Wind direction E All of the above: e 191. In the event of an emergency involving hazardous materials, the 3 work zones are: A Clear Zone, Pressurized Zone, Buddy Zone B Exclusion Zone, Contamination Reduction Zone, Support Zone C Primary Zone, Secondary Zone, Tertiary Zone D Red Zone, Orange Zone, Green Zone: b 192. In which work zone is contamination the highest? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D None of the above: a 193. In which work zone(s) are emergency response activities such as first aid administration carried out? A 90 / A Tru e B False: a 198. Site security controls include: A Fencin g B Barrie rs C Moat s D Camer as E All of the above F A, B, D only: f 199. Which of the following is NOT a routine SOP? A Lockout/ tagout B Confined space entry C Decontaminat ion D Fire prevention: c 200. Standard operating procedures are intended to provide workers with necessary guidelines to carry out work tasks safely. A Tru e B False: a 201. Site-specific training must be given on which of the following topics? 91 / A 92 / Medical assistance identification B Training assignments C Buddy system D Site mapping E All of the above F A and B only: f 202. The presence of an unwanted or hazardous substance or material on or in protective equipment, is known as: A Contaminati on B Decontaminat ion C Hazard zones: a 203. Contamination occurs most commonly from: A Vapo r B Dus t C Mis t D Liquid chemical contact E Gaseous contact: d 204. Which of the following activities is NOT likely to result in contamination? A Contacting air containing vapors, gases, mists, dusts, fumes and smoke B Walking through puddles of liquids or on a 95 / A 96 / Tru e B False: a 209. Which of the following are examples of physical removal? A Water from either a pressurized or a gravity flow system being used to rinse off the contaminant B Evaporating or vaporizing a contaminant from fabric C Flame-treating contaminated clothing D All of the above E A and B only: e 210. Which of the following is NOT an example of inactivation? A Oxidati on B Neutralizati on C Solidificati on D Washing with detergent: d 211. Chemical removal of contaminants may be accomplished with surfac- tants or solvents. A Tru e B False: a 212. Decontamination stations can be arranged in any order. A Tru e B False: b 97 / 213. Decontamination equipment must be purchased from specialized ven- dors who are authorized to sell it. A Tru e B False: b 214. Which of the following should be disposed of in drums and properly labeled? A Clothin g B Tool s C Bucket s D Brushe s E All of the above: e 215. To prevent slips and falls in the decontamination line: A Provide hand holds while boots are being washed or boot covers removed B Use gripper decals or other material C Provide stools for personnel to sit down at stations where boots or suits are removed D All of the above E A and B only: d 216. Which of the following actions should take place in the Contaminated Area (or Hot Zone) of the decontamination line? A Remove outer