Hazwoper 8hour refresher test| 311 Questions & Answers, Exams of Science education

Download Hazwoper 8hour refresher test| 311 Questions & Answers and more Exams Science education in PDF only on Docsity! Hazwoper 8hour refresher test| 311 Questions & Answers Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of a hazardous substance accident? A Broken or rusted pipes B Following standard operating procedures C Faulty valves or transfer hoses D Leaking tank - Correct answer b What is a hazardous substance? A Any substance defined under section 101(14) of CERCLA B Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent that could cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction), or physical deformations in exposed people or their offspring C Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as a hazardous material under 49 CFR 172.101 and its appendices D Hazardous waste E All of the above - Correct answer e All hazardous substances are hazardous wastes. A True B False - Correct answer b The floodwaters of Hurricane Katrina were polluted with which of the following hazardous substances? A Petroleum B Dioxin C Mercury D Pesticides E All of the above - Correct answer e The law that requires employers to provide a workplace that is "free from recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious physical harm" is known as: A OSH Act B RCRA C HSWA D SARA - Correct answer a Which of the following acts was passed in 1976 to protect human health and the environment from the potential hazards of waste disposal? A HSWA B RCRA C OSH Act D CERCLA - Correct answer b Which regulation deals with cleaning up inactive and abandoned hazardous waste sites? A Solid Waste Disposal Act B Clean Air Act C CERCLA D Clean Water Act - Correct answer c The U.S. EPA enforces the HAZWOPER Standard. A True B False - Correct answer b Which of the following standards does not usually apply to HAZWOPER situations? A Subpart O - Machinery and Machine Guarding B C Implement the Incident Command System for the response D All of the above - Correct answer b Which training level describes individuals who assume control of the incident scene and implement the Incident Command System and emergency procedures? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander - Correct answer d Commonly known as the Superfund program, ________ was enacted by Congress in 1980 in response to the Love Canal situation. A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA - Correct answer c Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? - Correct answer not CERCLA Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? - Correct answer not First Responder Operations Level A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: - Correct answer not Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities So how much waste must a facility generate to earn these classifications? - Correct answer CESQG: Less than 100 kg hazardous waste per month SQG: 100 kg to 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month LQG: More than 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month Generators may accumulate up to _____ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. - Correct answer 55 It is the responsibility of the generator to determine whether a waste is hazardous. - Correct answer TRUE Discharges of industrial wastewater generally do not require a permit. - Correct answer FALSE Stormwater pollution is caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from: Outdoor equipment Processes Wastes Storage areas Knowledge Check: Stormwater E) ALL OF ABOVE - Correct answer E Which of the following is a Best Management Practice for handling industrial waste? A Disposing of paint, solvents or oil directly onto the ground B Locating an industrial waste storage area adjacent to a storm drain or body of water C Cleaning up chemical spills at the end of every week D Taking measures to prevent or minimize soil erosion at the facility - Correct answer d Which of the following are EPA-regulated areas? A Hazardous waste generation B Industrial wastewater discharges C Stormwater discharges D All of the above - Correct answer d Hazardous waste is heavily regulated because it can damage the environment or threaten human health if it is not properly handled and disposed of. A True B False - Correct answer a 4) If a potentially hazardous waste exhibits characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity or toxicity, it is considered a: A Characteristic waste B Listed waste C Waste stream D Non-categorized waste - Correct answer a Who is responsible for determining whether any wastes generated are hazardous? A The generator of the waste B The EPA C The local municipality D Your EMS administrator - Correct answer a If the monthly generation threshold is exceeded for classification, the classification status will only be changed for the duration of the exceeded threshold. A True B False - Correct answer b CESQGs are exempt from many of the requirements pertaining to the other generator classifications. A True B False - Correct answer a How often must small or large quantity generators conduct inspections of their storage areas? A Daily B Weekly C Monthly D Yearly - Correct answer b Generators may accumulate up to ___ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. A Use it B Throw it away C Donate it D Recycle it - Correct answer b Which classification describes a facility that generates less than 100 kg of hazardous waste per month? A Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator (CESQG) B Small Quantity Generator (SQG) C Large Quantity Generator (LQG) - Correct answer a What is the PRIMARY purpose of the HazCom Standard? Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure to hazardous substances Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals - Correct answer Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals Phosphoric acid: Extremely corrosive to some metals, and can severely irritate and burn the skin and eyes. Breathing its vapors can make the lungs ache. Health Physical Both - Correct answer both Acetone: Can irritate the skin and eyes. Repeated exposure can affect a person's central nervous system. It is also very flammable in liquid or vapor form. Health Physical Both - Correct answer both What is the primary purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard? A Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented B Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country C Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure to hazardous substances D Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals - Correct answer d The HazCom Standard covers construction and longshoring workers, as well as employees in other industries who may be exposed to chemical hazards. A True B False - Correct answer a Which are the four major areas covered by the standard? Hazard classification, written program, SDSs and labels, and: A Engineering controls B Monitoring C Training D PPE - Correct answer not b, not d The purpose of the GHS is to: A Establish the United States' standards worldwide B Improve reading comprehension among workers C Protect employers from worker lawsuits D Reduce confusion and worker injury and illness - Correct answer d The GHS standardizes an international approach to the HazCom Standard. A True B False - Correct answer a The hazard statement on Chemical A's label says it can cause skin irritation and respiratory problems. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Ambiguous hazard B Health hazard C Physical hazard D Retroactive hazard - Correct answer c Chemical B is pyrophoric. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Health hazard B Layered hazard C Physical hazard D Physical and health hazards - Correct answer c Who must provide labels when they ship chemicals? A Manufacturers B Importers C Distributors D All of the above - Correct answer d When performing a hazardous chemical inventory, employers must consider chemicals in liquid or gas form only. A True B False - Correct answer b In chemical inventories, employers must identify chemicals in: A Chewing tobacco B Clothes detergent C Pipes D D 20 - Correct answer c Employees must be trained on the Hazard Communication program whenever: A A new hazard is introduced into their work area B The season changes C They start work every day D They go on vacation and then return - Correct answer a An unplanned event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness, damage to or loss of equipment or property, or damage to the environment, is referred to as: A A hazard B A mishap C A risk - Correct answer b Risk is the likelihood that a ___ will cause a ____. A Hazard, mishap B Mishap, hazard C Loss, injury D Injury, loss - Correct answer a A hazard related to the composition, structure and properties of substances is called a: A Mechanical hazard B Physical hazard C Chemical hazard D Biological hazard - Correct answer c Toxicity can be measured by: A Threshold Limit Value (TLV) B Lethal Concentration (LC) C Lethal Dose (LD) D All of the above - Correct answer d Acids and alkaline caustic liquids are examples of: A Corrosives B Flammables and explosives C Oxidizers D Pyrophoric materials - Correct answer a Which physical property affects the ease with which a fuel can be ignited? A Flashpoint B Ignition temperature C Flammable limits D Specific gravity E Boiling point F All of the above - Correct answer f Organic peroxides are very stable chemicals. A True B False - Correct answer b Which of the following is a pyrophoric material? A Phosphorus B Nitric acid C Formaldehyde D Sulfur - Correct answer a Oxidizers should never be stored near fuels. A True B False - Correct answer a Substances that restrict or prevent the oxygenation of the blood are called: A Oxidizers B Oxygenators C Asphyxiants D Reactors - Correct answer c Which of the following is NOT a source of radiation? A Gamma rays B X-rays C Radio waves D Neutrons - Correct answer c A hazardous waste is a waste with a chemical composition or other properties that make it capable of causing illness, death or some other harm to humans and other life forms when mismanaged or released into the environment. A True B D Concentration - Correct answer a Exposure that occurs over a short period of time is called: A Acute B Chronic C Concentrated D Permissible - Correct answer a The airborne concentration of a substance to which workers can be exposed day after day without adverse effect is referred to as: A Lethal Concentration B Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) C Threshold Limit Value (TLV) D Lethal Dose - Correct answer c The study of the poisonous properties of substances is known as: A Exposure B Toxicology C Threshold Limit Value D Permissible Exposure Limits - Correct answer b An IDLH atmosphere is one that: A Poses an immediate threat to life B Would cause irreversible adverse health effects C Would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere D Has a 50% probability of causing death E All of the above F A, B, C only - Correct answer f Which of the following is NOT a route of entry for toxic substances? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection E Inspiration - Correct answer e Taking care not to eat, drink, smoke or apply cosmetics in a contaminated area will help prevent exposure via which route of entry? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection - Correct answer b Which of the following are symptoms of acute exposure? A Irritation to the skin, eyes or lungs B Bad smell C Chest pain D Dizziness E All of the above F B and D only - Correct answer e Which of the following effects may be caused by chronic exposure to chemicals? A Skin irritation B Central nervous system effects C Liver, kidney or other organ damage D Cancer E Asbestosis F All of the above - Correct answer f Skin irritation from UV radiation is an example of: A Local effects B Systemic effects - Correct answer a Nephrotoxins produce liver damage. A True B False - Correct answer b DNA and gene changes resulting in birth defects in infants is an example of what type of toxic effect? A Biochemical B Carcinogenic C Mutagenic D Teratogenic - Correct answer c Exposure to cotton dust is most likely to affect which body part? A Reproductive system B Personal, Environmental, Biological, Medical B Personal, Impersonal, Biological, Medical C Personal, Environmental, Remote, Compositional D Environmental, Biological, Medical, Examination - Correct answer a Biological monitoring is the measurement of contaminant concentrations in the workplace. A True B False - Correct answer b Gases, liquids and solids can contaminate air. A True B False - Correct answer a How is monitoring data used? A To detect potential hazards B To measure concentrations C To identify substances D To assist in the selection of protective clothing E All of the above - Correct answer e Which of the following CANNOT be detected by air monitoring? A Toxic chemicals B Fire and explosion hazards C Mechanical hazards D Oxygen deficiency or enrichment - Correct answer c Protective clothing and respirators that protect the responder from toxic hazards provide adequate protection against fire or explosions. A True B False - Correct answer b An oxygen-enriched atmosphere is defined as one containing more than what percentage of oxygen? A 19.5% B 21% C 23.5% D 10% - Correct answer c Fiber concentrations are usually measured in: A ppm B mg/m3 C psi D f/cc - Correct answer d The exposure level to which workers should never be exposed, even for a short time, is known as the: A STEL B TWA C Ceiling D TLV - Correct answer c You are exposed to acetone at a concentration of 80 ppm for 6 hours and 20 ppm for 2 hours. What is the TWA? A 8 ppm B 20 ppm C 100 ppm D 65 ppm - Correct answer d The minimum concentration of a substance in the air that is required for ignition is called the: A Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) B Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) C Explosive range D Time-Weighted Average (TWA) - Correct answer a Placing a monitoring device in an area where people may work is an example of: A Personal monitoring B Area monitoring C Real-time monitoring D Sample analysis - Correct answer b In what order should monitoring be conducted? A Explosives, oxygen, toxic substances B Toxic substances, explosives, oxygen C Explosives, toxic substances, oxygen D Oxygen, explosives, toxic substances - Correct answer d At which of the following is medical surveillance required? Never use pure oxygen with this type of respirator B The required hose can become tangled or damaged, or can be a trip hazard C It provides a virtually unrestricted supply of air D It is the most frequently-used type of respirator during emergency response - Correct answer not c not a Air-purifying respirators function by either mechanical filtration or chemical sorption. A True B False - Correct answer a When maintaining respirators, which of the following actions should be avoided? A Clean and disinfect respirators used exclusively by one employee as often as necessary B Clean respirators monthly if they are worn by more than one employee C After using a respirator kept for emergency use, clean it immediately D Store respirators away from sunlight and excessive moisture - Correct answer b When the identity and concentration of atmospheric hazards are not known, it is best to use this type of respirator: A PAPR B SAR C APR D SCBA - Correct answer d Only respirators approved by ________ should be used. A NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) B OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) C CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) D EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) - Correct answer a Which of the following are considerations when selecting a respirator for emergency response? A Is there enough oxygen in the atmosphere? B What are the hazardous substances a worker may be exposed to? C Is the atmosphere immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH)? D What is the concentration of the substance in the air? E What is the maximum permissible exposure limit for the substance? F All of the above - Correct answer f In which type of seal check would you place your hands over the cartridge intakes and inhale gently? A Positive-pressure test B Negative-pressure test - Correct answer b PPE will protect you from all hazardous exposures. A True B False - Correct answer b Which of the following must be considered in PPE selection? A Identification of hazards B Routes of entry for hazards C Performance of the PPE D Cost of PPE materials E A, B, C only - Correct answer e If you cannot find PPE materials that will provide continuous protection from a particular hazardous substance, the breakthrough time of the protective material should exceed the duration of your work. A True B False - Correct answer a The effects of PPE in relation to heat stress and task duration are a factor in selecting and using PPE. A True B False - Correct answer a Which agency designates levels of protection for PPE? A CDC B IDLH C EPA D DOT - Correct answer c Level A personal protective equipment requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes and the respiratory system. A True B False - Correct answer a Which level of protection is needed when you are working with a substance with a high degree of hazard to the skin? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - Correct answer a Keep unauthorized people from entering the space C Maintain communication with attendants D Make sure emergency rescue services are available - Correct answer c Any area considered to be a permit-required confined space must be posted at all entry points with a warning sign that reads: A CONFINED SPACE - GO AWAY! B DANGER - PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE - DO NOT ENTER C DEATH ZONE D HAZARD CONTROLS IN PLACE AT THIS SITE - KEEP OUT - Correct answer b For a space to be considered a permit-required confined space, it must contain enough serious hazards that at least one person has been injured or killed in the space. A True B False - Correct answer b If you believe you are in danger because you observe signs and symptoms of a hazard in the space, you should: A Stay in the confined space to see what will happen B Tell your co-workers C Call your supervisor D Evacuate - Correct answer d In the event that an entrant becomes unconscious, attendants must NOT attempt to enter the space to perform rescue. A True B False - Correct answer a If engineering controls or work practices don't eliminate or control atmospheric hazards, then: A PPE must be worn B The confined space cannot be entered C Two attendants are required D Emergency personnel should be contacted - Correct answer a Ventilation is one of the most common examples of: A Work practice controls B Personal protective controls C Engineering controls D Administrative controls - Correct answer c Work practice controls reduce or eliminate hazards by making changes such as: A Assuming the local fire department will quickly rescue all entrants in confined space emergencies B Removing warning systems C Allowing more unauthorized people into a confined space D Rotating workers - Correct answer d It doesn't matter if emergency responders remain on-site or off-site, as long as they are able to meet your needs in the event of an emergency. A True B False - Correct answer a What is the correct order for atmospheric testing? A Oxygen, flammable gases, toxic gases B Flammable gases, oxygen, toxic gases C Toxic gases, oxygen, flammable gases D Flammable gases, toxic gases, nitrogen - Correct answer a Equipment for testing, ventilation, communications and rescue should be ________ during confined-space entry. A Hidden B Available C Sold D Deactivated - Correct answer b The ________ must know the conditions or work practices that may produce a hazard in a confined space and must be trained to enter a specific space. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer - Correct answer a The ________ has a responsibility to verify that all tests have been conducted and all procedures and equipment are in place. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Guard - Correct answer c The ________ is responsible for controlling entry to the confined space and maintaining an accurate count of people in the space. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer - Correct answer b Implementing a written permit space program, identifying all potential hazards, and providing training to affected employees are all responsibilities of the: C Transfer D Covering - Correct answer c When dealing with high vapor pressure liquids or liquefied compressed gases, ________ is one possible method of leak and spill control. A Adsorption B Neutralization C Overpacking D Flaring - Correct answer d Which leak and spill control method uses controlled combustion to render a container's escaping materials less hazardous? A Vent and burn B Solidification C Polymerization D Gelation - Correct answer a Prevention is the key to avoiding spills, leaks and other releases of hazardous materials. - Correct answer true If unlabeled drums and containers are found, you should assume that they contain ________ and handle them accordingly. - Correct answer c Hazardous substances Which of the following should be kept available and used in areas where spills, leaks or ruptures may occur? A DOT-specified salvage drums B Sawdust C Proper absorbent D Newspapers E All of the above f A and C only - Correct answer A and C only If drums and containers appear to be under pressure, which action should be taken? A Do not move them until the cause of the pressure is determined B Implement appropriate containment procedures C Vent the drums to release pressure D Overpack the drums E All of the above F A and B only - Correct answer A and B only Drums and containers must be identified and classified after being packaged for shipment. A True B False - Correct answer false What is the purpose of site control? A Reduce the spread of hazardous substances from contaminated areas to clean areas B Identify and isolate contaminated areas of the site C Facilitate emergency evacuation and medical care D Prevent unauthorized entry to the site E Deter vandalism and theft F All of the above - Correct answer f Which of the following is NOT used in site control? A Engineering controls B Work practices C Personal protective equipment D Medical surveillance - Correct answer d Which of the following are elements of the site control plan? A Site map B Site work zones C Decontamination procedures D Toxicology E All of the above F A, B, C only - Correct answer f A site map identifies: A Work zones for dealing with contamination B Hazard zones C Access routes D Wind direction E All of the above - Correct answer e In the event of an emergency involving hazardous materials, the 3 work zones are: A Clear Zone, Pressurized Zone, Buddy Zone B Exclusion Zone, Contamination Reduction Zone, Support Zone C Primary Zone, Secondary Zone, Tertiary Zone D Standard operating procedures are intended to provide workers with necessary guidelines to carry out work tasks safely. A True B False - Correct answer a Site-specific training must be given on which of the following topics? A Medical assistance identification B Training assignments C Buddy system D Site mapping E All of the above F A and B only - Correct answer f The presence of an unwanted or hazardous substance or material on or in protective equipment, is known as: A Contamination B Decontamination C Hazard zones - Correct answer a Contamination occurs most commonly from: A Vapor B Dust C Mist D Liquid chemical contact E Gaseous contact - Correct answer d Which of the following activities is NOT likely to result in contamination? A Contacting air containing vapors, gases, mists, dusts, fumes and smoke B Walking through puddles of liquids or on a contaminated surface C Showering after exposure to hazardous materials D Using a contaminated instrument or contaminated equipment - Correct answer c Decontamination consists of either physically removing the contaminants or changing them to harmless substances. A True B False - Correct answer a How can contamination be minimized? A Use remote handling techniques B Protect monitoring and sampling equipment C Use disposable outer garments D Encase the source of the contaminants E All of the above F A and B only - Correct answer e Which of the following is NOT required in the Decontamination Plan? A List of equipment needed for possible hazards B Safe disposal methods for clothing and equipment that are not completely decontaminated C Appropriate PPE D Worker vacation schedules - Correct answer d 7. The three main decontamination methods are pysical removal, inactivation and chemical removal. A True B False - Correct answer a Which of the following are examples of physical removal? A Water from either a pressurized or a gravity flow system being used to rinse off the contaminant B Evaporating or vaporizing a contaminant from fabric C Flame-treating contaminated clothing D All of the above E A and B only - Correct answer e Which of the following is NOT an example of inactivation? A Oxidation B Neutralization C Solidification D Washing with detergent - Correct answer d Chemical removal of contaminants may be accomplished with surfactants or solvents. A True B False - Correct answer a Decontamination stations can be arranged in any order. A True B B Toxicologist C EPA D The first person on the scene - Correct answer a What is the level of training for the person who responds to releases or potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release? A Hazardous Materials Specialist B First Responder Awareness Level C Hazardous Materials Technician D First Responder Operations Level - Correct answer c What allows possible sources or methods of releases to be identified? A Site map B Facility survey C Critique of response and follow-up D Site control - Correct answer b Where are decontamination procedures described? A Site map B Fire department website C Off-site ERP D Site safety and security plan - Correct answer d The ERP must include a diagram of the facility showing routes of escape and assembly areas, along with a procedure to determine which route to use. A True B False - Correct answer a Critique of response and follow-up should include which of the following questions? A Who was there? B What went right? C What day did it happen? D How long did the incident last? - Correct answer b Flammable and combustible materials are classified by their: A Flash points B Toxicity C Evaporation rates D Volumes - Correct answer a Which of the following is NOT a basic component of fire? A Oxygen B Fuel C Heat D Electricity - Correct answer D Bonding and grounding only work if you have a continuous ________ connection A Metal-to-air B Metal-to-metal C Air-to-metal D Air-to-air - Correct answer B Storage rooms for flammable and combustible liquids should have ventilation systems that completely re-supply the air at least ____ times an hour. A 2 B 4 C 6 D 16 - Correct answer NOT A NOT B You should maintain an aisle at least ________ wide in a storage room. A 1 foot (0.3 meters) B 2 feet (0.6 meters) C 3 feet (0.9 meters) D 5 feet (1.5 meters) - Correct answer C Cabinets storing flammable and combustible liquids should be: A Bomb-proof B Conspicuously labeled C Located underground D Registered with local police - Correct answer B How much highly flammable liquid can you have outside a storage room or cabinet in a given building or fire area? A 25 gallons (95 liters) B 50 gallons (190 liters) C 100 gallons (379 liters) D 200 gallons (757 liters) - Correct answer A Containers that house flammable and combustible liquids should always be: A Stored outside buildings and away from power lines B Painted red and yellow and labeled correctly C Designed and certified by appropriate safety organizations D Stacked as high as possible within storage areas - Correct answer C After cleaning a spill of flammable liquids, what should you immediately do? A Place the rags you used in an appropriate covered container B Leave the rags you used out in the open so they can quickly dry C Put the rags you used in an uncovered wood container D Throw out the rags you used in tied-off plastic bags or recycle them - Correct answer NOT D, NOT B Appropriate ________ should be available where flammable and combustible liquids are stored. A Video surveillance equipment B Pen and paper C Extinguishers and hoses D All of the above - Correct answer C A continuously discharged portable fire extinguisher can run out of extinguishing agent in: A Seconds B Thirty minutes C Hours D Days - Correct answer a Which of the following is a question you should ask yourself when deciding to fight or flee a fire? A Am I getting paid to do this? B How much money is the fire damage going to cost? C Is there a safe evacuation route? D Will this go on my performance review? - Correct answer c You see a fire. It looks small, but smoke is filling the room rapidly. What should you do? A Find the source of the smoke B Fight the fire while wearing a respirator C Flee the area immediately Postings and markings used to warn of ionizing radiation are typically colored ________ and contain the standard radiation symbol. A Red, yellow and orange B Lavender, gray and/or deep purple C Yellow, black, white and/or magenta D Blue and green - Correct answer c Glove boxes and other means of containment minimize exposure through: A Decreasing time B Using shielding C Increasing distance D Increasing time - Correct answer b What should you do if you discover radioactive material that is somewhere it does not belong? A Warn other personnel not to approach the area B Pick it up and dispose of it C Stand next to it until your supervisor arrives D Wait until the end of your shift and notify your site's environment, health, safety and radiological control personnel - Correct answer a Hydrogen sulfide is a toxic, potentially deadly gas that is formed in nature when organic materials decay, and also: A As a by-product of some industrial and chemical processes B In certain chemical cleaning solutions C In home appliances, such as stoves and refrigerators D When wood or lumber burns - Correct answer a Hydrogen sulfide smells like ________. A Burnt popcorn B Curdled milk C Fermented grains D Rotten eggs - Correct answer d What is the SAFEST type of respiratory protection to use when you work in atmospheres that contain hydrogen sulfide? A Air-purifying respirator B Disposable particulate mask C Escape-only air pack D Supplied-air respirator - Correct answer d If a co-worker passes out after being exposed to hydrogen sulfide, what is your FIRST AND MOST IMPORTANT task? A Calling for help B Ensuring your own safety C Moving your co-worker to a safe area D Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation - Correct answer b Which of the following is a health effect of hydrogen sulfide? A Heightened sense of smell B Labored breathing C Rapid weight gain D Internal bleeding - Correct answer b Eyewashes and emergency showers can be substitutes for: A Good work practices B Reading Safety Data Sheets C Safety precautions D None of the above - Correct answer d The longer chemicals stay on the skin or eyes, the deeper they can penetrate, and the: A Less likely you are to have permanent injury B Less likely you are to need medical assistance C More effective an eyewash or emergency shower is D More harm they can cause - Correct answer d Permanent scarring and other long-term effects can occur just seconds after chemical exposure. A True B False - Correct answer a When you have been exposed to a chemical, immediately flushing the exposed area typically: A Cures any damage B Increases damage C Prevents any damage D Reduces damage - Correct answer d Signs of neglected eyewashes and emergency showers include: A Adequate water pressure B Dust covers on nozzles C Low fluid levels in self-contained eyewashes D Operable activating valves - Correct answer c The area underneath an emergency shower should be: A Covered with a tarp or cloth B Filled with boxes C Free from obstructions D Impassable - Correct answer c The water flow through an eyewash or emergency shower should be: A Blue B Clear C Cloudy D Slightly colored - Correct answer b Eyewash water pressure should be strong enough that the water streams: A Do not touch each other B Meet in the middle but do not overshoot the bowl C Shoot straight into the air D Shoot past each other and overshoot the bowl - Correct answer b For most exposures, the recommended flushing time is ________ or longer. A 15 seconds B 5 minutes C 15 minutes D 60 minutes - Correct answer c Ideally, the water coming out of an eyewash or emergency shower should be: A Cold B Hot C Steamy D Tepid - Correct answer d How often should you drain and refill portable eyewash units with refillable reservoirs? A Daily B As frequently as the manufacturer recommends C Yearly D Never - Correct answer b The best time to learn where eyewashes and emergency showers are and how to use them is: A Before an emergency B During an emergency C After an emergency D Never - Correct answer a While you are using an eyewash, your eyes should be: A Closed B Crossed C Open D Shielded - Correct answer c What is the best way to find the flushing time for a given chemical? A Perform an Internet search for best practices B Wet and cluttered C Dry and uncluttered D Wet and uncluttered - Correct answer c What are some basic housekeeping tasks to prevent slips, trips and falls? A Secure or anchor floor mats B Clean up any liquid spills or puddles C Step over strung-out cords D Both A and B - Correct answer d What is one way the body tries to get rid of excess heat in a hot environment? A By slowing the heart rate B By circulating blood closer to the surface of the skin C By increasing blood flow to the brain D By reducing the thirst drive - Correct answer b Sweating does not cool the body unless the moisture is removed from the skin by ________. A Evaporation B Blood loss C Hot towels D Misting fans - Correct answer a Increased body temperature and physical discomfort promote irritability, anger and other emotional states, which may cause workers to: A Overlook safety procedures B Focus carefully on hazardous tasks C Work quickly and more efficiently D Remain mentally alert - Correct answer a Juan has been working in the hot sun all day. He begins acting delirious. His temperature is extremely hot and his skin is dry and red. What might he be suffering from? A Heat rash B Heat cramps C Heat exhaustion D Heat stroke - Correct answer d Jaime is working in a hot, humid environment. She complains about uncomfortable, itchy spots on her arm. What might she be suffering from? A Heat rash B Heat cramps C Heat exhaustion D Heat stroke - Correct answer a ________ exposure to heat helps the body become accustomed to higher environmental temperatures. A Extreme B Immediate C Minimal D Gradual - Correct answer d Heat disorders in general are LESS likely to occur among workers who are: A Required to work without time to adjust to the heat B Able to acclimate to the heat C Away from hot environments for a while D Accustomed to lower temperatures - Correct answer b Even when safety precautions are taken and policies are followed, heat stress and related illnesses can occur. Therefore: A Workers must watch out for each other, because a co-worker may need help without realizing it B Employees should work alone in isolated areas C A supervisor is the only person permitted to request aid for the symptoms of heat stress D Water should be reserved for people who perform the most strenuous work - Correct answer a During heat waves and when temperatures soar above 90 °F (32 °C), it is recommended that: A People work as quickly as possible B Shaded rest areas be replaced by water coolers C A supervisor remains on-site to observe employees or a "buddy system" is implemented to ensure no one works alone D Providing aid to workers is not considered until an emergency occurs - Correct answer not b Which of the following can help you maintain a high level of heat tolerance? A Consuming caffeine on hot days B Getting sufficient sleep C Working double shifts D Wearing dark-colored clothing - Correct answer b Which of the following is a good way to warm yourself when it is cold outside? A Drink alcoholic beverages to make your body temperature closer to the outside temperature B Keep an electric heater plugged in and on at all times C Stay as still as possible while in your house D Wear warm clothing, such as sweaters, to maintain body heat - Correct answer d If your skin and tissue is frozen, your body part may feel: A Itchy B Sweaty C Numb D Sticky - Correct answer c If someone has been exposed to cold and is ________, call for medical help immediately. A confused B fidgeting C shivering D talkative - Correct answer a You are walking along a sidewalk when you accidentally step in a puddle of icy water. Your shoes and socks are soaked. What should you do as soon as possible? A Call for emergency help B Change into dry clothing C Jump around D No action is needed - Correct answer b If your fingers are numb and discolored after you've been in the cold, you should hold them close to a fireplace or radiator to quickly warm them up. A True B False - Correct answer b A pre-job briefing informs workers of: A Activities that are going on around the entire site B Controls that are absent C Safety issues to keep in mind while working D The cost of the work to be performed - Correct answer c When should a pre-job briefing take place? Before the job begins and: A At the end of the job B Whenever there is a significant change in working conditions C At the beginning of the month D Every morning - Correct answer not d A pre-job briefing could cover electrical, mechanical and environmental conditions; obstructions in the area; and: A Brands of equipment B Project budget C Worker qualifications D Working space constraints - Correct answer d Who should conduct a pre-job briefing? A The supervisor or lead worker B The site or facility owner