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HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM | 314 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED | LATEST UPDATE 20, Exams of Community Corrections

HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM | 314 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED | LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM | 314 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED | LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM | 314 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED | LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM | 314 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED | LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025

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Download HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM | 314 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED | LATEST UPDATE 20 and more Exams Community Corrections in PDF only on Docsity! HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM | 314 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED | LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025 Which of the following is not an employee right under OSHA? - √AnswerTo shut down a job you believe is unsafe A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) ____. - √AnswerMust be provided for chemicals used at a facility The term "Superfund" is another name for which of the following? - √AnswerCERCLA To protect the worker from exposure, which does OSHA indicate should occur first? - √AnswerEngineering controls Operations that employ workers who must comply with the 29 CFR 1910.120 regulations do not include which of the following? Correct - √AnswerRisk analysis of hazardous chemical releases Which governmental body is responsible for safety at a hazardous waste site? - √AnswerOSHA Complete enclosure of a sandblast operation is an example of _____. - √AnswerEngineering controls Is the use of "common sense" a good practice to protect a worker from exposure to hazards? - √AnswerFalse Using steam cleaning instead of solvent-based cleaning is an example of ____. - √AnswerEngineering Wearing a respirator to remove toxic vapors from your breathing air is an example of which of the following? - √AnswerPPE Which of the following is not an element of the Hazard Communication Standard? - √AnswerRespirator training Which Act has the primary responsibility for hazardous waste? - √AnswerResource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) A vertical standard is specific to a particular industry - √AnswerTrue By identifying lines of authority, communication, and coordination among personnel and managers, the ____ is being defined according to the General Health and Safety Program (HASP). - √AnswerOrganizational Structure The OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard requires that new employees at hazardous waste sites receive which of the following training? - √Answer40-hour training course on health and safety Through planning, potential hazards may be anticipated and steps may be taken to reduce the risk of harm to workers, the public, and the environment using which of the following? - √AnswerSafety and Health Program Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response training is required for a person working at a hazardous waste at a Treatment, Storage, Disposal Facility. - √AnswerTrue The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals is associated with which of the following? - √AnswerSafety data sheets The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) regulates an industry's management of its hazardous wastes from generation to off-site disposal! - √AnswerTrue HAZWOPER is the acronym for Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response and is in the 29 CFR 1910.120. - √AnswerTrue Site characterization is performed in order to accomplish which of the following?! - √AnswerAssess hazards at the waste site How many members should the initial site entry team consist of including backup entry personnel? - √AnswerAt least four Off-site characterization hazard assessment might include which of the following? - √AnswerAll answers are correct Emergency personnel should be on standby only after the initial entry team encounters problems on the site. - √AnswerFalse When should monitoring be conducted at a hazardous waste site? - √AnswerUpon initial entry to identify and IDLH conditions Atmospheric monitoring is only required after the workers have entered the site. - √AnswerFalse A chemical that deprives the victim's tissues of oxygen is which of the following? - √AnswerAsphyxiate Which exposure route is most likely to cause the immediate response of a burned esophagus to appear? - √AnswerIngestion Ceiling Limit (C) is the level that should never be exceeded in the workplace without correct procedures and protective equipment. - √AnswerTrue How can chemicals enter your bloodstream? - √AnswerAll answers are correct How much a worker is affected by an exposure to a chemical may depend upon ____. - √AnswerAll answers are correct Which type of airborne hazard probably results from grinding clean, dry metal parts? - √AnswerDust Chronic exposures are possible in hazardous waste sites - √AnswerTrue Which of the following is not a method of identifying hazardous materials? - √AnswerPanels with an ID number An irritant can cause which of the following? - √AnswerSkin to itch upon contact A cryogen can cause which of the following? - √AnswerFreeze the skin on contact A Target organ chemical can cause which of the following? - √AnswerLiver damage A Sensitizer can cause which of the following? - √AnswerAllergic-like responses A Carcinogen can cause which of the following? - √AnswerCancer A Teratogen can cause which of the following?! - √AnswerDamage fetus development A Mutagen can cause which of the following? - √AnswerDamage to Genes in sperm and egg cells 1. The NFPA 704-M system (hazard diamonds) identifies the hazards of materials in terms of____ excluding the 4th category. - √AnswerReactivity, health and flammability A hazard is defined as which of the following? - √AnswerThe capability of something causing you harm Risk can be defined as which of the following? - √AnswerThe probability and severity of a hazard The white section of the NFPA 704-M hazard diamond provides information for which of the following? - √AnswerSpecial hazards The blue section of the NFPA sign designates which hazard?! - √AnswerHealth The number "4" in the red section of the NFPA sign indicates the material is which of the following? - √AnswerExtremely flammable The yellow section of the NFPA sign indicates the material is which of the following? - √AnswerReactive Everyone working in an area that has hazardous substances must recognize and understand the potential health safety hazards involved in their work assignments. Training is required and documentation of that training is which of the following? - √AnswerMandatory Being struck by an object or moving machine part would be considered as which of the following?! - √AnswerKinetic / mechanical hazard Strong management commitment is a vital part of safety.! - √AnswerTrue Upon arriving at a large warehouse, you notice an NFPA sign. The term "OX" appears in the lower (white) quadrant of that sign. This term indicated that oxygen supplying respirator protection must be worn to enter the building.! - √AnswerFalse Noise is always consideration when evaluating hazards. - √AnswerFalse Safe work practices are important in hazardous waste operations. - √AnswerTrue An unsafe condition can also be a physical hazard. - √AnswerTrue A Job Hazard Analysis is performed to determine which of the following? - √AnswerUnsafe worker conditions An unsafe condition, such as wet floors or broken equipment, could be described as which of the following? - √AnswerPhysical hazard Heat stroke and hypothermia are examples of which of the following? - √AnswerThermal stress Which of the following forms of radiation will generally not penetrate intact skin but can be a serious hazard if ingested or inhaled? - √AnswerAlpha What can you do to protect yourself from Gamma ionizing radiation exposure? - √AnswerLimit your time of exposure to radiation Roentgen Equivalent Man (REM) takes into account the energy absorbed (dose) and the biological effect on the body due to different types of radiation. - √AnswerTrue iological effects of acute radiation exposure may include which of the following? - √AnswerAll answers are correct Chronic effects of radiation exposure include which of the following? - √AnswerCancer and cataracts The acronym ALARA stands for which of the following? - √AnswerAs low as reasonably achievable Three basic radiation principles used to reduce exposure to ionizing radiation are ____. - √AnswerTime, distance, shielding Radiation detection and monitoring is crucial for all of the reasons below except which one? - √AnswerRadiation can be detected by the human nose (order) Some atoms in nature occasionally split (fission) and give off radiation - √AnswerTrue Radiation can be detected and measured with a great deal of precision. - √AnswerTrue A sheet of paper can block what type of radiation? - √AnswerAlpha Protection from radiation does not include which of the following? - √AnswerIsotope half-life Gamma and X radiation have a LET or QF of 1. - √AnswerTrue Alpha particles have a QF of 20 and are considered as sever external radiation hazards. - √AnswerFalse If Level B PPE worn by a worker is contaminated with radiation material that can not be decontaminated then the contaminated Level B PPE can be used in future radiation jobs. - √AnswerFalse A scintillation radiation instrument is used to detect which of the following types of radiation? - √AnswerX Rays Electricity generation in the USA using nuclear power plants has provided approximately which of the following percent of the net generation? - √Answer20% 1. Which of the following is the correct inspection schedule for respirators? - √AnswerBefore and after each use Wearing Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) prevents what route of exposure to hazardous materials? - √AnswerSkin Heat Stress is a concern for workers only in the summer months - √AnswerFalse Which of the following is least likely to make heat stress worse?! - √AnswerHigh wind velocity Knowing the specific hazards involved in the job is important even though you are wearing protective clothing.! - √AnswerTrue Air supply consumption when using a SCBA depends on which of the following? - √AnswerFitness, body size, work rate, breathing pattern The ensemble of equipment referred to as Level A protection is generally the minimum level recommended for an initial entry until the site hazards have been further identified.! - √AnswerTrue Level D protective ensembles provide no protection to a worker at all. - √AnswerFalse Class C helmets provide protection for which of the following? - √AnswerImpact hazards, limited chemical The following protective equipment is required for a worker handling toxic chemicals that when dispensed or handled may splash. - √AnswerAll of the answers are correct Employers must provide training to employees who are required to use PPE. This training must include all of the following except which of the following? - √AnswerHow to purchase cost-effective PPE Safety shoes and boots worn when working in areas where there is a danger of foot injuries must comply with which of the following organization specifications? - √AnswerANSI Class G (formerly A) helmets provide impact and penetration resistance as well as protection from: - √AnswerLow-voltage electrical hazards (2,200 volts) Class E (formerly B) helmets can provide electrical protection from high-voltage conductors and are proof-tested to 20,000 volts. - √AnswerTrue Which three different types of hand hazards can be avoided by wearing hand protection? - √AnswerChemical hazards, cut hazards, thermal hazards Wearing Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) prevents which route of exposure to hazardous materials?! - √AnswerSkin A correctly designed Health and Safety Plan provides procedures for the selection of PPE or a combination of PPE components (respirator & canister, gloves, clothing, etc.) that will protect the wearer ___. - √AnswerAgainst specific agents as determined for a definite job Each type of protective clothing has a specific purpose as well as certain limitations. - √AnswerTrue Which of the following site zones is considered to be most contaminated? - √AnswerExclusion Zone Which one of the following is true about the buddy system? - √AnswerIt should be used when working in the Exclusion Zone What is the function of the Contamination Reduction Zone? - √AnswerAll of the answers are correct Which of the following is not true of the Support Zone? - √AnswerShould be as close to the Exclusion Zone as possible The most important reason to set up "work zones" at a waste site is ____. - √AnswerTo isolate a hazardous area and lessen the risk to the public and waste site workers Site Control Preparation includes all of the following except ____.: - √AnswerDeveloping a sampling plan When should a site map be developed? - √AnswerPrior to initial site entry Which of the following zones is considered to be least contaminated? - √AnswerSupport Zone The exclusion zone is an area that is least contaminated and does not require special PPE to enter. - √AnswerFalse The hot line can be described by which of the following? - √AnswerThe point where the worker enters or leaves an exclusion zone The following facilities are located in the Support Zone. - √AnswerCommand post, worker rest area, medical station Site security should provide all of the following except? - √AnswerPrevent increased hazards Which is the highest priority during an emergency decontamination involving a chemically contaminated worker who is seriously injured? - √AnswerImmediate emergency treatment of the victim Which of the following situations is the hardest to remove during decontamination? - √AnswerChemicals permeated into PPE material What is the minimum level of protection that decontamination personnel should wear during decontamination of returning field personnel? - √AnswerOne level lower protection as workers in the Exclusion Zone The best decontamination procedure is which of the following? - √AnswerNot to get contaminated at all The decontamination procedure discussed in class has how many steps? - √Answer6 steps Decontamination takes place in which of the following zones? - √AnswerContamination Reduction Zone A Responder's PPE apparel may become contaminated while working at a hazardous substance incident by which of the following? - √AnswerAll of the answers are correct Decontamination of equipment and PPE is generally not dependent on which of the following? - √AnswerThe overall cost The most important factor to consider when deciding upon decontamination methods is which of the following? - √AnswerThe type of contaminant involved A low pressure warning alarm sounds on a SCBA unit, what should the worker do? - √AnswerSignal your partner and get out of the hazard area as soon as possible Decontamination procedures must be developed and implemented ___. - √AnswerBefore anyone enters a hot zone work site A decontamination plan will have which of the following elements? - √AnswerMethods and procedures, type of decon station, disposal methods, written plan Which is the highest priority during an emergency decontamination involving a chemically contaminated worker who has minor injuries? - √AnswerDecontamination of the injured worker before transportation to the hospital Encapsulated suits should be checked for deficiencies before they are used - √AnswerTrue Protective clothing and respirators can help prevent worker contamination - √AnswerTrue In an emergency the primary concern is the protection of property - √AnswerFalse The following are all types of air sampling devices except for which of the following? - √AnswerNoise dosimeter Using a combination combustible gas (CGI) indicator and O2 monitor calibrated for normal oxygen content at sea level, the following readings are observed: O2 = 13.5%, percent LEL = 9%. Which of the following is true regarding the CGI reading? - √AnswerDue to an oxygen deficient atmosphere, the actual concentration of flammable gas is higher than indicated by the meter. An oxygen atmosphere of less than ___ is considered "oxygen deficient" by OSHA standards. 23% - √Answer19.5% If a direct reading instrument indicates the air is 25 percent of the LEL, then you should. - √AnswerLeave the work area immediately A primary purpose of a CGI is to detect which of the following? - √AnswerFlammable atmospheres Colorimetric tubes designed to be used for a specific chemical can be affected by other chemicals present.! - √AnswerTrue Flame ionization detectors are generally used to detect and measure organic compounds. - √AnswerTrue Selectivity (specificity) is the ability of an instrument to detect and measure a specific chemical or class of chemicals. - √AnswerTrue The LEL value is the explosive limit at the upper concentration of a flammable compound. - √AnswerFalse Sampling techniques can include both area and personal sampling. - √AnswerTrue Temperature, ambient pressure, and humidity have no effect on the accuracy of results for active sampling. - √AnswerFalse An integrated sample is collected when the results will be compared to an OSHA PEL. - √AnswerTrue Calibration is required for stain indicator tubes. - √AnswerFalse The oxygen content of normal air at sea level is approximately 20.9 percent and the partial pressure of oxygen is 159 mm Hg. - √AnswerTrue An scintillation radiation monitoring instrument can detect Alpha radiation. - √AnswerTrue Data obtained from air monitoring instruments is not useful for which of the following? - √AnswerDetermining which brand of respirator will be used by a worker Two types of personal sampling systems are which of the following?! - √AnswerPassive sampling & Active sampling What Subpart under OSHA standards contains at least 28 substances and requires a personal sampling plan to be initiated for waste site workers? - √AnswerSubpart Z In addition to mechanical pumps, what else is required in order to get active sampling system results?! - √AnswerA laboratory to analyze collection media The following may be used for passive sampling except for which one? - √AnswerAir pump-sample medium samplers Advantages of passive samplers include all except which of the following? - √AnswerA pump is required Radiation dosimeters only detect alpha and beta radiation. - √AnswerFalse Temperature and humidity have no effect on the accuracy (results) of passive samplers. - √AnswerFalse Calibration is required for all personal monitors. - √AnswerFalse Personal dosimeters must always be direct reading. - √AnswerFalse Passive samplers are all direct reading. - √AnswerFalse Which of the following should be avoided while sampling drums? - √AnswerLeaning over one drum to reach another A sampling plan has all of the following elements except for which of the following? - √AnswerEmergency spill response information Generally samples should be kept at ____ until they are sent to the lab.! - √Answer4° C Air monitoring is required during which of the following? - √AnswerUntil site cleanup is complete Sampling drums requires which of the following? - √AnswerFollow a carefully documented plan Drums that are suspected of having very flammable or contact detonation chemicals should be opened with which of the following type of tools? - √AnswerBrass Sample labels should have which of the following? - √AnswerDate & time, preservative, name of person, analysis, sample ID A sample is considered not to be in a person's custody if it is: - √AnswerOut of view and unsecure Chain of custody standard operating procedures do not apply to environmental sampling procedures. - √AnswerFalse Sample locations do not need to be logged into an official site document. - √AnswerFalse Over pumping a well can alter groundwater flow or affect the movement of contaminants. - √AnswerTrue Sampling can be one of the most dangerous activities on a hazardous waste site. The process of opening and sampling a hazardous waste container may place workers in direct contact with unidentified waste. - √AnswerTrue The volume of purged water to be removed should be specified in the sampling plan. An alternative to volume-based removal is to monitor the water level, temperature, conductivity, and pH, as the well is purged. - √AnswerTrue Drum and container sampling is not a hazardous activities to a worker's safety and health because it involves sampling of materials that are contained. - √AnswerFalse A COLIWASA is a devise used to collect a sample of hazardous wastes, liquids, slurry- type sludge's and semi-solids from drums. - √AnswerTrue Wells may be purged using a variety of equipment, including a gas pressure displacement system, a submersible pump, and a peristaltic pump. - √AnswerTrue A split spoon sampler is generally used to sample liquids - √AnswerFalse Samples taken from within the Exclusion Zone do not follow a written sampling plan. - √AnswerFalse Lockout/Tagout procedures provide the worker protection from which of the following? - √AnswerMechanical hydraulic equipment failures The contents of a drum have not been identified and you notice crystalline material on top of the drum. You should treat the contents as which of the following?! - √AnswerShock sensitive All of the following are site conditions that need to be addressed prior to beginning an excavation project except which one? - √AnswerBuilding structure type The following are methods of protecting workers in excavations except which one of the following? - √AnswerFencing When employees are required to work in a trench excavation 4 feet deep or deeper, OSHA regulations require ladders, steps, or other safe means of egress to be provided. - √AnswerEvery 25 feet of lateral travel OSHA's standards for trenching and excavation can be found in which of the following? - √Answer29 CFR 1926.650 According to OSHA, employers are responsible for which of the following? - √AnswerAll of the answers are correct A primary hazard that kills or injuries most workers in excavation work is ___. - √AnswerCave-ins An excavation deeper than 20 feet must have the approval of which of the following? - √AnswerA professional engineer The types of soils evaluated to ensure that excavations are as safe as possible is which of the following? - √AnswerType a, type b, type c The excavation slope angle for all classification of soils is the same. - √AnswerFalse According to OSHA construction standards, a trench is a narrow excavation made below the surface of the ground in which the depth is greater that the width, the width does not exceed 15 feet.! - √AnswerTrue Soil mechanics is important to consider before designing protective systems such as benching, sloping, and shoring.! - √AnswerTrue According to OSHA, the employer is responsible for providing safe access and egress from excavations. - √AnswerTrue A competent person must have specific training, must be capable of identifying hazards, and authorized to immediately eliminate hazards and must have the authority to take appropriate corrective actions. - √AnswerTrue A responsibility of a competent person does not include being present when workers are in a trench. - √AnswerFalse During an on-site emergency, which of the following is the best evacuation procedure - √AnswerUpwind at a designated mustering site that is independent of the type and amount of chemical released At all hazardous material spill response situations, which of the following has the highest priority? - √AnswerProtection of human health, life, and safety Whenever possible, response to a hazardous materials release should always be from? - √AnswerUpwind Site evacuation routes should exclude which of the following? - √AnswerRoutes should be downwind from the site as much as possible Which of the following should not be kept at the on-site safety station? - √AnswerFood supplies Emergency response plans should address elements that include the following except. - √AnswerSite security and control, safe distance & refuge, configuration of chemical laboratory It is important for responders to gather as much information as feasible for the hazardous material that is involved in an accident before taking further action because? - √AnswerAll of the answers are correct The site log showing who has entered/exited the hazardous waste site is a key document because of which of the following? - √AnswerIt provides the project team leader with the information of who is still "on site" in an emergency The following emergency response procedures are required by 29 CFR 1910.120 except which one? - √AnswerHazardous chemical compatibility storage in the laboratory The safety officer is usually found near which of the following? - √AnswerContamination Reduction Zone Which one of the following is not used to minimize spills? - √AnswerPPE Factors that influence a safe distance from a hazardous spill emergency are which of the following? - √AnswerRate of release, wind speed, quantity released, toxicological properties During an emergency response many of the following may be acceptable practices with the exception of which one? - √AnswerKeeping work activities going as usual During a hazardous material spill response time is critical to contain the spill, so it is proper according to safe procedures that any available personnel should respond immediately to contain the spill. - √AnswerFalse In addition to planning escape routes, reassemble areas should be identified in order to account for personnel.! - √AnswerTrue Over-pack drum and salvage drum nomenclature can be interchanged because there is no difference between the two drums - √AnswerFalse Training for requirements for on-site emergency personnel should include first aid and CPR. - √AnswerTrue Site control is not necessary when an uncontrolled hazardous spill occurs resulting in an emergency. - √AnswerFalse