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A comprehensive set of questions and answers related to the hazwoper (hazardous waste operations and emergency response) final exam. It covers a wide range of topics, including osha regulations, hazard identification, personal protective equipment (ppe), decontamination procedures, record-keeping requirements, and emergency response planning. Designed to help individuals prepare for the hazwoper final exam by providing them with a thorough understanding of the key concepts and requirements. The questions and answers are presented in a clear and concise manner, making it easy for the reader to identify and understand the correct responses. This document could be particularly useful for individuals working in hazardous waste operations, emergency response, or related fields, as well as for students enrolled in courses or programs that cover hazwoper-related topics.
Typology: Exams
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OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard applies to all hazardous waste operations. True or False - Correct Answer-False Which of the following is not an employee right under OSHA? - Correct Answer-To shut down a work site you believe is unsafe. What is the Part in the following OSHA regulatory citation?29 CFR 1910.120 - Correct Answer- Which federal law contains most of the regulatory requirements for the management of hazardous waste? - Correct Answer-RCRA To provide a worker protection from exposure to hazards, the recommended first choice is to utilize - Correct Answer-Engineering Controls Which governmental body has the primary responsibility for safety at a hazardous waste site? - Correct Answer-OSHA For initial site entry into a hazardous waste site, how many members should the entry team consist of? - Correct Answer-At least 4 Perimeter reconnaissance requires that those performing this task be suited up in the highest level of protection. True or False - Correct Answer-False What is the recommended minimum level of protection for the entry team performing an initial site survey where the site hazards are unknown? - Correct Answer-Level B Emergency personnel should be on standby only after the initial entry team encounters problems on the site. True or False - Correct Answer-False Identify three different resources you might utilize to identify site hazards prior to site entry by personnel. - Correct Answer-Interviews, Record research, Perimeter reconnaissance ACGIH defines Short-Term Exposure Limit (STEL) as a 15-minute TWA exposure that should not be exceeded at any time during the workday without the proper protective measures. A waste-site worker uses the STEL to protect himself/herself by - Correct Answer-Realizing low STEL values represent more toxic chemicals Legally enforceable exposure levels are established by____. - Correct Answer-OSHA
TLV is an acronym for - Correct Answer-Threshold limit value A chemical that deprives the victim's body tissues of oxygen is a/an - Correct Answer- asphyxiant What type of airborne hazard probably results from grinding clean, dry metal parts? - Correct Answer-Dust (particulates) Damages genes in sperm and egg cells - Correct Answer-Mutagen Being struck by an object or moving machine part would be considered a - Correct Answer-physical hazard Risk can be defined as - Correct Answer-a measure of the probability and severity of a hazard Chemicals that support combustion in organic materials through the release of oxygen or other gases - Correct Answer-Oxidizer A chemical that will ignite spontaneously in air - Correct Answer-Pyrophoric The acronym HASP refers to - Correct Answer-health and safety program Below which level in air does OSHA define an area to be oxygen deficient? - Correct Answer-19.5% Human blood spilled on a work site is considered a _______ hazard. - Correct Answer- biologic What is the definition of a corrosive class chemical? - Correct Answer-A chemical that causes visible destruction of or irreversible alterations in living tissue at the site of contact. If an MSDS shows a material has a pH of 12.5 this material would be considered - Correct Answer-Basic What are the three elements of the fire triangle? - Correct Answer-Ignition source, fuel, oxygen Flash point is expressed as the lowest concentration in air that will burn. True or False - Correct Answer-False What is the definition of specific gravity? - Correct Answer-A measure that indicates whether a substance will sink or float in water.
Gases and vapors that are heavier than air pose a threat because? - Correct Answer- they can displace air especially in low lying areas Hydrogen gas burns between (approximately) 4% and 75% concentration in air. This represents the: - Correct Answer-flammable range An MSDS tells us that a material has a specific gravity of 3.0. This measure tells us the substance will - Correct Answer-sink in water Which of the following forms of radiation will generally not penetrate intact skin but can be a serious hazard if ingested or inhaled? - Correct Answer-Alpha Chronic effects of radiation exposure include - Correct Answer-Cancer and cataracts The acronym ALARA stands for - Correct Answer-As Low As Reasonably Achievable Three basic radiation principles used to reduce exposure to ionizing radiation are - Correct Answer-Time, distance, shielding Staying up wind from a source of radiation will always protect you. True or False - Correct Answer-False When measuring radiation exposure, the unit of "rad" refers to: - Correct Answer- radiation absorbed dose The inverse square law states - Correct Answer-the radiation dose rate changes inversely by the square of the change in the distance from the source Positive-pressure atmosphere-supplying respirators are designed to maintain a positive pressure in the facepiece during both inhalation and exhalation. True or False - Correct Answer-True Which type of respirator has the highest protection factor? - Correct Answer-SCBA MUL stands for - Correct Answer-Maximum use limit Respirator fit-testing must be performed each time a respirator is donned. True or False
The primary purpose of fit testing is to identify the specific model, make, and size respirator best suited for each person. True or False - Correct Answer-True Chemical entry into a garment through pinholes is an example of: - Correct Answer- penetration The process by which a chemical dissolves or moves through a protective clothing material on a molecular level without destruction is defined as _____. - Correct Answer- permeation The primary difference between Level A and Level B PPE is the degree of _____. - Correct Answer-splash and vapor protection Which term refers to the removal of PPE? - Correct Answer-doffing Chemical protective clothing inspection is not necessary for brand-new PPE. True or False - Correct Answer-False Wearing Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC), such as chemical gloves, prevents what route of exposure to hazardous materials? - Correct Answer-skin absorption Most of OSHA's General Industry PPE standards are found: - Correct Answer-between the sections of 29 CFR 1910.132 through 29 CFR 1910. What three different types of hand hazards can be avoided by wearing hand protection?
What is the minimum level of protection that decontamination personnel should wear? - Correct Answer-One level lower protection as workers in the Exclusion Zone Decontamination takes place in ____. - Correct Answer-The Contamination Reduction Zone Which is the highest priority during an emergency decontamination involving a chemically contaminated worker who has life-threatening injuries? - Correct Answer- Immediate emergency treatment of the victim Decontamination procedures must be developed and implemented _____. - Correct Answer-Before anyone enters a site The physician that performs the medical examinations must be experienced or board certified in occupational health. True or False - Correct Answer-True Under the record keeping requirements of the OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard, the employer must maintain and preserve medical records of a worker's exposure to hazardous materials for what period of time? - Correct Answer-For the term of employment, plus 30 years According to the OSHA requirements, how often should a waste site worker be examined by a physician. - Correct Answer-Upon starting a job, on a periodic basis; following appearance of symptoms that indicate exposure; and upon termination from that particular job. The employer can require that workers take a pre-placement medical examination as a condition of employment. True or False - Correct Answer-True What is the primary purpose of a medical surveillance program? - Correct Answer- Assess and monitor a worker's health before employment as well as during the course of employment. A direct reading instrument typically gives a reading based on a(n) _____. - Correct Answer-instantaneous reading You enter a storage room. Your "O2 meter" indicates 25% oxygen. Is this a problem? - Correct Answer-Yes, the flammable levels could be different. A photoionization detector uses what to ionize compounds so they can be detected? - Correct Answer-UV light ______________ is the ability of an instrument to detect and measure a specific chemical or group of chemicals. - Correct Answer-Selectivity
Personal dosimeters must always be direct reading. True or False - Correct Answer- False The meter of a combustible gas indicator(CGI) reads in________. - Correct Answer-% of the LEL Active sampling systems usually require that a sample is analyzed in a laboratory. True or False - Correct Answer-True What Subpart under OSHA standards contains the 28 substances that require a personal sampling plan to be initiated for waste site workers? - Correct Answer-Subpart Z Which of the following types of radiation dosimeters are commonly used to maintain a permanent record of an individual's dose of radiation? - Correct Answer-TLD Over pumping a well can alter ground water flow or affect the movement of contaminants. True or False - Correct Answer-True Samples should be kept at _____ until they are sent to a lab. - Correct Answer- degrees C Decontamination of equipment that will be used for sampling purposes follows the same decontamination procedures of equipment and PPE. True or False - Correct Answer- False If a drum exhibits radiation levels above background, then you should _____. - Correct Answer-Immediately contact a health physicist Standing orders at a hazardous waste site _____. - Correct Answer-Should be reviewed with the field crew at the beginning of each workday Most of OSHA's regulations dealing with walking & working surfaces are found in: - Correct Answer-Subpart D in 29 CFR 1910 "Overpacking" is a term used to describe the act of ____. - Correct Answer-Placing one drum inside another The large diamond-shaped DOT signs found on the outside of a highway transport truck are called ____. - Correct Answer-Placards The OSHA definition for a confined space includes: - Correct Answer-limited means of entry and exit. Rescue workers must have a permit to enter a confined space. True or False - Correct Answer-False
Whose job responsibility is it to summon emergency medical assistance in the event of a medical problem in a confined space? - Correct Answer-Attendant The types of atmospheric testing will be the same for every confined space. True or False - Correct Answer-False When employees are required to work in a trench excavation 4 feet deep or more, OSHA regulations require ladders, steps, or other safe means of egress to be provided ____. - Correct Answer-Every 25 feet of lateral travel OSHA's standards for trenching and excavation can be found in ____. - Correct Answer-29 CFR 1926. According to OSHA construction standards, a trench is a narrow excavation made below the surface of the ground in which the depth is greater that the width, the width not exceeding 15 feet. True or False - Correct Answer-True An employer is required to provide a means of entering and exiting an excavation four feet deep or deeper such as ladders, steps, ramps, etc. This means of entering and exiting is referred to as _____. - Correct Answer-access and egress The only structural systems that are allowed to be used in excavations are pre- constructed units, such as trench boxes. True or False - Correct Answer-False During an on-site emergency a safe evacuation distance is ____. - Correct Answer- Dependant upon the type and amount of chemical released In addition to planning escape routes, you should also identify reassemble points for personnel accountability purposes True or False - Correct Answer-True The site log showing who has entered/exited the hazardous waste site is a key document because _____. - Correct Answer-It lets the project team leader know who is still "on site" in an emergency