HESI Exam Q&A Correct | Verified and Rated Latest 2024 Graded A+, Exams of Nursing

Download HESI Exam Q&A Correct | Verified and Rated Latest 2024 Graded A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ NCLEX LEADERSHIP 300 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2024 LATEST UPDATED ACTUAL EXAM GRADED 100 % PASS  An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting: A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate. B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate. D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.  A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add? A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level  Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent and says he’s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client’s care, the most appropriate intervention would be to: A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality. B. Provide time for privacy. C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other. D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.  during a class on exercise for diabetic clients, a female client asks the nurse educator how often to exercise. The nurse educator advises the clients to exercise how often to meet the goals of planned exercise? A. At least once a week B. At least three times a week NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ diet.” C. “It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.” D. “Your insulin regimen needs to be altered significantly.”  Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia shown by which of the following? A. Muscle weakness B. Tremors C. Diaphoresis D. Constipation  Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s). A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins B. The icteric stage: Flu like symptoms occur C. The prehistoric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels D. The post icteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occurs  Which nursing diagnosis is the most commonly used among patients who are affected with fibromyalgia? A. Decreased self-care in the activities of daily living related to fatigue B. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances C. Increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ D. At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia  Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors? A. Social demographic B. Environmental C. Biophysical D. Psychosocial  Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of: A. 1 in 85 births. B. 1 in 5400 births. C. 1 in 2700 births. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ D. 1 in 540 births.  When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion? A. Inevitable B. Missed C. Habitual D. Habitual  Your long-term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely to be affected with? A. Drug addiction B. Drug interactions C. Drug side effects D. Drug tolerance  The normal sodium level in the body is: A. 135 to 145 milliequivalents. B. 3 to 5 milliequivalents. C. 135 to 145 micro equivalents. D. 3 to 5 micro equivalents. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ D. Acne vulgaris  You have just learned that another nurse was fired for taking photographs of patients without their permission using a cell phone and posting them on Face book. This nurse was fired because the nurse has: A. Violated the law B. Acted in a negligent manner C. Not completed the proper documentation D. Violated an ethical principle  Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn’s disease? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ A. Crohn’s disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum and ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum. B. Crohn’s disease presents with shallow ulcerations and ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining. C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn’s disease and it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis. D. Crohn’s disease has primarily mucosal involvement and it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.  Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II? A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block D. Complete heart block  A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level? A. Alcoholism B. Renal insufficiency C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Tumor lysis syndrome  The nurse provides instructions to a client with a low magnesium level about the foods NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ that are high in magnesium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select all that apply. A. Peas B. Oranges C. Cauliflower D. Peanut butter E. Canned white tuna  A patient is admitted to the emergency department with hypovolemia. Which IV solution should the nurse anticipate administering? 1. 3% sodium chloride 2. 10% dextrose in water 3. 0.45% sodium chloride 4. Lactated Ringer's solution . 275. Which manifestation should the nurse expect to assess in a patient with fluid volume deficit? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+  For a male client with hyperglycemia, which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume? A. Cool, clammy skin B. Distended neck veins C. Increased urine osmolarity D. Decreased serum sodium level  When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamine, Nurse April is most likely to detect: A. a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. B. a blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl. C. bradycardia. D. a blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg.  A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate? A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered B. Encouraging increased oral intake C. Restricting fluids D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered  A female client has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl. During the physical NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess: A. Trousseau’s sign. B. Homans’ sign. C. Hegar’s sign. D. Goodell’s sign.  Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective? A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day. B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute.  Jemma, who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) and has been diagnosed with hyperglycemia tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps him awake. The nurse notices that she has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which of the following would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client’s hyperglycemia? A. Acromegaly B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Deficient growth hormone  Nurse Kate is providing dietary instructions to a male client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend: A. Increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon. B. Increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements. C. Eating a candy bar if lightheadedness occurs. D. Consuming a low-carbohydrate, high protein diet and avoiding fasting.  An incoherent female client with a history of hypothyroidism is brought to the emergency department by the rescue squad. Physical and laboratory findings reveal hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension, and NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ B. “You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery.” C. “You won’t be able to swallow for the first day or two.” D. “You must avoid hyper extending your neck after surgery.”  Nurse Ronn is assessing a client with possible Cushing’s syndrome. In a client with Cushing’s syndrome, the nurse would expect to find: A. Hypotension. B. Thick, coarse skin. C. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area. D. Weight gain in arms and legs.  A male client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should nurse Lina provide? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ A. “Administer desmopressin while the suspension is cold.” B. “Your condition isn’t chronic, so you won’t need to wear a medical identification bracelet.” C. “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.” D. “You won’t need to monitor your fluid intake and output after you start taking desmopressin.”  Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek’s sign indicate? A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypermagnesemia  In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing’s syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in: A. Serum glucose level. B. Hair loss. C. Bone mineralization. D. Menstrual flow.  A male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor. Dr. Wong prescribes corticotropin (Acthar), 20 units I.M. q.i.d. as a replacement therapy. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs. B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions. C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.  Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which he receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the doses: NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. Weight loss D. Polyuria  A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer: A. phentolamine (Regitine). B. methyldopa (Aldomet). C. mannitol (Osmitrol). D. felodipine (Plendil).  A male client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands? A. Adrenal cortex B. Pancreas C. Adrenal medulla D. Parathyroid  Nurse Troy is aware that the most appropriate for a client with Addison’s disease? A. Risk for infection NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ B. Excessive fluid volume C. Urinary retention D. Hypothermia  Acarbose (Precose), an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During discharge planning, nurse Pauleen would be aware of the client’s need for additional teaching when the client states: A. “If I have hypoglycemia, I should eat some sugar, not dextrose.” B. “The drug makes my pancreas release more insulin.” C. “I should never take insulin while I’m taking this drug.” D. “It’s best if I take the drug with the first bite of a meal.”  A female client whose physical findings suggest a hyper pituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, which necessitates NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, Nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions given to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize? A. “You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.” B. “You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.” C. “You must restrict your fluid intake.” D. “You must report ringing in your ears immediately.”  Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide? A. “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.” B. “Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly.” C. “You won’t need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.” D. “Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn.”  For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client? A. They contain exudates and provide a moist wound environment. B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+  Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client, then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon? A. Oral anticoagulants B. Anabolic steroids C. Beta-adrenergic blockers D. Thiazide diuretics  Which instruction about insulin administration should Nurse Kate give to a client? A. “Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe.” B. “Shake the vials before withdrawing the insulin.” NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. “Store unopened vials of insulin in the freezer at temperatures well below freezing.” D. “Discard the intermediate-acting insulin if it appears cloudy.”  Nurse Perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer: A. I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon. B. I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%. C. 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice. D. 10 U of fast-acting insulin.  For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the female client for Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign because they indicate which of the following? A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 51) Knowing that gluconeogenesis helps to maintain blood levels, a nurse should: 1. Document weight changes because of fatty acid mobilization NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 2. Evaluate the patient’s sensitivity to low room temperatures because of decreased adipose tissue insulation 3. Protect the patient from sources of infection because of decreased cellular protein deposits 4. Do all of the above 52. Clinical manifestations associated with a diagnosis of type 1 DM include all of the following except: 1. Hypoglycemia 2. Hyponatremia 3. Ketonuria 4. Polyphagia NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 3. 50-60% 4. 85-90% 58. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of: 1. 1130 and 1330 2. 1330 and 1930 3. 1530 and 2130 4. 1730 and 2330 59. A bedtime snack is provided for Albert. This is based on the knowledge that intermediate- acting insulins are effective for an approximate duration of: 1. 6-8 hours 2. 10-14 hours 3. 16- 20 hours 4. 24-28 hours NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 60. Albert refuses his bedtime snack. This should alert the nurse to assess for: 1. Elevated serum bicarbonate and a decreased blood pH. 2. Signs of hypoglycemia earlier than expected. 3. Symptoms of hyperglycemia during the peak time of NPH insulin. 4. Sugar in the urine 61. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is: 1. 2-4 hours after administration 2. 6-14 hours after administration 3. 16-18 hours after administration NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 4. 18-24 hours after administration 62. An external insulin pump is prescribed for a client with DM. The client asks the nurse about the functioning of the pump. The nurse bases the response on the information that the pump: 1. Gives small continuous dose of regular insulin subcutaneously, and the client can self- administer a bolus with an additional dosage from the pump before each meal. 2. Is timed to release programmed doses of regular or NPH insulin into the bloodstream at specific intervals. 3. Is surgically attached to the pancreas and infuses regular insulin into the pancreas, which in turn releases the insulin into the bloodstream. 4. Continuously infuses small amounts of NPH insulin into the bloodstream while regularly monitoring blood glucose levels. 63. A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in the ER. Which finding would a nurse expect to note as confirming this diagnosis? 1. Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma bicarbonate 2. Decreased urine output 3. Increased respirations and an increase in pH 4. Comatose state NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 68. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicated an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise? 1. “The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.” 2. “The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.” 3. “The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.” 4. “The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.” 69. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client’s diabetes previously had been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the clients regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 1. Prednisone (Deltasone) 2. Atenolol (Tenormin) 3. Phenelzine (Nardil) 4. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) 70. Glucose is an important molecule in a cell because this molecule is primarily used for: 1. Extraction of energy 2. Synthesis of protein 3. Building of genetic material 4. Formation of cell membranes. 71. When a client is first admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), the nurse’s priority is to provide: 1. Oxygen 2. Carbohydrates 3. Fluid replacement 4. Dietary instruction NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 72. The nurse is admitting a client with hypoglycemia. Identify the signs and symptoms the nurse should expect. Select all that apply. 1. Thirst 2. Palpitations 3. Diaphoresis 4. Slurred speech 5. Hyperventilation 73. When a client is in diabetic ketoacidosis, the insulin that would be administered is: 1. Human NPH insulin 2. Human regular insulin NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ c. Infertility d. Weight Loss 79. Women with PCOS are at increased risk for all of the following except: a. Pregnancy b. Diabetes c. Cardiovascular disease d. Metabolic syndrome 80. All of the following organs may be affected by multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 except: a. Parathyroid glands b. Kidneys c. Pancreas and Duodenum d. Pituitary gland 81. What is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism? a. Synthetic thyroid hormone b. Desiccated thyroid hormone c. Surgical removal of the glands d. Calcium and phosphate 82. The most common causes of death in people with cystic fibrosis is: a. Dehydration b. Opportunistic infection NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ c. Lung cancer d. Respiratory failure 83. Untreated hyperthyroidism during pregnancy may result in all of the following except: a. Premature birth and miscarriage b. Low birth weight c. Autism d. Preeclampsia 84. Short stature and undeveloped ovaries suggest which of the following disorders: a. Polycystic ovarian syndrome b. Prolactinoma c. Grave's disease d. Turner syndrome NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 85. Endocrine disorders may be triggered by all of the following except: a. Stress b. Infection c. Chemicals in the food chain and environment d. Cell phone use 86. An analysis of data from the Women's Health Initiative questioned the use of which therapy to prevent heart disease? a. Synthetic thyroid hormone b. Oral contraceptives c. Weight-loss drugs d. Postmenopausal hormone replacement therapy 87. The parathyroid glands play a major role in regulating which substances? A. Calcium and Phosphorus B. Chloride and potassium C. Potassium and calcium D. Sodium and potassium a. Calcium and Phosphorus 88. The primary function of insulin is to: A. Lower blood glucose levels B. Produce melanin C. regulate the body’s metabolic rate D. stimulate release of digestive enzymes NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ a. iodine b. aceton e c.alcohol d. glucose 95. A nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. Which of the following nursing considerations should be employed when caring for this client? a. avoid sodium in the clients diet b. monitor and protect skin integrity c. document the specific gravity of urine d. monitor increases in blood pressure 96. A nurse is assigned to care for and monitor any complications in a 40 yr client with chronic diabetes. Which of the following is a macrovascular complication of diabetes? a. neuropathy NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ b. retinopathy c. nephropathy d. Arteriosclerosis 97. A nurse is instructing a 50yr diabetic client about the steps to be followed for self admin of insulin. Which of the following instructions should be included in the client teaching? a. instruct client to avoid injections to the abdomen b. encourage client to always inject insulin in the same site c. inform client about the type of syringe to use d. encourage client to do active exercise after injection 98. A nurse is preparing a diet plan for a 50yr with simple goiter. Which of the following should be included in the client’s diet to decrease the enlargement of the thyroid gland? a. iodine b. sodium c. potassium d. calcium 99. A nurse is caring for a 60yr client affected with hypoparathyroidism. When checking the lab report, the nurse finds the clients’ calcium level was very low. Which of the following vitamins regulates the calcium level in the body? a. A b. D c. E NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ d. K 100. A client presents to the emergency room with a history of Graves' disease. The client reports having symptoms for a few days, but has not previously sought or received any additional treatment. The client also reports having had a cold a few days back. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate to implement for this client, based on the history and current symptoms? Select all that apply. A. Administer aspirin B. Replace intravenous fluids C. Induce shivering D. Relieve respiratory distress NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 105. What can help reduce a patient’s anxiety and postsurgical pain? A. Preoperative teaching B. Preoperative checklist C. Psychological counseling D. Preoperative medication 106. Which disease decreases the metabolic rate? A. Cancer B. Hypothyroidism C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Cardiac failure 107. When caring for an infant during cardiac arrests, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function? A. Carotid B. Brachial C. Pedal D. Radial 108. The patient should be sitting when deep breathing and coughing because this position: NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ A. Is physically more comfortable for the patient B. Helps the patient to support their incision with a pillow C. Loosens respiratory secretions D. Allows the patient to observe their area and relax 109. Which procedures necessitate the use of surgical asepsis techniques? Select all that apply. A. Intramuscular medication administration B. Central line intravenous medication administration C. Donning gloves in the operating room D. Neonatal bathing NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ E. Foley catheter insertion F. Emptying a urinary drainage bag 110. What is the ultimate purpose and goal of performance improvement activities? A. To increase efficiency B. To contain costs C. To improve processes D. To improve policies 111. The primary difference between practical nursing licensure and a nursing certification in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is: A. Insures competency and a nursing certification validates years of experience. B. Mandated by the American Nurses Association and a nursing certification are not. C. Is legally mandated by the states and a nursing certification is not. D. Renewed every two years and a nursing certification is renewed every five years. 112. What intervention is the best to relieve constipation during pregnancy? A. Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables B. Taking a mild over-the-counter laxative C. Lying flat on back when sleeping D. Reduction of iron intake by half or more NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 118. Which nursing theorist believes that most patients are capable of performing self-care? A. Dorothea Orem B. Madeleine Leininger C. Martha Rogers D. Sister Callista Roy 119. What element is minimally assessed during a basic prenatal physical examination? A. Palpation and auscultation of the abdomen B. Examination of the anus and rectum NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. Urinalysis for glucose, protein and ketones D. Visual assessment of cervix and vagina 120. A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is considered a: A. Possible sign of pregnancy. B. Presumptive sign of pregnancy. C. Probable sign of pregnancy. D. Positive sign of pregnancy. 121. Select all of the signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. A. Thickened bodily hair B. Heat intolerance C. Constipation D. Insomnia E. Increased appetite F. Palpitations G. Cold skin 122. During which phase of the nursing process does data get collected and validated with the patient and/or family members by the nurse? A. The implementation phase B. The assessment phase NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. The evaluation phase D. The planning phase 123. Which of the following is the best worded expected outcome? A. “The nurse will provide for adequate hydration” B. “The nurse will insure that the patient is safe” C. “The patient will cough and deep breathe every two hours” D. “The patient will value health” 124. What is a major difference between a problems oriented medical record and a source oriented medical record? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ D. “Cushing’s syndrome often occurs among patients who are chemotherapy.” 128. You are preparing a sterile field for a operating room surgical procedure. When should you stop the preparation of this sterile field? A. When you have placed a sterile item only 1 inch and not 2 inches from the edge of the sterile field B. When you have completely finished the field. You cannot stop the set up until it is all done. C. When you have accidentally poured a sterile liquid into a container that was on the sterile field D. When you turn your upper body only away from the field because the surgeon calls your name 129. Avulsed teeth should be placed in: A. Normal saline. B. Cold water. C. Milk. D. Warm water. 130. You are working in a pediatric unit of the hospital and caring for a six year old boy who is hospitalized with cystic fibrosis and respiratory compromise. Which developmental task is the challenge for this boy at his age? A. To cough, deep breathe and improve respiratory status B. To establish industry and self confidence NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. To develop autonomy and self-control D. To develop initiative and a sense of purpose 131. The embryonic period during pregnancy takes place from: A. Weeks 1 to 12. B Weeks 1 to 10. C.Weeks 3 to 5. D.Weeks 6 to 10. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 132. Place these human needs in order from the greatest priority to the least priority using # 1 as the greatest priority and # 5 as the least of all in terms of priority. A. Self-esteem and esteem by others 4 B. Self-actualization 5 C. Psychological needs 2 D. Love and belonging 3 E. Physiological needs 1 133. During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood? A. 3rd week B. 5th week C. 9th week D. 6th week 134. Which of the following is a vector of infection? A. A contaminated ball B. A contaminated thermometer C. An infected person D. An infectious fly 135. Which oral disorder appears as yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. 6 D. 5 140. Your patient has just returned from the diagnostic imaging department and the doctor has told the patient that they have a Mallory-Weiss tear. The patient asks you what a Mallory- Weiss tear is. How should you respond to this patient? A. “A Mallory-Weiss tear is a kind of diverticulitis.” B. “A Mallory-Weiss tear is an esophageal tear” C. “A Mallory-Weiss tear is a lacrimal gland disorder.” D. “A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear that results from a peptic ulcer.” NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 141. You have been asked to speak at a new nursing assistants' orientation class about infection control and hand washing techniques. What would you include in this teaching? A. Demonstrate the correct one minute hand washing procedure using soap and running water. B. Demonstrate the correct 2 minute hand washing procedure using soap and running water. C. Using hot water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap. D. Using cold water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap. 142. How many minims are contained in 1 milliliter? Between 10-11 12 20 Between 15 or 16 143. Peri wound maceration occurs when: A. The skin around the wound softens and is damaged. B. Selecting a dressing individualized to the type of wound. C. Negative-pressure to “air out” the wound is used. D. The skin around the wound dries out and hardens. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 144. Which patient is at greatest risk for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis? A. A 70-year-old male patient who has liver disease B. A 70-year-old female patient who has liver disease C. A 50-year-old male patient who is Asian D. A 50-year-old female patient who is Asian 145. Select the method of special precautions that is accurately paired with the personal protective equipment that is minimally required in order to prevent the spread of infection. A. Contact precautions: Gowns, gloves and mask B. Droplet precautions: Face mask C. Airborne transmission precautions: Negative pressure room NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ D. The mother does not have a specific marker on her red blood cells. 151. Which cardiac arrhythmia can be either acquired or congenital and can spontaneously disappear on its own or lead to ventricular fibrillation? A. Wenckebach B. Premature arterial contractions C. Torsade de pointes D. Premature ventricular contractions 152. Which quality assurance or performance improvement technique is used to identify underlying process flaws? A. Small group process B. Root cause analysis C. People at fault process D. Cause and effect 153. Which legal document will most likely contain the patient’s decision to not get cardiopulmonary resuscitation? A. Healthcare surrogacy B. Healthcare proxy C. Advance directives NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ D. Durable power of attorney 154. Select the stage of a pressure ulcer that is accurately pair with its characteristics. A. Stage I: Only slight blanching when pressure is applied to the skin. B. Stage II: The epidermis and part of the dermis is damaged or lost. C. Stage III: The wound has slough and eschar. D. Stage IV: The loss of skin usually exposes some fat. 155. You have been assigned to care for a neonate who has been diagnosed with the Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother asks you what the Tetralogy of Fallot is. How should you respond to this mother? A. “The Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital gastrointestinal disorder” NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ B. “The Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital cardiac disorder” C. “The Tetralogy of Fallot will affect the baby’s reflexes” D. “The Tetralogy of Fallot will affect the baby’s ability to breastfeed” 156. The protrusion of an internal organ through a wound or surgical incision is referred to as: A. Serosanguineous. B. Dehiscence. C. Evisceration. D. Exuded. 157. Which pain assessment scale is used exclusively for infants and neonates from 32 weeks of gestation to six months of age? A. The PEPPS pain scale B. The FLACC pain scale C. The Faces pain scale D. The CRIES pain scale 158. Which of the following is a hazard of immobility? A. Loss of bone calcium NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ B. Fine rales C. Rhonchi D. Wheezes 164. Which type of burn leads to the greatest degree of pain? A. A first-degree burn B. A second-degree burn C. A third-degree burn D. A fourth-degree burn 165. Babies should double their birth weight by the: A. 5th to 6th month. B. 3rd to 4th month. C. 4th to 5th month. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ D. 5th to 7th month. 166. Which of the following is best for a client who has difficulty swallowing and chokes frequently? A. A liquid diet. B. Tilting the head back when swallowing. C. Tucking the chin in when swallowing. D. Following each bite with a drink of water. 167. How long can women lactate for? A. Indefinitely B. 12 to 18 months C. 18 to 24 months D. 30 to 36 months 168. Which anatomic malformations are associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot? A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow 169. Your 32-year-old female patient has erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems and skin nodules. What disorder would you most likely suspect based on these signs and symptoms? A. Leukemia B. Histoplasmosis C. Pneumocystis jirovec D. Rheumatoid arthritis NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 175. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding? A. It is normal among adolescents. B. It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system. C. It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system. D. It is not a normal finding. 176. Which patient is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease? A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks 177. Your client is adversely affected with fever, night sweats, occult hematuria, tenderness of the spleen and Osler’s nodes. What disorder would you most likely suspect? A. Tuberculosis B. AIDS/HIV C. Pericarditis D. Endocarditis NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 178. Your pediatric weighs 15.8 kg. How many pounds does this child weigh? A. 36 pounds B. 33.6 pounds C. 35 pounds D. 34.8 pounds 179. An episiotomy is: A. A surgical incision of the perineum to prevent tearing during delivery. B. Releasing the red plug from the cervix just before crowning occurs. C. An incision in the abdomen with which the baby can be delivered through. D. The severance of the umbilical cord between mother and child. 180. How many calories per kilogram does an average full-term infant require when the infants is around 1-2 months old? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ A. 140 calories per kilogram per day B. 120 calories per kilogram per day C. 100 calories per kilogram per day D. 160 calories per kilogram per day 181. What are the six levels of consciousness from the most to the least responsive level of consciousness? Number all six using 1 as the most conscious and 6 as the least conscious. A. Obtunded B. Confused C. Lethargic D. Comatose E. Stuporous F. Alert 182. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic. A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises. B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises. C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens. D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up and metabolic acidosis increases. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from the glaucoma. 188. A cavity containing pus surrounded by inflamed tissue is: A. Cellulitis. B. An abscess. C. Extravasation. D. An adhesion. 189. The doctor has ordered 20 cc an hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set? Fill in the blank. drops per minute. A. 30 drops per minute B. 25 drops per minute NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ C. 20 drops per minute D. 22 drops per minute 190. What does the mnemonic device ABCDE stand for? A. Allergy, bleeding, chemicals, dietary, environment B. Allergy, bleeding, cardio, diabetes, endocrine C. Allergy, bleeding, cardio, digestive, endocrine D. Allergy, bleeding, cortisone, diabetes, emboli 191. Which of the following assessment tools is used to determine the patients’ level of consciousness? A. The Snellen Scale B. The Norton Scale C. The Morse Scale D. The Glasgow Scale 192. Wilms’ tumor is a form of: A. Renal cancer. B. Liver cancer. C. Basal cell carcinoma. D. Brain cancer. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 193. You will be reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient. Which basic principle of teaching should you follow? A. Sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex. B. Assume that the patient knows little or nothing about the topic. C. Tell the patient to call their significant other so you can instruct them. D. Use medically oriented terms so the patient will be able to speak with the doctor. 194. As you are administering penicillin intravenously, you determine that the patient becomes hypotensive and with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first thing that you would do? A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow. B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow. C. Call the doctor. NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ 200. Which statement about adjuvant medications is true and accurate? A. Licensed practical nurses cannot administer adjuvant medications. B. Adjuvant medications are schedule 2 narcotics. C. Adjuvant medications are schedule 1 narcotics. D. Adjuvant medications can be purchased over the counter. 201. Which nonpharmacological technique entails the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms? A. Meditation B. Visualization C. Biofeedback D. Chiropractic 202. Which of the following is considered normal for the neonate? A. Chest Circumference: 10 to 13 inches B. Length: 16 to 22 inches C. Weight: 1,500 to 4,000 g D. Head Circumference: 12.6 to 14.5 inches 203. Your patient has been diagnosed with giant cell arthritis. What medication will this patient most likely be given? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ A. High doses of aspirin B. High doses of prednisone C. Methotrexate D. Albuterol 204. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and: A. Reduces the potential of pain in the wound region or area. B. Stops the spread of infection by way of magnifying the “clean” area. C. Pushes extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue. D. Allows for the introduction of medications in solution form. 205. You are caring for a four-year-old female patient who was severely burned in a house fire. How would you determine the extent of this child’s burns? NURS6050 300 Leadership Questions. Exit HESI EXAM Q&A CORRECT | VERIFIED AND RATED LATEST 2024 GRADED A+ A. By using the Lund and Browder chart B. By using the Rule of Nines C. By using the Rule of Tens D. By using the Parkland Formula 206. Your client has a doctor’s order that reads “advance diet as tolerated”. This client has returned from the recovery room after an appendectomy and he states, “I am hungry”. What would you offer this client to consume? A. Cheese and crackers B. Apple sauce C. Chicken broth D. A peanut butter sandwiches 207. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is: A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). B. Caused by the over production of platelets. C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized with too few platelets. D. Treated with immune system boosting medications. 208. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description. A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin