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HESI Fundamentals 2025 Exam for Herzing University includes 100 accurate and verified questions covering foundational nursing concepts such as the nursing process, patient safety, infection control, basic care and comfort, communication, and ethical practice. Designed to evaluate readiness for clinical practice and NCLEX-style assessments.
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After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, which action should the nurse perform next? A) Determine the etiology of the problem. B) Prioritize nursing care interventions. C) Plan appropriate interventions. D) Collaborate with the client to set goals. - ANSWER-A) Determine the etiology of the problem Rationale; Before planning care, the nurse should determine the etiology, or cause, of the problem (A), because this will help determine (B, C, and D).
The nurse notices that the Hispanic parents of a toddler who returns from surgery offer the child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray. Other liquids, including gelatin, popsicles, and juices, remain untouched. What explanation is most appropriate for this behavior? A) The belief is held that the "evil eye" enters the child if anything cold is ingested. B) After surgery the child probably has refused all foods except broth. C) Eating broth strengthens the child's innate energy called "chi." D) Hot remedies restore balance after surgery, which is considered a "cold" condition. - ANSWER-D) Hot remedies restore balance after surgery, which is considered a "cold" condition Rationale; Common parental practices and health beliefs among Hispanic, Chinese, Filipino, and Arab cultures classify diseases, areas of the body, and illnesses as "hot" or "cold" and must be balanced to maintain health and prevent illness. The perception that surgery is a "cold" condition implies that only "hot" remedies, such as soup, should be used to restore the healthy balance within the body, so (D) is the correct interpretation. (A, B, and C) are not correct interpretations of the noted behavior. "Chi" is a Chinese belief that an innate energy enters and leaves the body via certain locations and pathways and maintains health. The "evil eye," or "mal ojo," is believed by many cultures to be related to the balance of health and illness but is unrelated to dietary practice.
A) Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg. B) Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap. C) Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium. D) Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level. - ANSWER-C) Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium Rationale; The left sided Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and allows the best overall results, so the UAP should reposition the client in the Sims' position, which distributes the client's weight to the anterior ilium (C). (A) is inaccurate. (B and D) should be implemented once the client is positioned The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to administer? A) ½ tablet. B) 1 tablet. C) 1½ tablets. D) 2 tablets. - ANSWER-C) 1½ tablets
An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The nurse knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is A) prone. B) Fowler's. C) Sims'. D) supine - ANSWER-B) Fowler's Rationale; The client should be positioned in a semi-sitting (Fowler's) (B) position during feeding to decrease the occurrence of aspiration. A gastrostomy tube, known as a PEG tube, due to placement by a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy procedure, is inserted directly into the stomach through an incision in the abdomen for long-term administration of nutrition and hydration in the debilitated client. In (A and/or C), the client is placed on the abdomen, an unsafe position for feeding. Placing the client in (D) increases the risk of aspiration A resident in a skilled nursing facility for short-term rehabilitation after a hip replacement tells the nurse, "I don't want any more blood taken for those useless tests." Which narrative documentation should the nurse enter in the client's medical record? A) Healthcare provider notified of failure to collect specimens for prescribed blood studies.
Rationale; The wife is performing the passive ROM correctly, therefore the nurse should acknowledge this fact (A). The joint that is being exercised should be uncovered (B) while the rest of the body should remain covered for warmth and privacy. (C and D) do not provide adequate support to the joint while still allowing for joint movement A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the nurse obtain first? A) Sexual activity patterns. B) Nutritional history. C) Leisure activities. D) Financial stressors - ANSWER-B) Nutritional history Rationale; Caffeine, sugars, and alcohol can lead to increased levels of anxiety, so a nutritional history (C) should be obtained first so that health teaching can be initiated if indicated. (A and C) can be used for stress management. Though (D) can be a source of anxiety, a nutritional history should be obtained first The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?
A) Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate. B) Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin. C) Infuse 10 percent dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr D) Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider. - ANSWER-C) Infuse 10 percent dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr TPN is discontinued gradually to allow the client to adjust to decreased levels of glucose. Administering 10% dextrose in water at the prescribed rate (C) will keep the client from experiencing hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution is available. The client could experience a hypoglycemic reaction if the current level of glucose (A) is not maintained or if the TPN is discontinued abruptly (B). There is no reason to obtain a stat blood glucose level (D) and the healthcare provider cannot do anything about this situation A client is receiving a cephalosporin antibiotic IV and complains of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes erythema, swelling, and a red streak along the vessel above the IV access site. Which action should the nurse take at this time? A) Administer the medication more rapidly using the same IV site. B) Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the medication. C) Notify the healthcare provider before administering the next dose.
A genogram is not a diagnostic tool to detect disorders (D), such as those based on pathological findings or DNA. Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5½ hours. How much heparin has the client received? A) 11,000 units. B) 13,000 units. C) 15,000 units. D) 17,000 units - ANSWER-A) 11,000 units A male client tells the nurse that he does not know where he is or what year it is. What data should the nurse document that is most accurate? A) demonstrates loss of remote memory. B) exhibits expressive dysphasia. C) has a diminished attention span. D) is disoriented to place and time. - ANSWER-D) is disoriented to place and time The client is exhibiting disorientation (D). (A) refers to memory of the distant past. The client is able to express himself without difficulty (B), and does not demonstrate a diminished attention span (C).
An obese male client discusses with the nurse his plans to begin a long- term weight loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management classes. After praising the client for his decision, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide? A) Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program. B) Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level, making you want to eat more. C) Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on a stress management class. D) Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of accomplishment and motivation. - ANSWER-A) Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program The most important teaching is (A), so that the client will not begin a dangerous level of exercise when he is not sufficiently fit. This might result in chest pain, a heart attack, or stroke. (B, C, and D) are important instructions, but are of less priority than (A). At the beginning of the shift, the nurse assesses a client who is admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). When should the nurse document the client's findings?
Interpretation of vital signs is the responsibility of the nurse, so the UAP should report vital sign measurements to the nurse (C). (A, B, and D) require the UAP to interpret the vital signs, which is beyond the scope of the UAP's authority The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? A) 1 ml. B) 1.5 ml. C) 1.75 ml. D) 2 ml. - ANSWER-B) 1.5 ml An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the nurse implement first? A) Reaffirm the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts. B) Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility. C) Prepare the family for the client's impending death. D) Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. - ANSWER-D) Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request
The nurse should first communicate with the healthcare provider (D). Hospice care is provided for clients with a limited life expectancy, which must be identified by the healthcare provider. (A) is not necessary at this time. Once the healthcare provider supports the transfer to hospice care, the nurse can collaborate with the hospice staff and healthcare provider to determine when (B and C) should be implemented The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the nurse that this client understands the dietary restrictions? A) Tossed salad, low-sodium dressing, bacon and tomato sandwich. B) New England clam chowder, no-salt crackers, fresh fruit salad. C) Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. D) Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, a slice of cherry pie. - ANSWER-C) Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream Skim milk, turkey, bread, and ice cream (C), while containing some sodium, are considered low-sodium foods. Bacon (A), canned soups (B), especially those with seafood, hard cheeses, macaroni, and most diet drinks (D) are very high in sodium A client who has been NPO for 3 days is receiving an infusion of D5W 0.45 normal saline (NS) with potassium chloride (KCl) 20 mEq at 83 ml/hour. The client's eight-hour urine output is 400 ml, blood urea
The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of inhalation (B). After the medication is delivered, the client should remove the mouthpiece, keeping his/her lips closed and breath held for several seconds to allow for distribution of the medication. The client should not deliver the dose as stated in (A or D), and should deliver no more than two inhalations at a time (C). A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of discharge, timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? A) 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m. B) 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. C) Before breakfast, before lunch and before dinner. D) With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner. - ANSWER-B) 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule (B) to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. (A, C, and D) do not provide around-the- clock dosing. Food may alter absorption of the medication (D).
Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled grain 1.5 per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse plan to administer? A) 0.5 tablet. B) 1 tablet. C) 1.5 tablets. D) 2 tablets. - ANSWER-B) 1 tablet 15 gr=1 Gm. Converting the prescribed dose of 0.1 grams to grains requires multiplying 0.1 × 15 = 1.5 grains. The tablets come in 1. grains, so the nurse should plan to administer 1 tablet (B). What is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults? A) It is more difficult to find a superficial vein in the feet and ankles. B) A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis. C) A cannulated extremity is more difficult to move when the leg or foot is used. D) Veins are located deep in the feet and ankles, resulting in a more painful procedure - ANSWER-B) A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis
A) Autopsy of the body is prohibited. B) Blood transfusions are forbidden. C) Alcohol use in any form is not allowed. D) A vegetarian diet must be followed - ANSWER-B) Blood transfusions are forbidden Blood transfusions are forbidden (B) in the Jehovah's Witness religion. Judaism prohibits (A). Buddhism forbids the use of (C) and drugs. Many of these sects are vegetarian (D), but the direct impact on nursing care is (B). A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A) Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level. B) Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up. C) Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour. D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match. - ANSWER-D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match All interventions should be implemented prior to administering blood, but (D) has the highest priority. Any time blood is administered, the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction
On admission, a client presents a signed living will that includes a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) prescription. When the client stops breathing, the nurse performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and successfully revives the client. What legal issues could be brought against the nurse? A) Assault. B) Battery. C) Malpractice. D) False imprisonment. - ANSWER-B) Battery Civil laws protect individual rights and include intentional torts, such as assault (an intentional threat to engage in harmful contact with another) or battery (unwanted touching). Performing any procedure against the client's wishes can potentially poise a legal issue, such as battery (B), even if the procedure is of questionable benefit to the client. (A, C, and D) are not examples against the client's request During the daily nursing assessment, a client begins to cry and states that the majority of family and friends have stopped calling and visiting. What action should the nurse take? A) Listen and show interest as the client expresses these feelings. B) Reinforce that this behavior means they were not true friends. C) Ask the healthcare provider for a psychiatric consult.