Human Resource Management Concepts and Practices, Exams of Advanced Education

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SHRM-CP - PRACTICE EXAM

1. A specialized field which works on engineering the work environment is: A. industrial existentialism. B. ergonomics. C. environmentalism. D. engineering design B. ergonomics.
2. A primary advantage of unstructured versus structured interviewing techniques is that: A. structured interviews take less time B. in an unstructured interview, the interviewer can ask follow-up questions and pursue points of interest as they develop C. unstructured interviews are in compliance with EEOC regulations, whereas structured interviews are not D. unstructured interviews are more cost effective B. in an unstructured interview, the interviewer can ask follow-up questions and pursue points of interest as they develop
3. A common repatriation problem for international companies is that: A. repatriation usually precipitates employee grievances B. there is usually high employee turnover following repatriation C. repatriated employees usually demand significantly higher salaries D. repatriated employees generally do not wish to return to the U.S. B. there is usually high employee turnover following repatriation
4. If an OSHA inspector shows up at the workplace, the first step an HR professional should take is: A. check and verify the inspector's credentials B. close the workplace and send the employees home C. deny any violation noted by the inspector D. secure all health and safety related company records in a locked location A. check and verify the inspector's credentials
5. Comparing the expense of a program versus its projected and identifiable results is using which planning technique? A. Zero-based budgeting B. MBO C. Cost-benefit analysis D. Variable budgeting C. Cost-benefit analysis
6. Frederick Taylor is noted for his contribution to: A. performance appraisal systems B. "humanizing" the workplace C. Making the work process more efficient and less fatiguing D. Pension reform C. Making the work process more efficient and less fatiguing
7. An HR professional is investigating reasons for job turnover among company employees moving from one job or department to another. Which data collection method would provide the information without interdepartmental conflicts? A. Surveys to all employees who have changed positions within the last year. B. Group interviews with employees and previous supervisors to discuss reasons for job changes. C. Search through performance appraisal files and personnel records to learn reasons for job turnover within the company. D. Questionnaires distributed only to employees who have changed positions C. Search through performance appraisal files and personnel records to learn reasons for job turnover within the company.
8. Of the following, the weakest tool for predicting an applicant's job performance is the: A. application form B. proficiency test C. interview D. prior work reference C. interview
9. Keeping a record of all employees and listing significant successes and failures of each describe which method? A. critical incident B. MBO C. Essay form D. Field review A. critical incident

10. Which of the following pieces of federal legislation is considered pro management? A. Wagner Act B. National Industrial Recovery Act C. Railway Recovery Act D. Taft-Hartley Act D. Taft-Hartley Act
11. The most important element in defending an organization's position in a disciplinary action is to demonstrate that: A. the employee has been warned B. the employee knew the rules before the infraction C. an example was needed to eliminate or reduce similar misbehavior D. progressive discipline has been applied consistent with policy and past practice D. progressive discipline has been applied consistent with policy and past practice
12. Which of the following would be considered nontaxable indirect compensation? A. Employee discounts on employer goods or services B. Employer-paid group-term life insurance over $50,000 C. Personal use of a company car D. Severance pay A. Employee discounts on employer goods or services
13. The lowest dose level at which toxic effects of a material can be demonstrated is called: A. the adverse impact level B. the toxicity level C. the lethal level D. the just-toxic amount B. the toxicity level
14. Which type of organizational structure creates a dual chain of command? A. Line and staff B. Functional C. Matrix D. Vertical C. Matrix
15. The use of an aptitude test in the selection process best predicts: A. skill level B. job knowledge C. manual dexterity D. training performance D. training performance
16. A company is in the process of establishing formal compensation policies and practices. This company is in which phase of the organizational cycle? A. Introduction B. Transition C. Growth D. Maturity D. Maturity
17. The first step in the job analysis process entails: A. deciding how the organization will use the information collected B. writing new job descriptions for all current employees C. comparing old job descriptions with new job specifications D. replacing job descriptions with job specifications A. deciding how the organization will use the information collected
18. A process that aims to improve the performance and interaction within a specific group of employees is: A. teambuilding B. a Scanlon plan C. human factors engineering D. survey research A. teambuilding
19. Which of the following is a primary advantage of a balanced scorecard? A. It separates business strategy from day-to-day activities. B. It relates performance of business functions to the organization's mission. C. It focuses on financial measurements and hard data results. D. It tracks progress against goals without raising accountability issues. B. It relates performance of business functions to the organization's mission. Use the following information to answer questions 20 through 22) A manufacturing facility purchases new equipment so that it can increase productivity. Employees are trained on the new equipment. In anticipation of the increased productivity, the piece-rate standards for the workers are increased. However, the operations manager has noticed that the volume and quality of its products has actually declined.

20. What is the FIRST thing the operations manager should do? A. Talk to employees about the situation. B. Return to the original compensation plan. C. Send employees to refresher training. D. Lower the expected production volume. A. Talk to employees about the situation. A manufacturing facility purchases new equipment so that it can increase productivity. Employees are trained on the new equipment. In anticipation of the increased productivity, the piece-rate standards for the workers are increased. However, the operations manager has noticed that the volume and quality of its products has actually declined.
21. The manager determines that the decline is a result of both the new equipment and the compensation policy. Because some of the employees are not yet proficient on the equipment, they believe that the higher productivity goals are not achievable. What is the next thing the manager should do? A. Reinstate the original compensation plan. B. Provide a breather period before instituting the new compensation incentives. C. Threaten to reprimand all workers who are falling below standards. D. Provide retraining and coaching for all workers who are below standard. D. Provide retraining and coaching for all workers who are below standard. A manufacturing facility purchases new equipment so that it can increase productivity. Employees are trained on the new equipment. In anticipation of the increased productivity, the piece-rate standards for the workers are increased. However, the operations manager has noticed that the volume and quality of its products has actually declined.
22. The attitude that the employees are exhibiting can be explained by: A. Theory X and Theory Y. B. Vroom's expectancy theory. C. equity theory. D. Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory B. Vroom's expectancy theory.
23. Which of the following questions to job applicants is LEGAL under the ADA? A. How many times were you absent due to illness in the last two years? B. Have you ever filed for workers' compensation? C. I see you are wearing a cast on your arm. How did you hurt yourself? D.

Describe any problems you would have lifting a 50-pound dog onto an examination table D. Describe any problems you would have lifting a 50-pound dog onto an examination table

24. Which of the following situations that lead to workplace violence can be controlled by an organization? A. unstable economy B. pressure for increased productivity C. domestic problems D. low self-esteem B. pressure for increased productivity
25. The key to a successful expatriate experience is: A. foreign language competency. B. sending single managers. C. cultural familiarity. D. cultural flexibility and adaptability. D. cultural flexibility and adaptability.
26. The concept of reliability refers to: A. how difficult it is for applicants to "fake out" of a test. B. consistency with which a test measures an item. C. how well the test measures what it is supposed to measure. D. the environmental conditions present when the test is given B. consistency with which a test measures an item.
27. If one supervisor interprets performance standards differently from another supervisor, what type of appraisal error is most likely to occur? A. recovery problem B. rater bias C. halo effect D. rater pattern error D. rater pattern error
28. The basic premise underlying the Scanlon Plan is that: A. profits should be shared by all employees. B. efficiency depends on teamwork and plant-wide cooperation. C. employees are more motivated if they share ownership of the firm. D. unions inhibit profitability. B. efficiency depends on teamwork and plant-wide cooperation.
29. The Equal Pay Act of 1963: A. prohibits wage discrimination based on sex. B. requires equal pay for jobs of comparable worth. C. prohibits pay differentials based on race, religion, color, sex or national origin. D. is now expired. B. requires equal pay for jobs of comparable worth.
30. Which of the following tactics would be identified as an unfair labor practice by management? A. Tell the employees the high cost of union dues. B. Promise employees pay increases if they vote against a union. C. Forbid distribution of union literature during work hours in work areas. D. Show employees negative articles about unions B. Promise employees pay increases if they vote against a union.
31. The constitutional guarantee of due process: A. prevents dismissal of just cause. B. encourages constructive discharge C. gives one the opportunity to defend oneself against charges D. required fair and impartial investigations C. gives one the opportunity to defend oneself against charges

32. In equity theory, a person's reference for comparing inputs and outcomes is known as: A. comparison other. B. alternate person. C. reference group. D. preferred employee. A. comparison other.
33. The grapevine: A. cuts across formal channels of communication. B. is rarely accurate. C. is controlled largely by management. D. is slower than formal communication. A. cuts across formal channels of communication.
34. Job enlargement is: A. moving an employee from job to job. B. increasing the number of tasks for which an employee is responsible. C. concerned with increasing employee autonomy. D. is part of MBO practices. B. increasing the number of tasks for which an employee is responsible.
35. The concept of broad banding has been developed in order to: A. limit the autonomy of line managers. B. reduce employee mobility within the organization. C. work with flatter organizational structures. D. provide narrower salary ranges. C. work with flatter organizational structures.
36. A job function is usually considered essential if it: A. can be performed by many employees. B. is performed infrequently. C. is at least 5-10% of the job. D. requires highly specialized skills. D. requires highly specialized skills.
37. Which of the following base-pay systems links pay to the number of skills a worker can perform? A. Time-based. B. Productivity-based. C. Person-based. D. Performance-based. C. Person-based.
38. What is the most important requirement for a qualified benefit plan in order to be eligible for favorable tax status? A. The plan must integrate with Social Security. B. The plan must not discriminate in favor of highly compensated executives. C. The plan must shift income to post-working retirement years. D. The plan must provide some type of retirement annuity. B. The plan must not discriminate in favor of highly compensated executives.
39. Which type of data is generally unavailable to an HR manager in evaluating the effectiveness of an external Employee Assistance Program? A. Initial diagnosis category B. Referral source C. Vitalization percent D. Treatment outcome D. Treatment outcome
40. Comparing specific measures of performance gains data on those measures in "best practice" organizations is known as: A. utility analysis. B. HR auditing. C. performance surveying. D. benchmarking D. benchmarking
41. A specialized approach to organizational change in which the employees themselves formulate the change that is required and implement it, often with the assistance of a trained consultant, is called: A. organizational development. B. skills training. C. employee orientation. D. sensitivity training. A. organizational development.
42. Which of the following laws imposed significant restrictions on unions in the U.S.? A. The Landrum- Griffin Act. B. The Norris-LaGuardia Act. C. The Wagner Act. D. The National Labor Relations Act A. The Landrum-Griffin Act.
43. The ability to inspire and motivate followers to achieve envisioned goals that are self-rewarding is called: A. participative management. B. attribution leadership. C. transactional leadership. D. transformational leadership. D. transformational leadership.

44. A major provision of the Civil Rights Acts of 1991 is that: A. it limits compensatory and punitive damages for employers found liable for discriminatory practices. B. it places the burden of proof back on employers and permits the awarding of compensatory and punitive damages. C. it permits the awarding of compensatory damages but now punitive damages. D. it permits the awarding of punitive damages but not compensatory damages B. it places the burden of proof back on employers and permits the awarding of compensatory and punitive damages.
45. Which type of group is most susceptible to groupthink? A. A formal group. B. An informal group. C. A highly cohesive group. D. A leaderless group C. A highly cohesive group.
46. The best way to deal with dangerous work situations is to: A. reengineer the workplace. B. provide employees with more training. C. carefully look at the human aspects of the job design. D. focus on work design and human nature. D. focus on work design and human nature.
47. What would a compa-ratio of 110 indicate? A. Salary range is competitive with the market. B. Salary range is low in relation to the market. C. Salary range is high in relation to the market. D. Average salaries paid are ten percent above the midpoint of the salary range. D. Average salaries paid are ten percent above the midpoint of the salary range.
48. For which position would an employer most likely be able to support a BFOQ based on sex? A. Sportscaster B. Locker room attendant. C. Nurse D. OB-GYN physician B. Locker room attendant.
49. A primary employer advantage of implementing a skill-based pay system is: A. increased compensation costs. B. ease of administration. C. increased employee productivity. D. reduction of training and development expenses. C. increased employee productivity.
50. Simulation and gaming training is most often directed toward improvements in: A. decision-making. B. human relation problem solving. C. diversity initiatives. D. culture. A. decision-making.
51. Gainsharing programs attempt to increase employees': A. satisfaction. B. discretionary effort. C. quality of production. D. involvement in the productivity process. B. discretionary effort.
52. What should a supervisor do is she is aware of a dangerous situation in her department? A. Stop the operation until the condition is corrected B. Advise the supervisor on the next shift. C. Do nothing until the condition can be corrected without stopping production. D. Warn the employees involved in the operation of the hazard and continue production. A. Stop the operation until the condition is corrected B. Advise the supervisor on the next shift.
53. Under which of the following conditions would decentralization of staff functions be recommended? A. Need for contractual negotiations with external agents. B. Function and product/service orientation. C. Need for collaboration within operating units. D. Operating units that have conflicting goals and strategies C. Need for collaboration within operating units.
54. Top management has directed HR to develop a middle-management recruitment strategy for the company's new overseas operations. Which of the following techniques would be a necessary prerequisite for other actions? A. Anticipated labor needs analysis. B. Environmental scanning. C. Trend analysis projections. D. Delphi judgmental forecasting. B. Environmental scanning.

55. A(n) _______ is the individual who must make an ethical choice in an organization. A. symbolic leader B. obstructive manager C. religious individual D. moral agent D. moral agent
56. A corporate-level strategy is concerned with the question: A. what business are we in? B. how do we compete? C. should we promote from within? D. where do we market our products? A. what business are we in?
57. The ______ prohibits discrimination based on physical or mental disability. A. Civil Rights Act. B. Immigration Reform and Control Act C. Vocational Rehabilitation Act D. Age Discrimination in Employment Act C. Vocational Rehabilitation Act
58. From the employer's perspective, which of these is part of a new social contract? A. Standard training programs. B. Limited information. C. Incentive compensation. D. Routine jobs. C. Incentive compensation.
59. Shadow, Inc. uses a standard application form for most jobs in its organization. One of the questions on the form inquires as to the financial liability record of the applicants. If you were doing an HR audit of this firm, which of the following would help to establish the adverse impact of this question? A. The applicant's response had no impact on the chances of being hired. B. Minorities are less likely to have financial liabilities. C. Financial liabilities have nothing to do with job performance. D. Women would be favorably impacted C. Financial liabilities have nothing to do with job performance.
60. Which of the following best describes the Hersey-Blanchard situational leadership theory? A. It identifies high risk and high relationship behavior as the ideal leadership style. B. It asserts that employees dislike rigid controls and inherently want to accomplish something. C. It advises using the same style for similar situations and varying the style as the situation changes. D. It states that leadership is based on an accumulation of traits best suited for managing. C. It advises using the same style for similar situations and varying the style as the situation changes.
61. In a union certification election, what percentage of the votes does the union need to receive in order to win? A. 30% of total eligible votes. B. At least 51% of total eligible votes. C. 30% of total votes cast. D. At least 50% of total votes cast plus one D. At least 50% of total votes cast plus one
62. An important workforce demographic consideration for today's HR professionals is that: A. the workforce has become less diverse in recent years. B. the average age of the workforce is declining. C. older workers are more likely to remain in the workforce past the age of 65) D. Diversity initiatives are no longer needed in most organizations. C. older workers are more likely to remain in the workforce past the age of 65)
63. Which is the most effective way to control hazards and their negative health consequences? A. Require protection equipment to shield personnel against the hazard. B. Eliminate the hazard from the machine, method, material or plant structure. C. Train personnel to be aware of the hazard. D. Control the hazard by enclosing or guarding it at its source. B. Eliminate the hazard from the machine, method, material or plant structure.
64. HR efforts to create positive employee relations can be hindered by: A. negative managerial and supervisory philosophies. B. federal and state workplace laws. C. the size of the company. D. the location of the company A. negative managerial and supervisory philosophies.

65. Which of the following statements is true? A. Self-managed work teams are empowered with decision-making authority. B. Self-managed work teams still rely heavily on their managers. C. Self- managed work teams have little access to resources. D. Self-managed work teams will eventually develop into problem-solving teams. A. Self-managed work teams are empowered with decision- making authority.
66. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward? A. A promotion. B. A pay raise. C. An employee's feelings of self-worth. D. A bonus C. An employee's feelings of self-worth.
67. What did the Hawthorne studies reveal? A. Authoritarian supervisors increase worker motivation and productivity. B. Adequate lighting, ventilation and temperature increase productivity. C. Mercury lights cause eye fatigue. D. Environmental factors are less important that social interaction among coworkers. D. Environmental factors are less important that social interaction among coworkers.
68. What is the difference between direct and indirect compensation? A. Direct compensation refers to taxable wages and benefit; indirect compensation refers to nontaxable wages and benefits. B. Direct compensation refers to pay systems; indirect compensation refers to benefits. C. Direct compensation refers to voluntary wages and benefits; indirect compensation refers to government-mandated wages and benefits. D. Direct compensation refers to wages paid to the employee on a regular basis; indirect compensation refers to employer contributions to a retirement account. B. Direct compensation refers to pay systems; indirect compensation refers to benefits.
69. Salary compression occurs when: A. new employees are hired at salaries far below those of the current jobholders. B. a new employee makes more than the current jobholder. C. all employees in the same position receive the same salary. D. Foreign subsidiaries pay less than domestic subsidiaries for the same position. B. a new employee makes more than the current jobholder.
70. Gaps between actual and desired performance are best identified in which phase of training? A. Development B. Analysis C. Design D. EvaluationB. Analysis
71. According to the WARN Act, what type of notice must an employer provide? A. 30 days' notice if 500 full- and part-time employees at one site will be laid off. B. 60 days' notice if 33% of full-time employees at one site will be laid off. C. 60 days' notice if 500 full- and part-time employees will be laid off. D. 90 days' notice if a layoff is considered permanent. B. 60 days' notice if 33% of full-time employees at one site will be laid off.
72. To systematically resolve HR problems, in what order should the HR professional conduct scientific research? A. Problem analysis, hypothesis formulation, data collection, data examination. B. Data collection, hypothesis formulation, data examination, problem analysis. C. Problem analysis, data collection, hypothesis formulation, data examination. D. Hypothesis formulation, problem analysis, data collection, data examination. A. Problem analysis, hypothesis formulation, data collection, data examination.
73. In the recruiting interface, the line manager typically does which of the following? A. Forecasts recruiting needs. B. Plans and conducts recruiting efforts. C. Determines qualifications and anticipates needs. D. Audits and evaluates recruiting activities. C. Determines qualifications and anticipates needs.

74. The most common type of training at all levels of an organization is: A. apprentice training. B. on- the-job training. C. classroom instruction. D. programmed instruction. B. on-the-job training.
75. Which of the following union structures requires workers who do not join a union to pay the equivalent of union dues? A. Closed shop. B. Dues checkoff. C. Agency shop. D. No-lockout. C. Agency shop.
76. To ensure that the right individual is available at the right time to fill a job, organizations utilize: A. depth charts. B. replacement charts. C. organization charts. D. assessment centers. B. replacement charts.
77. An effective interviewer speaks roughly _______ of the time during the interview. A. 10% B. 25% C. 75% D. 50% B. 25%
78. A typical abuse-control measure to keep employees from taking excessive time off around holidays is to: A. require employees to work the first and last scheduled workdays around the holidays. B. allow only employees with significant seniority to combine holidays with vacation days to extend the employees' time off. C. allow employees to "bank" holidays and take the days off at less busy times of the year. D. Pay employees time-and-a-half for working the day immediately following or preceding a holiday A. require employees to work the first and last scheduled workdays around the holidays.
79. Affirmative action: A. maintains traditional KSAs where minorities are over-represented B. encourages hiring under-qualified applicants and bringing up their skills with extra training. C. lowers KSAs for jobs where minorities are under-represented D. requires applicants to have the basic qualifications for jobs D. requires applicants to have the basic qualifications for jobs
80. The loan review department of a major regional bank has an exceptionally high turnover of both administrative assistants and analysts. One administrative assistant came to work at 8 am, left for lunch, and never returned. A/an _________ analysis would reveal if there was a need for training in this department that would reduce this level of turnover. A. group B. individual C. job/task D. organizational D. organizational
81. _______ belong to a person by law, nature or tradition. A. Responsibilities B. Duties C. Lifestyle choices D. Rights D. Rights
82. Which of the following is true regarding transgendered and transsexual individuals? A. The EEOC has ruled that sex discrimination under title VII applies to a person's gender at birth. B. Federal court cases have determined that employers must make reasonable accommodations for transgendered and transsexual employees. C. The ADA lists sexual identity disorders as a disability. D. Title VII prohibits discrimination based on sexual identity. A. The EEOC has ruled that sex discrimination under title VII applies to a person's gender at birth.
83. Why utilization reviews are conducted? A. Many employers found that some of the health care provided by doctors and hospitals is unnecessary, incorrectly billed or deliberately overcharged. B. The government requires an annual audit of health care expenditures. C. Labor unions need accurate costing of benefits for contract negotiation purposes. D. Employers need cost/benefit analyses of services provided by their PPO. A. Many employers found that some of the health care provided by doctors and hospitals is unnecessary, incorrectly billed or deliberately overcharged.

84. Courts have ruled that ________ information is too vague when making performance-based HR decisions. A. productivity-based B. behavior-oriented C. trait-based D. results-based C. trait-based
85. Which of the following represents nontaxable indirect compensation to employees? A. Wages paid after death in a calendar year. B. $4,000 in child care expenses in a flexible spending account. C. Employer-paid disability benefits. D. Unrestricted use of a company car (an executive 'perk'). B. $4,000 in child care expenses in a flexible spending account.
86. To be eligible for unemployment, a worker must be: A. permanently disabled. B. injured in a work- related accident. C. unemployed (regardless of the cause) and actively seeking work. D. terminated for reasons other than gross misconduct. D. terminated for reasons other than gross misconduct.
87. Which type of organizational structure would be most effective for reinforcing local authority and accountability? A. Line and staff B. Functional C. Divisional D. Matrix C. Divisional
88. OSHA Form 200, the Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses, must be posted for employees to see: A. once a year for at least one month. B. in the first week of every month. C. at the end of each week. D. for one day after a recordable injury. A. once a year for at least one month.
89. Right-to-work laws give employees the right to: A. cross a picket line and work during a strike. B. refuse union membership. C. continue working after being terminated, pending a grievance proceeding D. stay on the job, even though there is no work to do. B. refuse union membership.
90. A statement of the qualifications necessary to satisfactorily perform a job is called a: A. job description. B. job analysis. C. job specification. D. performance standard. C. job specification.
91. When management shut down company operations to prevent union members from working, it is referred to as a ________: A. lack of "good faith." B. strike. C. lockout. D. picket line. C. lockout.
92. A company in the decline phase of the organizational life cycle might attempt which of the following approaches to recovery? A. Differentiate products. B. Reduce costs. C. Emphasize training D. Build teams. B. Reduce costs.
93. Mentoring programs are consistent with the provisions of the ________ that require the diversification of middle and upper management. A. Americans with Disabilities Act B. Vocational Rehabilitation Act C. Immigration Reform and Control Act D. Civil Rights Act of 1991 D. Civil Rights Act of 1991
94. Differences in pay between geographic areas are most often attributed to: A. supply and demand. B. unions. C. government influences. D. local inflation rates. A. supply and demand.
95. A company wishes to determine if changes are needed in emergency response plan responsibilities. Which of the following methods should the company employ? A. Mock drills and role plays. B. Computer evaluation. C. Individualized testing. D. Group response interviews. A. Mock drills and role plays.
96. To Quinn is a top computer programmer with his company. Tom's manager is in the process of analyzing jobs within the computer programming department and has asked Tom to identify behaviors which he believes a computer programmer must have to be successful. How will Tom's boss use this information in his job analysis? A. He will interpret these behaviors into performance dimensions for the job. B. He will determine the validity of the current testing procedures used in the selection process. C.

He will compare the behaviors which Tom listed to those listed in Tom's job description to determine its validity. D. He will interpret these behaviors into critical work tasks that must be included in the job description. D. He will interpret these behaviors into critical work tasks that must be included in the job description.

97. Which of the following activities is associated with an HR transition strategy? A. Management training. B. Layoffs. C. Cross-training. D. Early retirement. C. Cross-training.
98. The 4/5ths rule for determining disparate impact suggests that: A. 4/5ths of all minorities interviewed must be hired. B. discrimination exists if the selection rate for any protected group is less than 80% of the selection rate of the majority groups. C. 4/5ths of all minorities must be African Americans. D. strict mathematical formulas must be employed in all hiring decisions. B. discrimination exists if the selection rate for any protected group is less than 80% of the selection rate of the majority groups.
99. The change process goes more smoothly when: A. senior management announces changes to the employees. B. employees have input into change initiatives. C. HR is responsible for the change initiative. D. change is critical to the organization's survival B. employees have input into change initiatives.
100. Two of the more widely used job analysis techniques are: A. job graphics and job profiling. B. functional job reviews and position profiling. C. position analysis and job description. D. functional job analysis and position analysis questionnaire. D. functional job analysis and position analysis questionnaire.