IAHCSMM Practice Test Quiz ACCURATE TESTED VERSIONS OF THE EXAM FROM 2023TO 2024, Exams of Nursing

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IAHCSMM Practice Test Quiz ACCURATE

TESTED VERSIONS OF THE EXAM FROM

2023TO 2024 | ACCURATE AND VERIFIED

ANSWERS | NEXT GEN FORMAT |

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a material that removes electrons form another substance is called: an oxidizing agent a demagnetizer an atom a molecule

• ANSWERS-an oxidizing agent Before an item can be placed in a liquid chemical sterile processing system they must be: heated filled with air sterilized cleaned
• ANSWERS-cleaned Which of the following statements about flash sterilization is true? it is the sterilization method of choice for metal instruments it is recommended to be used as a primary sterilization process by AAMI and AORN It reduces turnaround time because cleaning is not required It should be used only in emergencies

• ANSWERS-it should be used only in emergencies Both AORN and the JC recommend that: the use of flash sterilization be minimized or decreased flash sterilization be performed in only one sterilizer per facility healthcare facilities get FDA approval for flash sterilization only CSTs operate flash sterilizers
• ANSWERS-the use of flash sterilization be minimized or decreased Implantable devices: should be flash sterilized in extended cycles should only be sterilized using EtO Should not be flash sterilized should be discarded if not used
• ANSWERS-should not be flash sterilized The transport of flash sterilized items is difficult because: they have no protective wrapping they are wet they are hot contained in heavy trays
• ANSWERS-they have no protective wrapping heat sensitive items: cannot be flash sterilized should be disposable must not be immersed

should not be used

• ANSWERS-cannot be flash sterilized When processing flexible endoscopes in a liquid chemical sterile processing system, you should: pressurize the scope before starting the machine use tap water as a prerinse connect channels to special connectors that allow liquid to flow threw them run the cycle twice to ensure the proper microbial kill has taken place
• ANSWERS-connect channels to special connectors that allow liquid to flow through them The first step inspect the insulation of a laparoscopic instrument is to: check the collar at the distal tip try to slide the insulation back check the handle for chipping or cracking visually check the instrument's shaft
• ANSWERS-check the collar at the distal tip Which fo the following steps happens first when processing flexible endoscopes? leak-testing high-level disinfecting/sterilizing manual cleaning drying
  • ANSWERS-leak-testing Which of the following should be used to thoroughly rinse (remove) all traces of disinfectant form an endoscope's channels? forced air

water containing approved sterilant filtered water a heated glutaraldehyde

• ANSWERS-filtered water The purpose of using a decontamination battery or cord when cleaning powered surgical instruments is: to keep fluid from entering the unit to keep functioning batteries and cords clean to prevent electrical shock to test the unit while cleaning
• ANSWERS-to keep fluid from entering the unit endoscopes are often processed in a mechanical unit called: an ultrasonic cleaner a washer-decontaminator a flush-pulse endoscope reprocessor an automatic endoscope reprocessor
• ANSWERS-an AER the endoscope that would be dispensed for a procedure that required visualization of the lower part of the large intestine would be: colonoscope sigmoidoscope gastroscope ureteroscope
• ANSWERS-sigmoidoscope

loaner instruments should: be decontaminated if they appear soiled upon arrival be sterilized using a low temperature process be decontaminated before use not be used

• ANSWERS-be decontaminated before use information regarding cleaning processes for endoscopes should be provided by: the SGNA APIC the instrument manufacturer not be used
• ANSWERS-the instrument manufacturer Which of the following statements about endoscopes is true? not all endoscopes can be processed in an AER Ultrasonic cleaning is the process of choice for endoscopes flexible endoscopes are not easily damaged all endoscopes should be steam sterilized
• ANSWERS-not all endoscopes can be processed in an AER Electronic testing of laparoscopic insulation should be done: in the decon area prior to cleaning in the clean assembly area prior to assembly at the factory or onsite repair unit in the OR at the end of the procedure
• ANSWERS-in the clean assembly area prior to assembly

t/f: loaner instrumentation poses storage and workload challenges

• ANSWERS-t t/f: flexible endoscopes that fail a leak test may continue to be used until the break/hole impacts the scopes function
  • ANSWERS-f t/f: all flexible endoscopes have internal channels
• ANSWERS-f t/f: after use, loaner instrumentation must be decontaminated before it is shipped out - ANSWERS-t t/f: the biggest advantage to battery-powered surgical instruments is that they can be immersed for cleaning
  • ANSWERS-f the FDA classifies sterilization packaging as a Class I Medical Device Class II Medical Device Clas III Medical Device
• ANSWERS-Class II Which of the following is NOT an acceptable sterilization packaging material? Muslin Barrier Cloth Canvas

Twills

• ANSWERS-Canvas Wicking material are used to: dry instruments before sterilization allow air removal, steam penetration, and facilitate drying cushion instruments from the extreme force in steam sterilizer chambers hold water away from the bottom of instrument trays
• ANSWERS-allow air removal, steam penetration, and facilitate drying when arranging plastic-paper pouches in the sterilizer, the pouches should be arranged paper-to-plastic paper-to-paper plastic-to-plastic the way in which the most packages can be placed in the sterilize r - ANSWERS-paper-to-plastic the relative humidity of the CS department should be less than 75% less than 60% less than 50% less than 30%
• ANSWERS-less than 75% Some plastics including formulations of spun-bound polyolefin are intended for use solely in these sterilization processes: high temperature

low temperuture liquid flash - ANSWERS-low temperature when placing ring-handled instruments in an instrument tray, you should: lock the handles to prevent damage during sterilization arrange the instruments in alphabetical order arrange the instruments in order of their use unlock the handles and open the instruments - ANSWERS-unlock the handles and open the instruments t/f: gauze squares are the wicking material of choice for instrument sets - ANSWERS-f t/f: temperatures in a sterile storage area should be 55F-60F - ANSWERS-f t/f: sterile packages should be stored no lower than 8-10 inches from the floor - ANSWERS-t t/f: all rigid sterilization containers have tamper evident seals - ANSWERS-t t/f: cellulose materials cannot be processed with a gas plasma sterilizer - ANSWERS-t t/f: reusable textile packaging requires less labor than disposable packaging - ANSWERS-f t/f: aluminum foil is an acceptable packing material for dry heat sterilization - ANSWERS-f t/f: because self-life is event-related, stock rotation is no longer necessary - ANSWERS-f

sterilizer recording charts and/or printouts should be checked: at the end of each shift every 24 hours by the supervisor during and at the end of each cycle - ANSWERS-during and at the end of each cycle in the event of a load recall, information about specific load contents can be obtained from: the CS supervisor the procedure manual the sterilization log the hospital safety directory - ANSWERS-the sterilization log if a sterilizer has successfully killed all the bacterial spores in a biological test: it is called a positive test it is called a negative test it is taken out of service until it is repaired an alarm will sound at the completion of the cycle - ANSWERS-it is called a negative test the two most common temperatures used in steam sterilization are: 120F and 140F 100F and 130F 320F and 350-355F 250F and 270-275F - ANSWERS-250F and 270-275F Tests which use live bacterial spores to challenge the efficacy of the sterilization process and provide a direct measure of lethality are called: chemical indicator tests

chemical integrator tests ampulization tests biological tests - ANSWERS-biological tests in order to elevate the temperature in a steam sterilizer, you must: increase the steam pressure decrease the steam pressure achieve ambient pressure inject boiler amine - ANSWERS-increase steam pressure Bowie dick tests should be run in: dynamic-air-removal steam sterilizers downward displacement sterilizers ethylene oxide sterilizers washers/sterilizers - ANSWERS-dynamic-air-removal steam sterilizers Chemical indicators: prove that an item is sterile provide a visual indication that an item was exposed to a sterilization process prove that the sterilizer did not damage heat sensitive items provide information about bacterial spore kill within the sterilizer - ANSWERS-provide a visual indication that an item was exposed to a sterilization process The most efficient type of dry heat sterilizer is: the gravity convection sterilizer the mechanical convection sterilizer the dynamic air removal sterilizer

the specific purpose dry heat oven - ANSWERS-the mechanical convection sterilizer how frequently should a sterilizers strainer be removed and cleaned? daily after each use once weekly only when the machine's operating control gauge indicates cleaning is necessary - ANSWERS- daily when loading a steam sterilizer, items with solid bottoms should be: placed in a upright position loaded first placed on edge placed in a wire basket - ANSWERS-placed on edge paper/plastic sterilization pouches: are not suitable for steam sterilization processes should not be placed inside of wrapped sets or containers should be used only for dry heat sterilization processes are used to package wood and cork products for sterilization - ANSWERS-should not be placed inside of wrapped sets or containers the higher the bioburden on an object: the more difficult it will be to sterilize the less time it will take to sterilize it the more biological tests you will need in the load the longer it will take to cool after sterilization - ANSWERS-the more difficult it will be to sterilize

instrument washer sterilizers provide ______. terminal sterilization dry heat sterilization a decontam process flash sterilization for immediate use - ANSWERS-a decontam process what would be the recommended exposure time for a dry heat sterilization load that was run at an exposure temperature of 320F (160C). 1 hr 1.5 hr 2 hr 2.5 hr - ANSWERS-2 hrs which of the following sterilization quality assurance measurements is designed to provide a written record of sterilizer cycle activity? biological tests bowie dick tests mechanical recording charts/printouts chemical integrators - ANSWERS-mechanical recording charts/printouts the spore used in the testing of steam sterilization is: bacillus atrophaeus geobacillus stearothermophilus bacillus subtillus pseudomonas aeruginosa - ANSWERS-geobacillus stearothermophilus The term "superheated steam" means:

the type of steam necessary for high temperature sterilization steam that has had chemicals added to it to increase its temperature dry steam moist steam at sea level - ANSWERS-dry steam the amount of time it takes to kill 90% of the microorganisms present on an object is called: time-weighted average a D-value a sterilization cycle exposure time - ANSWERS-a d-value impregnated gauze strips may be sterilized using: EtO sterilization H2O2 gas plasma sterilization dry heat sterilization steam sterilization - ANSWERS-dry heat sterilization t/f: of the three major low temperature sterilants, EtO has the longest instrument turn around time - ANSWERS-t t/f: EtO kills microorganisms by a process called oxidation - ANSWERS-f t/f: EtO, H2O2 gas plasma, and ozone sterilization processes must all be monitored using chemical, physical, and biological monitors - ANSWERS-t t/f: EtO, H2O2 gas plasma, and ozone sterilization can all use the same packaging materials - ANSWERS-f

t/f: EtO has better penetration capabilities than ozone and H2O2 gas plasma - ANSWERS-t t/f: EtO is a toxic gas - ANSWERS-t t/f: cellulose-containing packaging materials are not compatible with H2O2 gas plasma sterilization - ANSWERS-T t/f: information about a device's compatibility with a specific sterilization process should be obtained from the device's manufacturer - ANSWERS-t t/f: aeration is required for items sterilized in ozone sterilization processes - ANSWERS-f t/f: relative humidity is a required cycle parameter for ozone and EtO sterilization - ANSWERS-t Which of the following systems provides supplies and instruments for individual surgical procedures? exchange cart par-level case cart requisition - ANSWERS-case cart official inventory: does not exist in today's modern healthcare facilities can be counted as an asset to a facility's balance sheet is owned by the vendor but stored at the healthcare facility is owned by the healthcare facility but stored by the vendor - ANSWERS-can be counted as an asset to the facility's balance sheet

the inventory system that stocks supplies by established stock levels is called: par-level case cart ADT system exchange cart - ANSWERS-par-level the inventory system that uses two identical carts to facilitate supply replenishment is called the: case cart system exchange cart system par-level system requisition system - ANSWERS-exchange cart system automated supply replenishment systems: are no longer used are used only in surgery are difficult to manage are computerized - ANSWERS-are computerized the movement of supplies throughout the healthcare facility is called: distribution inventory management case cart system procurement - ANSWERS-distribution in this system, the facility keeps minimal stock on hand and supplies are delivered when needed, usually just prior to use: stockless

just-in-time requistion perpetual - ANSWERS-just-in-time in this system, items are owned by the vendor, but stored at the healthcare facility: just-in-time stockless min/max consignment - ANSWERS-consignment the system where items are ordered in larger quantities (i.e. by the case instead of individually) to save money is called: just-in-time min/max pick-n-pack economic order quantity - ANSWERS-economic order quantity t/f: all costs incurred to purchase a specific supply item from its purchase through its disposal are referred to as total acquisition costs - ANSWERS-t t/f: having a low stock out rate would increase customer satisfaction - ANSWERS-t t/f: in an ABC analysis system, the lowest cost items receive the most attention because there are more of them - ANSWERS-f t/f: the number of times per year that consumable items are purchase, consumed, and replaced is called the inventory turnover rate - ANSWERS-t

t/f: having a low inventory service level would increase customer satisfaction - ANSWERS-f t/f: stock locator systems should be both manual and electronic - ANSWERS-t technicians in the _____ department perform safety inspections and functional tests on equipment. material management infection control biomedical engineering facilities and maintenaince - ANSWERS-biomedical engineering when patient equipment enters a healthcare facility, it must be safety checked by a ______ before it is cleared for patient use. biomedical tech infection control committee member central service tech central service director - ANSWERS-biomed tech which of the following required preventive maintenance standards be established for medical equipment? OSHA Joint Commission AAMI AORN - ANSWERS-Joint Commission All patient care equipment dispensed for use must be considered _________, and handled as such, regardless of its appearance. sterile

clean contaminated visibly soiled - ANSWERS-contaminated Which of the following common items of patient care equipment limits the development of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) and Peripheral Edema in immobile patients? Respirator Intermittent suction device Sequential compression unit defibrillator - ANSWERS-Sequential Compression Unit Disposable components such as pads and tubing on patient care equipment should be: discarded at point of use be reprocessed for re-use discarded during preventive maintenance removed in the biomedical engineering departmetn - ANSWERS-discarded at point of use Equipment should be inspected for obvious hazards such as cracked or frayed electrical cords: only by trained biomedical engineering techs only during preventative maintenance activities only when there are complaints from user department personnel whenever the equipment is cleaned - ANSWERS-whenever the equipment is cleaned if any equipment malfunction causes harm to patients, it should be: discarded immediately sent to the manufacturer for repairs sequestered for inspection by OSHA personnel

returned immediately to the biomedical department - ANSWERS-returned immediately to the biomedical department Preventative maintenance: is performed when a piece of equipment injures a patient is designed to identify potential problems before they occur is performed when a user unit notices a problem is done by central service before equipment is dispensed - ANSWERS-is designed to identify potential problems before they occur Maintenance insurance: can help manage equipment costs is required by the FDA is the same as outsourcing can reduce equipment downtime - ANSWERS-can help manage equipment costs patient care equipment should be stored in a ______ condition. ready-to-use ready-to-clean ready-to-inspect ready-to-sterilize - ANSWERS-ready-to-use patient care equipment is typically stored: in the biomedical engineering department in patient units (wards) in the central service department in sterile storage areas of the material management department - ANSWERS-in the central service department

the _________ requires that the healthcare facility report malfunctions of medical devices that have contributed to patient injury, illness, and/or death to the manufacturer and FDA. OSHA patient safety act Safe medical devices act EPA patient security act FDA equipment notification act - ANSWERS-safe medical devices act Which of the following statements is correct? patient care equipment tracking requires a computer patient care equipment should only be tracked if it has a value in excess of an amount specified by the facility tracking patient care equipment can prevent equipment shortages patient care equipment must only be tracked if its usage will be charged to patients - ANSWERS-tracking patient care equipment can prevent equipment shortages Equipment leasing and rental differ in that: leasing involves purchase; rental does not require ownership equipment rental is usually done on a shorter-term basis than equipment leasing equipment leasing involves the most expensive equipment; equipment rental involves less expensive equipment equipment leasing is an operating expense; equipment rental does not have cost implications - ANSWERS-equipment rental is usually done on a shorter-term basis than equipment leasing Which of the following is NOT a reason for tracking supplies, equipment, and instruments? measure item usage ensure that items can be quickly located meet CDC and OSHA requirements assist with quality processes - ANSWERS-meet CDC and OSHA requirements

Which of the following tracking methods provides real time information? RFID laser-etched bar codes standard bar code dot matrix applications - ANSWERS-RFID Point of use computing: is impossible in central service because of infection control requirements provide no benefit to the central service department moves computers into central service work areas eliminates data entry jobs - ANSWERS-moves computers into central service work areas which of the following is NOT a feature of an instrument tracking system? productivity information financial data quality assurance information product updates and recall information - ANSWERS-product updates and recall information t/f: computerized tracking systems are fast, but manual tracking systems are more effective for tracking data. - ANSWERS-f t/f: once a tacking system is implemented, there is generally no need to update system information - ANSWERS-f t/f: at this time, tracking systems can help manage preventative maintenance schedules. - ANSWERS-t

t/f: most central service departments employ some sort of automated information management system - ANSWERS-t t/f: tracking systems can help facilities manage costs - ANSWERS-t t/f: quality requires the efforts and participation of everyone in the healthcare facility - ANSWERS-t t/f: a failure mode of effects analysis tries to predict failures before they occur - ANSWERS-t t/f: the international standards organization (ISO) uses routine and unannounced inspections to monitor standards in healthcare facilities - ANSWERS-f t/f: quality processes are limited to administration and the risk management department - ANSWERS-f t/f: quality management is patient focused - ANSWERS-t t/f: providing quality products and services is relatively easy for CSTs - ANSWERS-f t/f: customer surveys are ineffective tools in establishing central service quality processes - ANSWERS-f t/f: if everyone develops a quality-driven focus, written policies and procedures are not necessary in the central service department - ANSWERS-f t/f: a root cause analysis is a protective approach to quality - ANSWERS-f

t/f: input, throughput, output, and outcome are 4 main focuses of Total Quality Improvement (TQI) - ANSWERS-t