IAHSS Advanced Officer Certification Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updates 20, Exams of Nursing

Download IAHSS Advanced Officer Certification Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updates 20 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! IAHSS Advanced Officer Certification Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updates 2024 What is the primary role of a security officer in crime prevention? a. Reduce the desire for a person to committ a crime. b. Patrol all assigned areas dilligently. c. Reduce the opportunity for a person to committ a crime. d. None of these - Correct Answer-c. Reduce the opportunity for a person to committ a crime. Crime prevention is the anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk. It also involves what? a. Initiating some action to remove or reduce the risk. b. Reporting the risk to law enforcement authorities. c. Documenting the risk to the administration. d. Each of the above. - Correct Answer-a. Initiating some action to remove or reduce the risk. What must be done about life safety deficiencies found in the hazzard surveillance tour? a. Report them to the nearest medical personnel. b. Correct them before the next safety committee meeting. c. Report them to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. d. Correct them immediately. - Correct Answer-d. Correct them immediately. What is the purpose of crime analysis? a. Identify problems and develop strategies to reduce problems. b. Assist law enforcement in identifying known criminals. c. Solve crimes and make arrests. d. None of the above. - Correct Answer-a. Identify problems and develop strategies to reduce problems. Which of the following is easier and more cost effective for an institution? a. Allowing outside organizations to conduct safety training. b. Installing access controls only on exterior doors. c. Using off-duty law enforcement officers instead of security officers. d. Building in security systems during building design. - Correct Answer-d. Building in security systems during building design. The Triangle of Crime consists of: a. Opportunity, Unattended Items, Desire b. Ability, Opportunity, Randon Access c. Opportunity, Desire, Ability d. Access, Desire, Opportunity - Correct Answer-c. Opportunity, Desire, Ability What are the layers of protection through physical security planning? - Correct Answer-* Perimeter Barrior: line or outside perimeter of the site * Building's Exterior: top, sides, bottom of building * Interior Controls: lock/key systems, access control systems, alarms, camera, policies/procedures, training How can employee awareness programs improve safety in a healthcare facility? - Correct Answer-* Generates employee involvement * Improves trust/credibility in the security program and it's personnel What are the two most important aspects of a successful security program? a. Assist law enforcement and identifying known criminals b. Patrol and crime prevention c. Crime prevention and risk assessment d. Security awareness and crime prevention - Correct Answer-d. Security awareness and crime prevention Why is crime analysis important? - Correct Answer-It helps security monitor the level and types of crime and seasonal fluctuations. How does environmental design promote a safer environment? - Correct Answer- Design areas with: CPTED Clear sight lines Appropriate lighting Unambiguous sinage Sprinkler heads must not have any obstruction or storage within _____ inches of the sprinkler head: a. 12 b. 16 c. 18 d. 20 - Correct Answer-c. 18 What agency requires Hazard Surveillance Rounds? a. Occupational Safety Health Association (OSHA) b. The Joint Commission (TJC) c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) d. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) - Correct Answer-b. The Joint Commission What are the two categories of safety and securities inspections? a. Surveillance surveys and security surveys b. Hazard inspections and security rounds c. Hazard surveillance rounds and security surveys What are the four elements of the "Fish" philosophy? - Correct Answer-1. Choose your attitude 2. Play 3. Make Their day 4. Be present, be there The acronym HEART expresses what: - Correct Answer-Honesty Empathetic Appreciative Respectful Tolerant Research reveals that consumers make buying decisions based on: a. 70% service / 30% product b. 80% service / 20% product c. 90% sevice / 10% product d. 95% sevice / 5% product - Correct Answer-c. 90% sevice / 10% product _____ % of customers stop doing business with an company because they are dissatisifed with the product or service. a. 10 % b. 14% c. 23% d. 31% - Correct Answer-b. 14% ______ % of customers leave because of an attitude of indifference on the part of the service provider. a. 25% b. 50% c. 68% d. 75% - Correct Answer-c. 68% What determines whether a customer is satisfied or not? a. A customer that is visably pleased b. A customers perception of having needs met c. A customers who has had his questions answered d. A customer feeling good - Correct Answer-b. A customers perception of having needs met Key traits security officers should have (7): - Correct Answer-Emotional awareness; concern; Problem solving; Initiative; responsibility; Explaining, and informing What is the most powerful booster of customer service improvement? a. Surveys b. Evaluations c. Benchmarking d. Feedback - Correct Answer-d. Feedback Which legal test takes into account neighborhood crime rates, industry standards, and the owner's experience at other locations? a. Forseeability b. Neglience c. Totality of circumstances d. Duty to invitees - Correct Answer-c. Totality of circumstances The major source of premise liability in healthcare is from: a. Poor lighting b. Slips and falls c. Fire hazards d. Assaults - Correct Answer-b. Slips and falls Property owners have a ________ duty to maintain the property in a ___________ condition. a. Legal / reasonably safe b. Moral / reasonably safe c. Legal / completely safe d. Moral / completely safe - Correct Answer-a. Legal / reasonably safe Which of the following are elements necessary to establish neglience in a premise liability case? a. Duty to the plaintiff b. Failure to meet the duty c. Breech of a duty caused an injury d. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. All of the above Which of the following are examples of risks security officers should identify? a. Burned out lights b. Breached fence lines c. Slip and fall hazards d. All of the above e. A and C only - Correct Answer-d. All of the above What is the definition of premise liability? - Correct Answer-Refers to the legal responsibility a property owner/organization owes to persons/individuals on their property. What are the four elements of neglience: - Correct Answer-1. Legal duty 2. Breech of duty 3. Proximate cause 4. Damages or injury What is Legal Duty - Correct Answer-The responsibility to others to act according to the law. Proving the duty (such as not to be negligent, to keep premises safe, or to drive within the speed limit). Then showing that the duty was breached is a required elements of any lawsuit for damages due to negligence or intentional injuries - Did the property owner have a legal obligation to the claimant? What is Breech of Duty - Correct Answer-When one person or company has a duty of care toward another person or company, but fails to live up to that standard. What is Proximate Cause - Correct Answer-In order for an action to be the proximate cause of an injury, it must be related closely enough through the chain of causation that the act is considered the sufficient cause of the harm. The most common test for determining if an action is sufficiently related to an injury to satisfy proximate cause is whether or not the injury was foreseeable by the person committing the action. - Did the failure to provide the duty cause harm? Damages or Injury - Correct Answer-Were the damages or injury forseeable or apparant? What is CPTED - Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (3) - Correct Answer-Promotes a clear line of sight Created perception of safety Makes criminals feel detected Define: Broken Windows - Correct Answer-Theory: Signs of neglect, ie: broken windows and/or graffiti on buildings indicate no one cares about the area and is not watching it - it invites crime. Failure to conduct routine patrol can ultimately result in what? a. An increase in security spending b. An increase in the organization's revenue c. A liability exposure d. Both A and C - Correct Answer-c. A liability exposure K-9 patrol teams can be particularly effective in dealing with which situation? a. Restraining a patient b. Emergency department violence c. Patrolling patient floors d. Children who are upset - Correct Answer-b. Emergency department violence Bicycle patrol is which one of these? a. Faster than foot patrol and a vehicle in heavy traffic b. Faster than foot patrol, but slower than a vehicle in heavy traffic c. The safest method of patrol d. The slowest method of patrol - Correct Answer-a. Faster than foot patrol and a vehicle in heavy traffic a. Protect the scene, protect yourself, render aid b. Render aid, protect the scene, protect yourself c. Protect yourself, protect the scene, render aid d. Protect yourself, render aid, protect the scene - Correct Answer-d. Protect yourself, render aid, protect the scene What is an informant? - Correct Answer-ANY person that provides information to some sort of authority to help with or identify a wrong (LE, SO, private agency, etc.) What are the three types of informants? - Correct Answer-1. Concerned citizen 2. Public domain source (newspaper, TV, radio, court records, criminal history report) 3. "For personal gain" informant What approach should be followed to determine appropriate protective measures and security and safety practices for off-campus facilities? a. The off-campus facility administrator decides b. Security inspections and risk assessments c. A qualified security professional decides d. The healthcare administrator decides - Correct Answer-b. Security inspections and risk assessments What are three types of security-sensitive facilities that can be located off campus? a. Laundry services, human resources, and senior administration offices b. Research facilities, abortion facilities, and daycare centers c. Centralized information technology/information services, patient record storage, and home healthcare worker services and programs d. Business services, laundry services, and information services - Correct Answer-c. Centralized information technology/information services, patient record storage, and home healthcare worker services and programs What are four of the most important protective measures and security and safety practices for off-campus facilities? a. Ensure personal safety, duress alarms, violence training, and access control systems are in place b. Ensures employees drive safely, test their security equipment, report security incidents, and know when they are in high crime neighborhoods c. Ensure there are appropriate security policies and training, personnel and security systems in place for employees, and security officers working the off-campus locations d. Ensure security policies and personnel are in place, duress alarms are installed and operational and employees know how to use them, and employees report security incidents - Correct Answer-... What are three ways off-campus workers can communicate security emergencies? a. Two-way radios, e-mails, and internet b. Voice-activated radios, e-mails, and internet c. Duress alarms, lone-worker devices, and blue alarm lights d. Cell phones, overhead paging systems, and pagers - Correct Answer-c. Duress alarms, lone-worker devices, and blue alarm lights Which of the following are part of the security officer's role in providing security services and protective measures at off-campus locations? a. Conduct the security risk assessments to determine what security protections are required at off-campus facilities b. Only respond to emergency calls for assistance c. Be alert to, identify, and report specific situations that encourage or make crime more likely at off-campus facilities d. A and C - Correct Answer-c. Be alert to, identify, and report specific situations that encourage or make crime more likely at off-campus facilities The two types of off-campus facilities - Correct Answer-1. Ancillary services and support units 2. Facilities with security sensitive areas Departments that provide clinical support are called: - Correct Answer-Ancillary services Departments that provide non-clinical support are called: - Correct Answer-Support units Types of ancillary and support units (7): - Correct Answer-HR, Payroll, Admin/executive offices, laundry, logistics, daycares, hospice Types of security sensitive facilities located off-campus (8): - Correct Answer-Central IT/IS, Patient records, abortion, labs/research, home healthcare/hospice, outreach home care, clinics, pharmacies Which area poses one of the greatest risks of crime to staff and visitors? a. Main enterance b. Parking areas c. ER room d. HR office - Correct Answer-b. Parking areas The National Crime Victimization Survey indicates that violent and property crime rates have _________ since 1995. a. Increased drastically b. Decreased significantly c. Increased slightly d. Remained the same - Correct Answer-b. Decreased significantly In 2004, _________ million incidents of violent and property crimes were been recorded. a. 15 b. 24 c. 30 d. 41 - Correct Answer-b. 24 Workplace violence is defined as any behavior in a work environment that a reasonable person finds what? a. Intimidating b. Threatening c. Violent d. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. All of the above The Federal Bureau of Investigation characterizes workplace violence into how many broad types? a. Four b. Five c. Three d. Two - Correct Answer-a. Four Which of the following is not an example of abusive behavior? a. Verbal abuse b. Harassing communications c. Simple assault d. Threats - Correct Answer-c. Simple assault According to the Employment Law Alliance study conducted in 2007, how many workers have been victims of abuse at work? a. Nearly a third b. Nearly a half c. Nearly two thirds d. Almost all - Correct Answer-b. Nearly a half Fill in the blank: Violence is the _______ leading cause of death in the workplace. a. Sixth b. Third c. First d. Fourth - Correct Answer-b. Third According to the FBI, what are the four broad types of workplace violence? - Correct Answer-Criminal acts Customer/Client/Patient violence Worker-on-Worker violence Violence steming from a personal relationship Define workplace violence: - Correct Answer-Any behavior that creates a work environment that a reasonable person would find intimidating, threatening, violent, or abusive, regardless of whether the behavior may affect a person's psychological or physical well-being. b. Using untested security systems c. Educating staff and parents d. Conducting extra security rounds - Correct Answer-c. Educating staff and parents Who should take charge in dealing with combative patients? a. Security officers b. Experienced medical staff members c. Law enforcement officers d. Family members - Correct Answer-a. Security officers Which is the most commonly used identification system in security plans to prevent infant abduction? a. Four-bracelet system b. Two-bracelet system c. Six-bracelet system d. None of the above - Correct Answer-a. Four-bracelet system Stalking can be defined as what? a. Unwanted e-mails b. Photographing c. Obsessive phone calls d. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. All of the above What is a forensic patient? - Correct Answer-One who is in the custody of law enforcement by court order or a correctional institution. According to NECMEC, between 2004 and 2010 _____ infants were abducted by non- family members from healthcare facilities. a. 3 b. 10 c. 19 d. 25 - Correct Answer-b. 10 Your effectiveness in dealing with behavior problems depends on what? a. Your size b. Your verbal communication skills c. Your strength d. Your sex - Correct Answer-b. Your verbal communication skills There are how many routes of infection transmission? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. None of the above - Correct Answer-b. Three Who requires that security officers be able to demonstrate age-specific competence when interacting with children and the elderly? a. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration b. The American Medical Association c. The Joint Commission d. The National Center for Missing and Exploited Children - Correct Answer-c. The Joint Commission The National Center for Missing and Exploited Children has published which of the following? a. An abduction prevention and response plan all facilities are required to use b. A booklet to assist in developing an abduction prevention and response plan c. An abduction prevention and response plan only for infants d. An abduction prevention and response plan only for pediatrics - Correct Answer-b. A booklet to assist in developing an abduction prevention and response plan How can security and medical staff ease tension in an emergency department waiting room? a. Both parties agree to ignore the patients b. Send the patients to a nearby emergency department c. Form a system of constant communication d. None of the above - Correct Answer-c. Form a system of constant communication Three ways infections can be transmitted in a patient interaction. - Correct Answer-1. Airborne 2. Contact 3. Droplet Two characteristics that pediatric and geriatric patients share. - Correct Answer-1. Mental competence 2. Vulnerability Complicating factors in restraining an elderly patient. - Correct Answer-1. Skin easily bruised, can tear, and bleed 2. Fragile bones, break easily 3. Don't underestimate their strength List airborne transmission diseases: - Correct Answer-TB / Measles / Chicken Pox List contact transmissions diseases: - Correct Answer-Staph skin infections / Herpes simplex virus / Lice Scabies / Chocken Pox / Conjunctivitis List droplet transmission diseases: - Correct Answer-Diptheria / Rubella / Influenza / Some types of meningitis / some viral & bacterial respiratory diseases What agency requires employers to provide safeguards, including training about infectious hazards and methods of exposure prevention? a. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration b. The American Medical Association c. The Joint Commission d. Department of Health and Human Services - Correct Answer-a. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration Which of the following is NOT an outward sign of gang activity? a. Group comprised of the same ethic origin b. Tagging buildings c. Similar skin tattoos d. Hand signals - Correct Answer-a. Group comprised of the same ethic origin A healthcare security or police officer should do what during a labor dispute? a. Conduct mediation b. Sympathize with friends c. Remain objective d. None of the above - Correct Answer-c. Remain objective A healthcare security department should do this with any photographic or video evidence from a civil dispute? a. Destroy it b. Turn it over to the organization's legal department c. Provide all employees with a copy d. Submit a copy to the union representative - Correct Answer-b. Turn it over to the organization's legal department Which of the following is a challenge encountered by healthcare security when dealing with a VIP? a. Increased access control b. Patient privacy c. News media d. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. All of the above What is the term used to describe individuals who pose as Licensed healthcare providers? a. Professional patients b. Medical imposters c. VIPs d. Disruptive persons - Correct Answer-b. Medical imposters What should you do when interacting with a disruptive person - Correct Answer-1. Lower your voice so they need to listen to you 2. Allow personal space - don't get too close 3. See their hands - look for weapons d. Biometrics - Correct Answer-c. Delayed egress lock What is the most common type of credential reader used today? a. Iris b. Card c. Retina d. Fingerprint - Correct Answer-b. Card What is an integrated security system? - Correct Answer-A central command and control using a common interface that shares data and performs as if it were one system. It brings together sub-systems. What is a sub-system? - Correct Answer-Sub-systems work together so that one system, not many, controls security. Fail-secure lock: - Correct Answer-Does NOT require power to lock - remains locked when power is lost. Fail-safe lock: - Correct Answer-REQUIRES power to lock - remains unlocked during power outage. Electronic locking devices: - Correct Answer-Operate in conjunction with the electronic access control system. Requires power to operate, locks for doors can be remotely controlled. Electrified locksets: - Correct Answer-The retracting of the latching device in the door from the secure side requires the removal of power to unlock the door. Electric strike: - Correct Answer-Device is located in the door frame and used with a standard mechanical lockset. Lockset remains locked until the strike in the door frame releases the lock. Elecrtomagnetic locks: - Correct Answer-They are fail-safe locks, require power to always remain locked. NFPA 101 must be met. Delayed egress locks: - Correct Answer-Door unlocks after 15/30 second delay. Used in areas where NFPA 101 does not ordinarily permit locking door. Three types of credentials: - Correct Answer-Something you have (card) Something you know (password) Something you are (fingerprint/eye scan) Sometimes #4 - someone you know Control panels: - Correct Answer-The communication devices between the field device and the computer that regulate and monitors the system. What is RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks)? - Correct Answer-A data storage virtualization technology that combines multiple disk drive components into a logical unit for the purposes of data redundancy and performance improvement. An IP camera's resolution is measured in CIF (common intermediate format) with a resolution of _____ pixels. a. 352 x 240 b. 352 x 350 c. 400 x 240 d. 400 x 204 - Correct Answer-a. 352 x 240 A megapixel camera increases the resolution to between _____ and _____ times CIF or higher: a. 8 x 16 b. 16 x 32 c. 32 x 64 d. 64 x 120 - Correct Answer-b. 16 x 32 What are most frequently used to form an integrated security system? a. Access control, Duress alarm, CCTV b. Cameras, alarms, locksets c. Alarms, locksets, CCTV d. Access control, alarm, CCTV - Correct Answer-d. Access control, alarm, CCTV What make up secondary sub-systems of security? (4) - Correct Answer-Fire/emergency alarms; elevator control; patient protection systems; HVAC What imposes significant requirements so that doors unlock appropriately in an integrated security system with electronic access control? a. ASIS 101 b. IAHSS 101 c. NFPA 101 d. OSHA 101 - Correct Answer-c. NFPA 101 Whis of the following is an example of an external incident? a. Infant abduction b. Bomb threat c. Major incident with incoming casualties d. Armed robbery - Correct Answer-c. Major incident with incoming casualties When does the initial response to a critical incident begin? a. When the security officer arrives at the scene b. When the incident is reported c. When law enforcement arrives at the scene d. When all injjured persons have been treated - Correct Answer-b. When the incident is reported When responding to a critical incident, what is the first action an officer should take? a. Fully document the incident b. Secure any crime scene evidence c. Ensure the offier's safety d. None of the above - Correct Answer-c. Ensure the offier's safety Which of the following could cause critical incident stress? a. Death of a co-worker b. Incidents involving children c. Experiencing threatening behavior or physical violence d. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. All of the above ________ produced by security personnel should always be viewed as important and conform to required formats. a. Verbal commands b. Documentation c. Statements d. None of the above - Correct Answer-b. Documentation What is a critical incident? - Correct Answer-Any incident that may result in, or have the potential to result in, serious injury or major damage to property, or severely impair the operation of the organization. Which of the following is not a criterion for defining a profession? a. Strictly job performance b. A code of ethics c. Recognized body of knowledge d. Authority recognized by those served - Correct Answer-... Which of these continuing education topics is least applicable to healthcare security? a. Conflict resolution b. Hazardous materials management c. Patient safety measures d. Patient privacy issues - Correct Answer-b. Hazardous materials management Who must take responsibility for your advancment as a professional security officer? a. Your supervisor b. Your employer c. You d. Your family - Correct Answer-c. You What is the role of the IAHSS in the area of healthcare security and safety? a. To be a watchdog to the industry Gang members ____________ wear similar color clothing to show their gang affiliation. a) Always b) Never c) May - Correct Answer-c) May A "Professional Patient" is someone who is seeking: a) Attention b) Controlled substances c) A hiding place d) Housing e) All of the above - Correct Answer-e) All of the above When dealing with the media after a critical incident, an officer should: a) Provide no comments b) Direct all inquiries to the designated media contact person c) Engage in scene control d) All of the above e) A & C only - Correct Answer-d) All of the above Typical crimes committed by the homeless in Healthcare facilities include: a) Homicide, assault, kidnapping or panhandling b) Homicide, assault, suicide or panhandling c) Homicide, assault, theft or disorderly conduct d) Homicide, assault, browsing or panhandling - Correct Answer-c) Homicide, assault, theft or disorderly conduct "Munchausen Syndrome" is characterized by: a) Hypochondriacs b) Patients who feign illness and subject themselves to potentially harmful medical procedures c) Professional patients seeking drugs d) Homeless patients seeking shelter - Correct Answer-b) Patients who feign illness and subject themselves to potentially harmful medical The duty to protect persons on property against the criminal acts of a third party does not normally arise until the criminal acts become: a) Planned b) Foreseeable c) Unavoidable d) None of the above - Correct Answer-b) Foreseeable If a healthcare organization wishes to minimize the risk of a negligent lawsuit they should: a) Implement proper security policies and procedures b) Provide proper equipment c) Conduct a proper security risk assessment d) Correct noted deficiencies if an assessment was conducted e) All the above - Correct Answer-e) All the above The key factors in evaluating the security risk potential in parking facilities include: a) The location b) The history of security problems c) The designated use during high-risk hours d) All of the above - Correct Answer-d) All of the above The best safeguards against medical imposters are tight access control, _________ and an alert staff. a) Card access control system b) Photo identification c) Security officer on every floor. d) None of the above - Correct Answer-b) Photo identification Remote video monitoring can be conducting over: a) Local Area Network/Wide Area Network b) Internet c) Regular telephone line d) All of the above - Correct Answer-d) All of the above Which of the following is not one of the legal elements of negligence? a) Legal duty of care b) Breach of legal duty c) Damages exceeded $1,000 d) Injury - Correct Answer-c) Damages exceeded $1,000 In the event of a fire, doors connected to the Access Control System should: a) Automatically release (fail-safe) b) Remain locked because fire alarms are frequently used as a diversion c) Not be linked with the Fire Alarm System d) Release when pulled on - Correct Answer-a) Automatically release (fail-safe) What type of patrol is the one that can often bring the best results? a) Canine Patrol b) Bicycle Patrol c) Foot Patrol d) Motorized Vehicle patrol - Correct Answer-c) Foot Patrol If patrolling in a motorized security patrol, what general rules must be followed? a) All city, county and state laws should be observed and followed at all times b) All vehicles should be for official use only and no unauthorized passengers should be allowed c) All operators should have a valid drivers license in there possession d) All of the above - Correct Answer-d) All of the above What organization's general duty clause requires hospitals and healthcare organizations to identify departments, work areas, and groups of employees especially vulnerable to workplace violence? a) Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) b) State Department of Health c) Health Care Finance Administration (HCFA) d) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) - Correct Answer-d) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Workplace violence includes which of the following: a) Shootings b) Suicide c) An intimidating presence d) All of the above - Correct Answer-d) All of the above Hazardous surveillance rounds are a requirement of: a) IAHSS b) OSHA c) TJC d) EPA - Correct Answer-c) TJC Which of the following is a criteria that is utilized to determine risk? a) Occurrences b) Staffing Levels c) Frequency d) Criticality - Correct Answer-d) Criticality The abduction of an infant or a child is considered to be a ____________ by The Joint Commission (TJC) a) Sentinel Event b) Custody Case c) Security Sensitive Area d) All of the above - Correct Answer-a) Sentinel Event The NIOSH defines workplace violence as: a) Physical threats made by a former employee b) Physical violence between two coworkers c) Harassment of any nature d) Violent acts committed by a former employee - Correct Answer-c) Harassment of any nature What percent of customers just go away because of an attitude of indifference? a) 5% b) 10%