IAHSS Chapter Exam Questions With 100% Correct And Verified Answers 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

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IAHSS Chapter Exam Questions With

100% Correct And Verified Answers 2024

Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations discussed in this chapter? a. proprietary or for-profit b. not-for-profit c. government-supported d. individual healthcare - Correct Answer-Individual healthcare Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? a. Drugs are used and stored in the facility b. Mostly female staff c. High percentage of technical and professional staff d. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open - Correct Answer-High percentage of technical and professional staff Which of the follwing is usually at the top of the organizational chart? a. board of directors b. department leaders c. assistant administrators d. vice presidents - Correct Answer-Board of Directors Which of the following statements best describes employees? a. medical staff contracted by the facility b. all staff directly employed by the facility c. volunteers who donate their time d. contracted persons - Correct Answer-All staff directly employed by the facility Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of program? a. strong and effective b. a program that works in a small part of the facility c. generally effective d. strong and simple - Correct Answer-Strong and Effective How should friendships and interpersonal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? a. Discouraged b. Encouraged c. Encouraged, but monitored d. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism - Correct Answer-Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism

Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? a. crime analysis b. risk assessments c. benchmarking - Correct Answer-Benchmarking What should the most primary overriding concern of any security department be? a. It's image b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility c. the goals and missions of the entity employing the security services d. Cost-effectiveness - Correct Answer-The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? a. good observation skills b. good communication skills c. tolerance d. all the above - Correct Answer-All the above Why are vendors potentially a high-security risk to a health care facility? a. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organizations may know very little about vendors background. b. vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband c. completing vendors may clash at a facility d. vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft - Correct Answer-Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organizations may know very little about vendors background In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? a. patient's parents or legal guardians b. nursing staff c. attending physician d. the patient provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so - Correct Answer-The patient provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so Which of the following is NOT an example of an external customer? a. patients b. vendors c. employees d. regulatory agencies - Correct Answer-Employees

Which of the following does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public? a. clean uniform b. wearing the uniform shirt untucked c. well-cared-for uniform d. shined footwear - Correct Answer-Wearing the uniform shirt untucked Which of the following is NOT an example of undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer? a. bad attitude b. dishonesty c. impoliteness d. confidence - Correct Answer-Confidence What is the relationship between employees and management sometimes called? a. employee relations b. protest management decisions c. family interactions d. tense conversation - Correct Answer-Employee relations Which of the following may union members NOT do during a picketing? a. carry signs b. protest management decisions c. block entrances to the facility d. congregate outside the facility - Correct Answer-Block entrances to the facility The speech pattern related to your tone of voice is considered which form of communication? a. nonverbal communication b. paraverbal communication c. excessive dialogue communication d. passive communication - Correct Answer-Paraverbal Communication Which of the following is not a proper technique to use when providing a good customer service? a. giving the customer your undivided attention b. offering the customer a place to sit c. asking the customer if you can take notes d. looking at your watch every few minutes - Correct Answer-Looking at your watch every few minutes "Perception is reality"--Which of the following is important for the security professional to remember regarding this statement? a. all interactions are subject to personal interpretation b. positive nonverbal and paraverbals will influence the "perception" of customers

c. a customer's prior history of interaction may impact their initial impression of security in either an adverse or positive way d. All of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above Which of the following are powerful reasons to advocate and promote strong customer services? a. strong customer service prevents violence and helps preserve a safe therapeutic environment b.customer service supports people in crisis and may have a lasting impact for the customer c. strong customer service allows security officers opportunities to problem solve with a person in crisis d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above the L.A.S.T. technique in managing complaints requires security progessionals to: a. listen, apply, select, thank b. learn, apologize, solve, turnover c. listen, apologize, solve, thank d. look, act, supply, touch - Correct Answer-Listen, Apologize, Solve, Thank Which of the following environmental factors can contribute to customer dissatisfaction and anxiety? a. lack of privacy and crowding b. excessive noise c. lack of access to refreshments d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above Which of the following is NOT a reason organizations should use teams? a. teams can solve problems b. teams can help make organizational decisions c. teams encourage personal to become involved in planning d. forming a team ensures the team will be successful - Correct Answer-Forming a team ensures the team will be successful The security department would be an example of what type of team? a. a project team b. a management team c. a process improvement team d. an ongoing or functional team - Correct Answer-An ongoing or functional team To be successful, teams need which of the following? a. access to resources b. access to people in the know c. clearly defined purposes d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above

Which of the following is a challenge to teamwork? a. relevance b. purpose c. scope d. cost - Correct Answer-Relevance Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? a. forming b. norming c. storming d. rounding - Correct Answer-Rounding Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? a. getting to know the community b. establishing postie relationships and partnerships c. improving communications d. using the security vehicles to go offsite - Correct Answer-Using the security vehicle to go offsite Which is the most common patrol approach? a. inconspicuous b. routine c. conspicuous d. foot - Correct Answer-Foot Which of the following are the three key elements to a good patrol? a. hearing, documentation, and memory b. observation, perception, and memory c. perception, memory, and documentation d. time, memory, and perception - Correct Answer-Observation, perception, and memory Which type of patrol covers all areas equally? a. selective b. directed c. vehicle d. routine - Correct Answer-Routine Which one of these is an example of something you should do while patrolling? a. let employees know you are in the area b. get careless c. be a hero unnecessarily d. get separated from your equipment - Correct Answer-Let employees know you are in the area Security officers must interact in a professional manner with group of people?

a. visitors b. employees c. physicians d. everyone who comes in the door - Correct Answer-Everyone who comes in the door Which trait or skill NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? a. strong communication skills b. tact/diplomacy c. Inability to maintain trust and confidence d. ability to express care and understanding - Correct Answer-Inability to maintain trust and confidence In which way is a security officer likely to interact with a patient? a. picking up or returning a patient's valuables b. investigating lost or stolen property c. helping resolve domestic disputes occurring at the facility d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above Which is the not a category of a missing patient? a. eloped patient incapable of self-protection, left without the knowledge of clinical staff b. wandering/straying patient out of clinical staff view with no intent of leaving c. patient that has completed treatment is discharged and has left the facility d. patient leaving against medical advice (AMA) informed of the risk - Correct Answer- Patient that has completed treatment is discharged and has left the facility Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor? a. be aware of the visitor's emotional state/anxiety level b. be unfeeling/unreasonable c. treat the visitor with respect d. show empathy and respect - Correct Answer-Be unfeeling/ unreasonable Which of the following are common types of law violations that may occur in hospitals? a. burglary b. trespassing c. assault d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above Related to physical interactions and body language, which answer most accurately reflects a "reaction zone" according to the manual? a. less than two feet b. more than two feet c. four to six feet d. seven to nine feet - Correct Answer-Four to six feet Handling the emotion before attempting to handle the problem is one type of de- escalation technique.

a. true b. false - Correct Answer-True Which of the following is not a security officer/subject consideration, related to use of force a. age b. size c. injury d. scars - Correct Answer-Scars Under no circumstances may handcuffs be used in a healthcare environment. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-False Which of the following is a professional attribute? a. image b. posture c. attitude d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following? a. take an interest in the job b. look for ways to improve safety c. call a routine duty a waste of time d. look for ways to improve recommended procedures - Correct Answer-Call a routine duty a waste of time Non-verbal communication accounts for what percentage of communication? a. 57 percent b. 49 percent c. 89 percent d. 94 percent - Correct Answer-94 Percent Which organization developed a Code of Ethics for the healthcare security profession? a. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) b. National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA) c. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) d. Department of Public Health (DPH) - Correct Answer-International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) Which of the following is NOT and IAHSS training course? a. basic certification for the healthcare security officer b. advanced certification for the healthcare security officer c. supervisory certification for healthcare security personal d. cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) - Correct Answer-Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)

You should pay close attention to which elements of your speech when speaking with a patient, visitor, or staff member? a. timing, velocity, and character b. tenor, vibration, and cannon c. tempo, volume, and cadence d. tempo, variation, and candor - Correct Answer-Tempo, Volume, and Cadence What is the key factor in tactical deployment? a. availability of other officers b. waiting for a supervisor c. control of distance d. time - Correct Answer-Control of Distance During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual? a. 2 to 4 feet b. 4 to 6 feet c. 6 to 10 feet d. 10 feet or more - Correct Answer-4 to 6 feet What is your primary goal in using tactical evaluation? a. to determine where to approach a subject b. to determine the legality of interviewing between two people who are fighting c. to determine if the design of a waiting room is conducive to security needs d. to determine the level of threat - Correct Answer-To determine the level of threat What is the force continuum? a. the force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force b. the force that officers use on non-compliant persons c. a form used to report on incidents involving use of force d. none of the above - Correct Answer-The force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force What is the overall goal in using any physical intervention? a. to cause pain to a subject refusing your directions b. to pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject c. to stop people running from you d. to show fellow staff members you are effective at your job - Correct Answer-To pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject Should security officers should provide mental health counseling to person in need> a. always b. never c. sometimes d. only when asked by individual in need - Correct Answer-Never

When should crisis intervention occur? a. planning phase b. mitigation phase c. response phase d. recovery phase e. a and c only f. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above In which of the following situations should crisis intervention be performed? a. in physical confrontation b. in cyber security incidents c. when threat and risk assessments dictate d. any of the above e. none of the above - Correct Answer-When threat and risk assessments dictate Which of the following applies to crisis intervention? a. threats to life b. threats to physical property c. threats to intangible property d. threats to financial stability of company e. all the above - Correct Answer-all the above Who should be involved in crisis intervention? a. security staff b. senior management staff c. clinical staff d. a and b only e. a multi-disciplinary group identified by company policy - Correct Answer-A multi- disciplinary group identified by company policy All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions? a. eight b. three c. six d. four - Correct Answer-Six Which of the following is NOT one of the security officer's cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview? a. impartiality b. impatience c. sensitivity d. confidentiality - Correct Answer-Impatience Who should be allowed to enter the crime scene? a. the CEO

b. the police detective investigating c. the first responders assisting with medical care of the injured d. the security officer responding to the scene - Correct Answer-The security officer responding to the scene When conducting interviews you should never ask the following questions? a. exploring questions b. probing questions c. open-ended questions d. all of the above - Correct Answer-Probing questions When photographing a scene you should never use this as a scale? a. a ruler b. ID badge c. sharpened pencil d. money - Correct Answer-Sharpened Pencil A good report writer has a balanced blend of which of these? a. awareness, skills, know-how b. opinions, skills, knowledge c. outlook, skills knowledge d. attitude, skills, and knowledge - Correct Answer-Attitude, Skills, and Knowledge Which of the following is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing a. gather information b. record information c. write reports d. examine the report - Correct Answer-Examine the report Which of the following is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents? a. security incident report b. supplemental security report c. investigation security report d. auto accident report - Correct Answer-Investigation security report When should reports be written? a. by the end of the week? b. by the end of the shift c. by the end of the month d. by the end of the next day - Correct Answer-By the end of the shift A security officer should carry a notebook for all of the following reasons except which one? a. to write down all the facts for an incident report b. to keep a list of emergency telephone numbers

c. to note safety hazards d. to keep track of food orders - Correct Answer-To keep track of food orders Which of the following does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities? a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid b. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) d. The Joint Commission - Correct Answer-International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) Which agency provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence? a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid b. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) d. The Joint Commission - Correct Answer-Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) The general rule for keeping reports is how long? a. at least 5 to 7 years b. permanently c. at least 10 years d. at least 3 to 5 years - Correct Answer-At least 5 to 7 years Which external groups should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report? a. insurance company b. corporate attorney c. law enforcement d. newspaper - Correct Answer-Newspaper Which of these departments in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports? a. administration b. human resources c. public relations d. nutrition services - Correct Answer-Nutrition Services Which of the following is an example of a tort committed by a security officer that may result in civil litigation and liability? a. excessive use of force b. false arrest c. malicious prosecution d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above A warrant is issued by whom? a. a law enforcement officer b. a judicial officer

c. a prosecutor d. a defense attorney - Correct Answer-A Judicaial Officer What is a misdemeanor? a. a crime punishable by imprisonment for more than a year b. a violation of the municipal court c. any offense other than a felony d. a violation of the state's penal code - Correct Answer-Any offense other than a felony In criminal law, how must guilty be determined? a. beyond a reasonable doubt b. by the preponderance of evidence c. by that degree of proof which is more probable than not d. by the prosecutor - Correct Answer-Beyond a resonable doubt In any trial, who is the trier of law? a. the prosecutor b. the defense attorney c. the judge d. the jury - Correct Answer-The Judge Which of the following do the initials CPTED stand for? a. crime prevention through environmental design b. crime prevention through experimental design c. campus prevention through environmental design d. critical performance through environmental design - Correct Answer-Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design Which of the following should be protected by bollards? a. sidewalks b. curbs c. hydrants d. trees - Correct Answer-Hydrants Define ADA a. Americans with discounts act b. Americans with disabilities act c. Americans without discounts d. Americans with Disabilities action - Correct Answer-Americans With Disabiliteis Act What is the definition of crowd control? a. techniques used to manage lawful public assemblies b. allowing first amendment activities c. allowing demonstrations d. techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies - Correct Answer-techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies.

Which of the following is NOT true about video surveillance? a. should be recorded at all times b. should be fully functional at all times c. dummy cameras are accepted methods of surveillance d. should be monitored if possible - Correct Answer-dummy cameras are accepted methods of surveillance The average length of a patient stay in an acute care hospital is how long? a. 25 to 30 days b. 3 to 6 days c. 10 to 12 days d. 15 to 20 days - Correct Answer-25 to 30 days Which type of unit takes a patient who no longer requires specific medical treatment on an inpatient basis but cannot be returned home? a. transition unit b. intensive care unit c. medical-surgical unit d. step-down unit - Correct Answer-transition unit The Centers for Medical and Medicaid Services (CMS) is a division of which of the following? a. the joint commission b. occupational safety and health administration (osha) c. US Department of Health and Human Services (hhs) d. Long term acute care (LTAC) hospital - Correct Answer-US Department of Health and Human services ( hhs) HCAHPS Survey scorers are important primarily because: a. they increase the hospital's market share b. hospitals may be eligible for additional reimbursement based on survey scores c. they measure patient satisfaction d. they allow for comparison of hospitals by consumers - Correct Answer-they allow for comparison of hospitals by consumers Which of the following is a Licensed Independent Practitioner (LIP)? a. physician's assistant b. doctorate nurse practitioner (DNP) c. nurse practitioner d. both a and c - Correct Answer-both a and c Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the business office? a. registration b. environmental services c. cashier

d. accounts receivable - Correct Answer-environmental services The act of a patient using someone else's information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called what? a. medication-seeking patient b. suspicious activity c. identification hijacking d. medical identity theft - Correct Answer-medical identity theft Access to patient information is limited to those who "need to know" by which of the following? a. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) d. Centers for Medicare and medicaid (CMS) - Correct Answer-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Escorts for valuables and cash should be done at the same time each day and should follow the same route through the facility a true b false - Correct Answer-false Which of the following is NOT a function security provides for the business office/financial service areas? a. patrol b. customer relations c. refunding payment d. investigations - Correct Answer-refunding payments Which of the following defines over-the-counter medications? a. anything that one can inject, inhale, or absorb into the body that is designed to improve condition b. remedies or cures c. do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter d. controlled substances. - Correct Answer-do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? a. Heroin, MJ, Methaqualone b. Morphine, cocaine, Methadone c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax - Correct Answer-Morphine, cocaine, Methadone Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug diversion method? a. fraudulent prescriptions

b. falsify a patient's charts c. keep unused drugs after surgery d. obtain a prescription from your physician - Correct Answer-obtain a prescription from your physician In which year was the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) enacted? a. 1970 b. 1972 c. 1968 d. 1984 - Correct Answer- Which of the following staff may enter the compounding area in a pharmacy? a. housekeeping aide b. licensed pharmacist c. pharmacy secretary d. pharmacy technician - Correct Answer-licensed pharmist Which of these conditions make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients? a. age and ethnicity b. reputation of the healthcare organization c. short wait periods d. drugs and alcohol impairment - Correct Answer-drugs and alcohol impairment The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? a. every two years b. every six months c. every year d. monthly - Correct Answer-every year Which of the following is NOT a type of mental health unit? a. closed caption b. open c. closed d. outpatient - Correct Answer-closed caption Which of the following is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit? a. during meal delivery and consumption b. voluntary hospitalization c. during the transportation of the patient d. involuntary hospitalization - Correct Answer-voluntary hospitalization Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient? a. short wait periods b. calm atmosphere c. food selection

d. attire - Correct Answer-food selection Which of the following is true of behavioral patients in emergency departments? a. often have longer lengths of stay due to placement issues b. must be managed with both situational control and empathy c. are often placed in retrofitted areas d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Which of the following does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or a behavioral patient care unit? a. 24/7 coverage b. supplementation by police c. as-needed coverage d. security has no role in these areas - Correct Answer-security has no role in these areas Why are departments and units that provide care for infant and pediatric patients of special concern to security officers? a. they are where the most crime happens in a hospital b. children are kidnapped from hospitals almost everyday c. in addition to the heartbreak the family experiences, an abduction brings a swarm of reporters, bad publicity, and law enforcement agencies to the facility d. infant and pediatric units are the busiest units in every hospital - Correct Answer-in addition to the heartbreak the family experiences, an abduction brings a swarm of reporters, bad publicity, and law enforcement agencies to the facility Which of the following is a role of the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children? a. provide things that healthcare organizations can do to "harden the target" b. develop a profile of the typical kidnapper c. provide suggested training for nursing, security, and other personnel d. none of the above e. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above Why is it important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical profile of an abductor? a. so they can help law enforcement put our a description b. to design the facility's security to make it as hard as possible for the typical abductor to kidnap a child c. to convince the facility to hire more security d. so they can use the information to talk to security departments in other healthcare facilities - Correct Answer-to design the facility's security to make it as hard as possible for the typical abductor to kidnap a child. Who needs to be trained about the facility's system for protecting children from abductions?

a. mothers, husbands, significant others, and family b. nursing on affected units c. security d. all facility employees e. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security's first response be? a. rush to the affected unit and interview the parent b. call the national center for missing and exploited children c. grab the department's camera and take pictures of everyone who exists the emergency department d. immediately go to the property exits--doors, garages etc.-- stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in - Correct Answer-immediately go to the property exits--doors, garages etc.-- stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction? a. leave their offices, go out the closest door and assemble in the street b. go to their assigned areas (doo, stairs, elevator, and assemble in the street) c. call the security office and volunteer to help if needed d. stay inside their offices and out of the way - Correct Answer-go to their assigned areas (doo, stairs, elevator, and assemble in the street) Which of the following is in a medical record? a. Information about physical health b. information about family relationships c. information about sexual behaviors d. information about substance abuse e. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Why it is important that a medical record be kept secure and confidential? a. if released, it may influence a person's ability to obtain credit, gain admission to educational institutions, and gain employment b. if released, the spouse may divorce the patient c. if released, the physician may refuse to treat the patient d. it is not important and may be released to anyone - Correct Answer-if released, it may influence a person's ability to obtain credit, gain admission to educational institutions, and gain employment. Which statement best describes the ways to secure the medical records department? a. keep the doors locked b. require all medical records to be signed out c. only allow physicians to access the department d. use one of the following access control systems: lock and key

combination locks badge readers with access cards biometrics - Correct Answer-use one of the following access control systems: lock and key combination locks badge readers with access cards biometrics What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician? a. clinicians are never allowed to release any patient information to anyone b. only patient information of interest to the security officer c. only patient information that is critical to the performance of security officer duties d. none of the above - Correct Answer-only patient information that is critical to the performance of security officer duties Which of these actions is HIPPA violation? a. You observe a victim being brought into the emergency department suffering from a gunshot wound. You hear medical staff comments about the victim's condition. You tell the paramedic from the ambulance about the victim's condition. b. You are on duty signing in visitors at the hospital. You access the patient census on your computer for reference. You leave to direct a visitor and leave the monitor plain view for passers-by c. you used your password to open an EHR and read the contents d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Which of the following is an example of an ancillary service? a. food services b. maintenance c. pharmacy d. none of the above - Correct Answer-pharmacy Which of the following is a security issue for employees of support or ancillary services? a. well-staffed during the day b. isolated at night c. mix of certified and noncertified employees d. located in the center of the facility - Correct Answer-isolated at night What support service is often the most likely to be overlooked during the onboarding background check? a. plant services b. housekeeping c. volunteers d. laboratory - Correct Answer-volunteers Employees of which department are found all over the facility and often unlock all doors to the department they are working in at the time?

a. radiology b. materials management c. bio-metrics d. housekeeping - Correct Answer-housekeeping The security department is considered which type of department? a. support b. clinical c. direct patient care d. service - Correct Answer-support Which of the following defines vulnerability? a. the act of being physically wounded b. a weakness or flaw that can be exploited c. possibility of a loss d. the act of being attacked - Correct Answer-a weakness or flaw that can be exploited Which of the following is NOT an important risk measurement tool? a. security inspections and surveys b. security patrol and incident reports c. law enforcement crime statistic reports and analyses d. irregular patrols by untrained personnel - Correct Answer-irregular patrols by untrained personnel Which of the following would present a higher level of risk to an organization? a. a threat that has a high probability of occurring and will have a low impact if it does b. a threat that has a high probability of occurring and will have a high impact if it does occur c. a threat that has a moderate probability of occurring and will have a low impact it if does occur d. a threat that has a low probability of occurring and will have a high impact if it does occur - Correct Answer-a threat that has a high probability of occurring and will have a high impact if it does occur Which agency issued guidelines for workplace violence? a. the Joint Commission b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA) d. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE) - Correct Answer-Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) A security officer can play a key role in risk management by doing what? a. telling nurses and other employees about stories in the news of shootings and other risks to health care facilities to increase their awareness b. arresting or detaining any suspicious persons who may be planning a robbery or assault

c. checking patient's medical records to ensure that nurses have correctly documented when restraints are used d. identifying possible threats, vulnerabilities, and opportunities to recommend countermeasures which may lower the overall risk to your organization - Correct Answer-identifying possible threats, vulnerabilities, and opportunities to recommend countermeasures which may lower the overall risk to your organization Which of the following are sources of intelligence gathering for risk and vulnerability issues? a. local crime index reports b. hospital incident reports c. area hospital incidents d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above