Download Immunology and Pathology Concepts and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024 1. B-lymphocytes - Correct Answer ..., Responsible for humoral immunity. B-Cells are exposed to an antigen. When they encounter an antigen they imprint the antigen. Every bacteria has an antigenic site or antigenic marker. Immune system will respond to marker. 2. Types of immunity - Correct Answer ..., Natural active immunity,Natural passive immunity,Artificial active immunity,Artificial passive immunity 3. Immunotope - Correct Answer ... 4. Epitope - Correct Answer ..., An area of the antigen molecle that stimulates the production of, and combines with, specific antibodies; also know as the antigenic determinant site 5. Paratope - Correct Answer ..., what is the name of the part of the antibody that interacts with the antigen? 6. IgA - Correct Answer ..., (1) 10-15% of total Ig in serum (2) predominant in secretions like breast milk, saliva, tears, mucous (3) primarily exists as monomer; secretory IgA is dimer or tetramer 7. IgE - Correct Answer ..., 1% of serum antibody, half life 2.5 days, helminth infections, binds to mast cells via FcεR (mediates allergic reaction, triggers mast cell degranulation) 8. IgG - Correct Answer ..., 2nd to respond, formed in lg quantities & work in the blood & tissues. They bind to destructive pathogens so that the immune cells (for example, macrophage) have an easier time ingesting them. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta i 9. IgM - Correct Answer ..., 31. The most potent activator of classical complement., first to appear on the surface of B cells 10.Endogenous antigens - Correct Answer ..., infected host cells display pathogen proteins externally and are recognized as foreign; infected cell with virus and the viral antigens surround it 11.Herpes virus - Correct Answer ...,, 1) HSV-1 - oral herpes, STD and contact, no vaccine, lifetime infection, treat the symptoms, sore 12.Maternal antibody - Correct Answer ..., Natural, passive immunity, IgG, maternal IgG crosses placent, Antibody in a newborn animal which the newborn acquired through the placenta or colostrum (the first milk). 13.Hypersensitivity reactions - Correct Answer ..., Different types; unexpected outcome after the administration of a medication; usually immune (IgE) mediated if previously exposed (Type I Hypersensitivity reaction); ranges from rash/hives to anaphylaxis (life threatening)- Cell mediated 14.Development of allergies Alloimmunity - Correct Answer ..., Mast cell degranulates releasing histamine into tissue - histamine binds to receptors on endothelial cells - results in allergic symptoms. 15.Autoimmunity - Correct Answer ..., Antigens trigger the formation of abnormal IgG in tissue and plasma, activates complement, An immune response directed against one's own self antigens. 16.Systemic Lupus Erythematosus - Correct Answer ..., An autoimmune disease where the body's immune system damages its own tissues and cells. Characteristics are a bad rash or skin lesions. 40-50% of lupus patients develop renal disease, others develop hemolysis and anemia. Cause unknown. 17.Graves Disease - Correct Answer ..., Autoantibody (IgG) that stimulates TSH receptor (type II hypersensitivity), An autoimmune disease, in which antibodies against the TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) receptor in thyroid epithelial cell membranes bind to it permanently and mimic the effects of TSH binding. This results in continual release of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream, causing the symptoms of hyperthyroidism. 18.Morbidity & mortality - Correct Answer ..., illness & deaths, Morbidity = presence of disease Mortality= deaths 19.Bacteria & Fungi - Correct Answer ..., Bacteria are larger, easily grown in the lab, and can be seen with regular microscopes. Generally they can be treated successfully with antibiotics however, many bacteria are now becoming resistant to antibiotics., Fungi- kingdom of complex organisms that obtain food by breaking down other substances in their surroundings and absorbing the nutrients. 20.Fungal infection mechanism - Correct Answer ... 21.Cytokine - Correct Answer ... 22.HIV seronegativity - Correct Answer ... 23. Infectivity - Correct Answer ..., Capacity of an agent to enter and multiply in a susceptible host and thus produce infection or disease. 50.Aspiration - Correct Answer ..., Breathing fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs 51.Gas exchange in the lungs - Correct Answer ..., PARTS OF THE HEART: The heart is a pump. Blood returns to the heart through veins into the RIGHT ATRIUM and get pushed down to the RIGHT VENTRICLE. The blood then travels to the lungs. Oxygen-rich blood returns from the lungs to the LEFT ATRIUM and gets squeezed into the LEFT VENTRICLE. The blood then leaves the left ventricle through the arteries to the body. 52.Physiologic changes in pulmonary system - Correct Answer ... 53.Gonococcal infections in women - complications - Correct Answer ..., AKA Gonorrhea, does not always cause symptoms, especially in women, in men causes pain when urinating, and discharge from penis, if untreated it can cause epididymitis, which affects the testicles and can lead to infertility. in women it can cause bleeding between periods, pain when urinating, and increased discharge from vagina, if untreated it can lead to PID, which causes infertility and pregnancy problems, can pass from mother to baby during pregnancy, one of the most common VD's in US, 70% decrease in cases since 1970'S. 54.Sexually transmitted infections - Correct Answer ..., is known as STDs; are infections you can have from sexual intercourse from someone who has an infection. 55.Treponema pallidum - Correct Answer ..., Causes syphillis. Tx: Penicillin G. Primary Syph => Painless chancre. Secondary Syph => Disseminated disease (rash on palms and soles), condylomata lata, allopecia ariata. Tertiary Syphillis => GUMMAS (Chronic granulomas), AORTITIS (Tree Bark), TAEBES DORSALIS (dorsal column), and PROSTITUTE PUPIL. 56.Chlamydia trachomatis - Correct Answer ..., Bacteria responsible for the sexually transmitted diseases chlamydia and lymphogranuloma venerum., MOST COMMON STD 57.HPV - Correct Answer ..., -Human Papilloma Virus, (HPV, condylomata): virus can appear in various forms when affection cervical epithelium. Warty growths appears as abnormal thickened white epithelium. 58.Condylomata acuminate - Correct Answer ..., - genital warts - highly contagious sexually transmitted disease caused by some sub-types of human papillomavirus (HPV). 59.Elements of blood cells - reticulocyte, monocytes, erythrocytes, eosinophils, platelets, etc. - Correct Answer ... 60. Infection - mechanism - Correct Answer ... 61.Kupffer cells - Correct Answer ..., Resident macrophages of the liver and play an important role in its normal physiology and homeostasis as well as participating in the acute and chronic responses of the liver to toxic compounds 62.Vitamin B12 - Correct Answer ..., -Assists folate in the synthesis of genetic material (DNA)- as a result, plays an important part in the functioning of the brain and nervous system; involved in blood production. sources: animal tissue, especially liver. deficiency: pernicious anemia (lack of intrinsic factor from stomach to act with vitamin b12 results in severe anemia because of decreased RBC production 63.Langerhan cells - Correct Answer ..., Also called "epidermal dendritic cells". Arise from red bone marrow and a participant in skin-related immune responses. 64.Alveolar macrophages - Correct Answer ..., Large phagocytes that remove foreign material in the lungs; e.g. debris and bacteria 65.Anemia - body compensation - Correct Answer ... 66.Anemias - recommended treatments - Correct Answer ... 67.Pernicious anemia treatment - Correct Answer ..., B12 supplement, tabs or injection (can cause tingling in extremities and neuropathy, This is an autoimmune disease in which the parietal cells are destroyed and the gastric mucosa atrophies. This inhibits secretion of Intrinsic factor, responsible for absorption of B12 in the distal portion of the ileum 68.Polycythemia Vera - Correct Answer ..., A disease with a sustained increase in blood hemoglobin level to 18 g/dl. A cancer if the RBCs with three major hallmarks: massive production of RBCc, excessive leukocyte production, and excessive productionof platelets., A 46 yo female presents with headache and a strong pain in her right leg. She says she has also been feeling very dizzy lately and has noted some muscle weakness in her hands. She also says that she her skin has been unusually itchy lately, which she notices particularly after taking a warm bath. On physical exam, you determine that her blood pressure is 158/116 and notice that the skin on her face is flushed. She also has splenomegaly. A CBC reveals a large increase in Hb and Hct, with a moderate increase in platelet and WBC counts. Blood tests show that she has increased levels of uric acid and decreased levels of EPO in her blood, and enzyme tests reveal a mutant JAK2 kinase in her blood cells 69.Blood cell life span in full term infants - Correct Answer ... 70.Hyperbilirubinemia in newborns - Correct Answer ..., due to too much bilirubin in blood (RBCs only live 20 days=excess bilirubin waste in blood liver cannot process it all and some spills out causing skin to turn yellow and get jaundice), Affects 60-70% of term/late preterm infants in 1st weeks of life and virtually all preterm infants have, manifested by jaundice, leading cause of hospital readmissions in 1st 2 weeks of life, 71.Kernicterus - Correct Answer ..., Bilirubin encephalopathy, a form of brain damage resulting from unconjugated bilirubin entering the brain. Characterized by lethargy, poor feeding, vomiting, irregular respiration, perhaps death., Bilirubin deposited on basal ganglia nuclei in infant brain; incomplete blood brain barrier development. 72.Sickle cell disease - Correct Answer ..., A human genetic disease caused by a recessive allele that results in the substitution of a single amino acid in the hemoglobin protein; characterized by deformed red blood cells that can lead to numerous symptoms., ***25% chance of getting SS if both parents are carriers.** 73.Thalassemia - Correct Answer ..., (Microcytic - hypochromic Anemia) An inherited blood disorder in which the body makes an abnormal hemoglobin (not enough hemoglobin) The disorder results in excessive destruction of RBC., -This genetic defect in Hb chain production can be homozygous or heterozygous (major or minor) 74.Hemophilia B - Correct Answer ..., A hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a lack of blood clotting factor IX. Without enough factor IX, the blood cannot clot properly to control bleeding. 75. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) - Correct Answer ..., IgG anti-GPIIB/IIIa platelet receptor for fibrinogen leading to phagocytosis of platelets in the liver and spleen are the basis of what disease? In the ACUTE CHILDHOOD form of the disease what is a common association? In the ADULT CHRONIC form of the disease known associations are systemic lupus erythematosis and lymphoid malignancies, the epidemiology is skewed toward WHICH SEX and WHICH AGE BRACKET? 76.Heart - chambers, pressures, function - Correct Answer ... 77.Depolarization & repolarization - Correct Answer ..., -When nerve cell becomes depolarized, Na+ channels open & allow influx of Na+ ions - membrane becomes positive. When K+ channels open after, influx of K+ ions = repolarization (return to negative value within) 78.Frank-Starling law - Correct Answer ..., The greater the stretch, the stronger is the heart's contraction. This increased contractility results in an increased volume of blood ejected (Increased SV) 95.Statin - Correct Answer ..., A class of drugs which inhibit HMG-CoA reductase and cholesterol synthesis → ↓LDL levels , ↓ plaque volume, The drug that can block the synthesis of cholesterol in liver cells 96.Protein metabolism - urine - Correct Answer ..., 20 amino acids are used in producing all of the body's proteins -- 10 amino acids are essential (must be present in diet) & 10 are nonessential (made by the body) 97.Antidiuretic Hormone - Correct Answer ..., Controls water reabsorption in the nephron. When levels of fluid in the blood drop, the hypothalamus causes the pituitary to release ADH. This increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water, allowing more water to be absorbed from the urine into the blood. The resulting urine is more concentrated. 98.Urine concentration - Correct Answer ..., Urine can be made very dilute or very concentrated, chiefly by ADH-mediated water reabsorption in the collecting duct, filtrate becomes more concentrated in descending loop of Henle bc of water reabsorption, and becomes more dilute in ascending loop of Henle bc of solute reabsorption; ADH in collecting duct causes more water reabsoprtion => making urine more concentrated (if ADH is present) 99.Glomerular filtration rate - Correct Answer ..., The amount of renal filtrate formed by the kidneys in the 1 minute and averages 100 to 125 mL per minute. May be altered if the rate of blood flow through the kidneys changes. 100. BUN & creatinine - Correct Answer ..., Which of the following labs are important indicators of renal function to monitor in the client with acute renal failure (ARF)? 101. Renal changes in older adults - Correct Answer ... 102. Neural tube defects - Correct Answer ..., Neuropores fail to fuse (4th week) - Persistent connection between amniotic cavity and spinal canal. A/w low folic acid intake during pregnancy. Elevated AFP in amniotic fluid and maternal serum. Increased AFP and acetylcholinesterase in CSF., congenital deformities of the brain and spinal cord caused by incomplete development of the neural tube, the embryonic structure that forms the nervous system, Spina bifida: spina bifida occulta, meningocele, meningomyelocele, rachischisi 103. Anencephaly - Correct Answer ..., A defect in brain development resulting in small or missing brain hemispheres; a congenital absence of the brain and cranial vault, with the cerebral hemispheres completely missing or greatly reduced in size. 104. Hydrocephaly - Correct Answer ..., a ventricular disease, swelling of head caused by over production or blockage of CSF, causes pressure on the brain, occurs most in infants or children, Acromegaly, Paget's disease - deformed areas of the skull. Obstruction of drainage of cerebrospinal fluid results in excessive accumulation, increasing intracranial pressure, and enlargement of the head. Also produces dilated scalp veins, frontal bossing, and downcast or "setting sun" eyes. Cranial bones thing, sutures separate, and percussion yields a "cracked pot" sound...Macewen's Sign. 105. Meningocele - Correct Answer ..., A sac-like herniation through the bony malformation containing the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid the sac covering may be thin and translucent or membranous, A defect which also includes a small, moist sac protruding through the spinal defect, containing a portion of the spinal cord membrane, spinal fluid, and a portion of spinal cord and nerves is called a meningocele, myelomeningocele, or meningomyelocele. 106. Encephalocele - Correct Answer ..., Failure of the anterior neural tube to close due to genetic, toxic or infectious reasons. The brainis actually outside the skull in a skin covered sack. Surgery can be performed to put the protruding sack back into the skull., "Herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull Produces a fluid filled sac Incidence 0.14/1000 live births Most in occipital area 107. PKU - Correct Answer ..., A human metabolic disease caused by a mutation in a gene coding for a phenylalanine processing enzyme (phenylalanine hydroxylase), which leads to accumulation of phenylalanine and mental retardation if not treated; inherited as an autosomal recessive phenotype., 1:12,000 worldwide; Lack enzyme to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine; can lead to mental retardation. Phenylalanine are found in foods with protein. It is important for production of melanin. Screened at birth: Guthrie's test 108. Myelomeningocele - Correct Answer ..., A congenital defect of the central nervous system in which a sac containing part of the spinal cord and its meninges protrude through a gap in the vertebral column. Most severe form of spina bifida 109. Spina bifida occulta - Correct Answer ..., Failure of the vertebral arch to close. A palpable indentation on the vertebral column is a sign of spina bifida occulta. The defect is not obvious on visual inspection because it is covered by skin and sometimes a tuft of hair grows of the area., Most common and least severe form of spina bifida without protrusion of the spinal cord or meninges. 110. Water-soluble protein hormones - Correct Answer ..., hormones relay message via signal transduction pathway to a gene regulatory protein., hGH,TSH, adrenocorticotropic,FSH,luteinizing hormone, prolactin,melanocyte- stimulating hormones. 111. Lipid soluble hormones - Correct Answer ..., Hormones that are able to diffuse across the plasma membrane and bind to intracellular receptors in cytosol or nucleus., pass easily through cell membranes 112. Hormone effects in glucose uptake - Correct Answer ... 113. Positive feedback - Correct Answer ..., A physiological control mechanism in which a change in some variable triggers mechanisms that amplify the change. 114. Negative feedback - Correct Answer ..., Corrective mechanism involving an action that directly opposes a variation from normal limits, A primary mechanism of homeostasis, whereby a change in a physiological variable that is being monitored triggers a response that counteracts the initial fluctuation. 115. Physiologic regulation - Correct Answer ..., the ability to alter flux through the pathway by activating the enzyme catalyzing the rate-limiting step in the pathway, increased water intake decreases Na concentration which decreases ADH release and decreases thirst which increases renal water excretion and decreases water intake which normalizes Na concentration 116. Neural regulation - Correct Answer ..., Sympathetic autonomic nervous system fibers that supply the kidneys release epinephrine and norepinephrine. Under normal conditions the release of these neutransmitters is low which maintains the diameter of the afferent arteriole to be open and allows autoregulation to prevail., direct regulation by the brain of physiological functions (in addition to smooth muscle and glandular ones)., Ganglion and greater splanchnic nerve; ⇓ Systemic arterial pressure ⇑ renal sympathetic nerve activity = stimulation of the renal arteriolar vasoconstriction ⇓ RBF and GFR 117. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) - Correct Answer ..., Origin: Anterior Pituitar, A hormone of the anterior pituitary to stimulat ethe thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4. 118. posterior Pituitary - Correct Answer ..., Endocrine gland attached to the base of the brain that secretes hormones that affect the function of other glands as well as hormones that act directly on physical processes., Known as the master gland. Located in the brain and is the size of a pea. Produces hormones that regulate growth, development of the reproductive structures, and the function of the reproductive organs throughout ones life span., Anterior Pituitary: Consists of epithelial cells and secretes GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, FSH, and LH., Posterior pituitary: Also called neurohypophysis. Stores two hormones produced in the hypothalmus. *Oxytocin- stimulates uterine contraction during labor and help secretion of milk.*Antidiuretic hormone- helps balance blood pressure. long bones, designed for rigidity and attachment of muscles and ligaments, the amount of compact bone is greater near the middle of the shaft (body) of the bone, where it is liable to buckle. Living bones have some elasticity (flexibility) and great rigidity (hardness). 134. Haversian system - Correct Answer ..., Central canals surrounded by osteons; contain the blood vessels and nerves that serve the bone, composed of cylindrical or tubular structures of hard material; in the center are canals where blood vessels and nerves pass. 135. Sharpey fibers - Correct Answer ..., collagen fibers that attach periosteum to bone, ends of the peridontol ligament (PDL) fibers that are embedded in the cementum and alveolar bone, they become trapped in the bone that forms around them. 136. Collagen fibers - Correct Answer ..., Fibers formed by the protein collagen that lie parallel to one another to provide greater strength to bones, tendons, and ligaments., Are made by fibroblasts, are flexible, have a very high tensile strength (bundles of collagen fibril - > fiber) 137. Type II muscle fibers - Correct Answer ..., White fast motor muscle fibers (Fast-twitch muscle fibers) One of several types of muscle fibers found in skeletal muscle tissue; characterized as having a low oxidative capacity but a high gylcolytic capacity; recruited for rapid, powerful movements such as jumping, throwing, and sprinting. 138. Muscle contraction process - Correct Answer ..., During muscle contraction myosin heads pull on the thin filaments causing them to slide toward the H zone. As the filaments slide inward the sarcomere shortens but the size of the filaments NEVER change. This sliding promotes shortening of the sarcomere and eventually of the entire muscle, Nervous stimulation from motor neurons causes the release of calcium ions from the SR which attach to inhibitory proteins on the actin filaments within the cell, moving them aside so that cross-bridges can form between actin & myosin filaments. Using energy supplied by ATP, the filaments slide together to produce contraction. 139. Elastin fibers - Correct Answer ..., allow movement of muscles and joints; maintains skin tension; causes wrinkles because of the loss of elasticity during aging, This type of fiber is usually smaller than collagen. They are comprised of the protein elastin which provides both strength and elasticity 140. Joint capsule - Correct Answer ..., Composed of a thick, fibrous outer layer contiguous with periosteum of bones; synovial membrane is the thin inner layer covering all non-cartilaginous surfaces, Fibrous tissue supplied with blood vessels and nerves that defines and encloses the joint cavity. It's function is to prevent seperation and to contribute to joint stability. 141. Hematoma - Correct Answer ..., A local collection of blood that escaped from blood vessels because of trauma., A localize collection of blood within tissue due to leakage from a wall of a blood vessel, producing a bluish discoloration (ecchymosis) and pain 142. Types of fractures - Correct Answer ..., Degree:Simple (closed), Compound (open), Greenstick (splintering of inner bone surface),Patterns: Transverse ( fracture line perpendicular to long axis of bone), Spiral (fracture line encircling bone), Oblique (Fracture line at an angle to long axis of bone), Linear (parallel to the long axis of the bone Character: Comminuted (multiple bone frags), Compression (fracture wedged or squeezed together on one side of bone) Impacted (fracture frags pushed into each other) 143. Tendon - Correct Answer ..., A band of fibrous connective tissue that connects muscle to bone. 144. Ligament - Correct Answer ..., A flexible band of fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone 145. Bursa - Correct Answer ..., Closed sac containing synoval fluid found in connective tissue, fluid filled cushion that reduces friction. 146. Sprains - Correct Answer ..., An injury involving the ligaments that surround and support a joint, caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. 147. Strains - Correct Answer ..., Injury to muscle- tendon unit, with emphasis on muscle damage., Are the result of overuse of a muscle or group of muscles or when a muscle or tendon is overextended by stretching. 148. Epicondylitis - Correct Answer ..., Inflammation of the tendon where it attaches to a bone, elbow 149. Ankylosing spondylitis - Correct Answer ..., A form of rheumatoid arthritis that primarily causes inflammation of the joints between the vertebrae., A Rheumatoid inflammatory disorder in which spinal ligaments ossify 150. Rheumatoid arthritis - Correct Answer ..., A chronic systemic disease characterized by inflammation of the joints, stiffness, pain, and swelling that results in crippling deformities, A form of arthritus in which an autoimmune response leads to inflammation of connective tissue, particularly the membranes that line the joints, resulting in overall stiffness, inflammation, aching, deformed joints, and a serious loss of mobility.. Anti- IgG 151. Gout - Correct Answer ..., A condition created by a build up of uric acid in joints and tendons that promotes an inflammatory reaction, resulting in sudden and excruciating pain. Most commonly involved are the feet and the big toe. Elevated levels of uric acid may complicate into kidney stones if left untreated., , : uric acid crystal accumulation in joints, more males (>30 y/o), obesity/alcohol/diet/diabetes/renal failure, TOPHI (aggregates of crystals), usually involve multiple joints, treated with allopurinol, anti-inflam, change lifestyle, change diet, crystals ingested by inflammatory cells release membrane rupture pain and swelling/joint effusions, repeated inflammation joint deformity, 4 stages: asymptomatic hyperuricemia, acute gouty arthritis, intercritical gout, chronic tophaceous gout, IL1, IL6, TNF secretion by monoctyes 152. Fibromyalgia - Correct Answer ..., - nonarticular musculoskeletal aches, pains, fatigue, sleep disturbance, and multiple tender points on examination, A chronic, painful, rheumatic disorder that affects the fibrous connective tissue components of muscles, tendons, and ligaments. A striking sign is pain that results from gentle pressure at specific tender points. Even without pressure, there is pain, tenderness, and stiffness of muscles, tendons and surrounding soft tissues. Besides muscle pain, those with fibromyalgia report severe fatigue, poor sleep, headaches, depression, irritable bowl syndrome, and inability to carry out their daily activities. There is no specific identifiable cause. Treatment consists of stress reduction, regular exercise, application of heat, gentle massage, physical therapy, medication for pain, and a low-dose antidepressant to help improve sleep. Viral infection suspected 153. Osteogenesis imperfecta - Correct Answer ..., A genetic disorder in which the patient lacks sufficient collagen for proper strength of the bones, - Etiology: an autosomal dominant inherited disorde, Brittle bone disease. Excessively brittle bones due to a lack of protein (collagen) which gives bone a degree of flexibility 154. Rickets - Correct Answer ..., A disease that causes weak and misformed bones. People can get this disease when they do not get enough vitamin D., A disease of children caused by vitamin D deficiency, characterized by imperfect calcification, softening, and distortion of the bones typically resulting in bow legs 155. Legg Calve' Perthes disease - Correct Answer ..., avascular necrosis of the head of the femur around age 4-8; caused by injury of the hip joint and treated with splinting in abduction 156. Scoliosis - Correct Answer ...,A condition of lateral deviation resulting from unequal growth of the vertebral column., >45* curvature; leads to lung & heart function impairment, (Curved back) is characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature that is accompanied by rotation of the vertebrae 157. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis - Correct Answer ..., uncommon; a rheumatic disease that begins at or before age 16. Arthritis, fever, rash, adenopathy, splenomegaly, and iridocyclitis are typical of some forms. Diagnosis 171. Obstructive sleep apnea - Correct Answer ..., Dyssomnia; DIAGNOSIS is via PSG, classical profile is a middle ages obese male; ETIOLOGY is Breathing cessating during sleep due to upper airway obstruction which bumps the person from a deep to a light stage of sleep, thus hours of sleep are adequate but not refreshing; TREATMENT is Continuous Positive Airway Pressure which opens the airway 172. Narcolepsy causes - Correct Answer ..., A sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks. The sufferer may lapse directly into REM sleep, often at inopportune times., -problems with stimulation of the brain by the reticular activating system (RAS 173. Conjunctivitis - Correct Answer ..., An inflammation of the conjunctiva of the eye caused by a bacterial infection. The contageous variety is called pinkeye & is common in children. It can be transmitted by hand to eye contact or by contaminated water in a swimming pool., -Inflammation or infection of the conjunctiva that can be caused by a viral or bacterial infection 174. Open angle glaucoma - Correct Answer ..., Obstructed outflow (e.g., canal of Schlemm); associated w/ myopia, advanced age, African-American race. More common, "silent," painless., chronic and gradually progressive; issues with trabecular meshwork and/or canal of schlemm (prevents some of the aqueous fluid from getting out and IOP increases over time); generally affects both eyes?, *most common type of glaucoma 175. Glaucoma - Correct Answer ..., An eye disease in which the intraocular pressure is high enough to cause damage to the optic nerve, resulting in visual loss; caused by impaired drainage of the aqueous fluid out of the eye 176. Delirium - Correct Answer ..., A mental state characterized by a DISTURBANCE OF COGNITION, which is manifested by CONFUSION, EXCITEMENT, DISORIENTATION, and CLOUDING OF CONSCIOUSNESS. (Hallucinations and illusions=common)., Acute confusions and other cognitive deficits. It is not a disease but rather a syndrome caused by something outside the brain. such as an infection in the urinary tract or a reaction to benzos or anesthesia 177. Seizures types diagnosis - Correct Answer ..., Abnormal episodes of motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic activity (or a combination of these) resulting from a sudden, abnormal, uncontrolled electrical discharge from cerebral neurons 178. Dysphagia - Correct Answer ..., Condition in which swallowing is difficult or painful. 179. Akinesia - Correct Answer ..., A motor disturbance in which a person's muscles become rigid and movement is difficult to initiate., A reduction or absence of psychomotor activity that results in a masklike facial expression and impaired postural reflexes. A classic characteristic of Parkinson's disease. 180. Aphasia - Correct Answer ..., Impairment of language, usually caused by left hemisphere damage either to Broca's area (impairing speaking) or to Wernicke's area (impairing understanding) 181. Agnosia - Correct Answer ..., Impairment in the ability to recognize and identify objects using only visual means; caused by lesions to the right occipital lobe 182. Types of Dyskinesia - Correct Answer ... 183. Alzheimer's disease - Correct Answer ..., A major cause of dementia in the elderly, this neurodegenerative disorder is characterized by the death of neurons in the hippocampus, cerebral cortex, and other brain regions. The earliest symptoms of the disease include forgetfulness; disorientation as to time or place; and difficulty with concentration, calculation, language, and judgment. In the final stages, individuals are incapable of self-care and may be bedridden. 184. Parkinson disease - Correct Answer ..., Chronic, progressive, debilitating neurologic disease of the basal ganglia and substantia nigra, affecting motor ability and characterized by tremor at rest, increased muscle tone (rigidity), slowness in the initiation and execution of movement (bradykinesia), and postural instability (difficulties with gait and balance) 185. A condition of slowly progressive degeneration in an area of the brainstem (substantia nigra) resulting in a decrease of dopamine (a chemical neurotransmitter necessary for proper movement); characterized by tremor, rigidity of muscles, and slow movements (bradykinesia); usually occurs later in life 186. Dementia - Correct Answer ..., A progressive, irreversible decline in mental function, marked by memory impairment and, often, deficits in reasoning, judgment, abstract thought, registration, comprehension, learning, task execution, and use of language., 1. Alzheimer's disease; 2. Multiple infarcts 187. Uncal herniation - Correct Answer ..., intracranial hypertension, medial temporal lobe pushes through tentorium cerebelli, Medially displaced medial temporal lobe over free margin of tentorium. Focal effacement of ambient cistern and lateral suprasellar cistern. Rarely compresses contralateral cerebral peduncle (Kernohan's notch) against tentorial margin., Space-occupying lesion forcing parahippocampal gyrus/uncus over the edge of the tentorium --> dilated, unresponsive pupil(s) 188. Cerebrovascular accident - Correct Answer ..., Disorder of the blood vessels serving the brain, resulting in disruption of blood flow to parts of the brain leading to neuronal death. Impact of CVA varies according to the cause of the disruption (blockages or hemorrhages) and location of the insult, as well as a variety of premorbid and psychosocial conditions. 189. Types of strokes - Correct Answer ..., Ischemic (thrombotic, emobolic, transient attack (TIA) and reversible ischemic neurologic deficit (RIND)) and hemorrhagic stroke, ischemic stroke- most common type of stroke- artery to brain is blocked,,,, intracerebral hemorrhage- lets blood to leak inside the brain.,,,,,, subarachnoid hemorrhage- can cause death blood vessel outside the brain ruptures 190. Coup injuries - Correct Answer ..., blow to head that results in brain moving and slamming against the point of impact, causing bruises and abrasions on side of impact, contusions at site of injury 191. Contra-coup injuries - Correct Answer ..., brain moves and bruises at a point opposite the site of impact. Caused by a large and fast moving object., the impact of the brain against the opposite side of the skull 192. AIDS - Correct Answer ..., ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME, (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) a syndrome caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that renders immune cells ineffective, permitting opportunistic infections, malignancies, and neurologic diseases to develop; transmitted sexually or through contaminated blood 193. Guillian Barre syndrome - Correct Answer ..., Autoimmune destruction of motor nerves which causes loss of muscle coordination and eventual paralysis. Destruction occurs in the PNS., Autoimmune destruction of motor nerves which causes loss of muscle coordination and eventual paralysis. Destruction occurs in the PNS. 194. Myasthenia Gravis - Correct Answer ..., A disease in which acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells are destroyed so that muscles can no longer respond to the acetylcholine signal to contract. Symptoms include muscular weakness and progressively more common bouts of fatigue. The disease's cause is unknown but is more common in females than in males; it usually strikes between the ages of 20 and 50. 195. Schizophrenia, location in brain? - Correct Answer ..., A disorder characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotion; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior syndrome has only one sex chromosome. Because the ovaries never become functional, these females do not undergo puberty, mensturation or development. With hormone supplements, they can lead fairly normals lives 215. Klinefelter Syndrome - Correct Answer ..., 47, XXY. Small testes, hyalinization of seminiferous tubules; aspermatogenesis; often tall with disproportionately long lower limbs. Intelligence is less than in normal siblings. 40% of these males have gynecomastia., 47 XXY or 48 XXXY or 49 XXXXY 216. Down Syndrome - Correct Answer ..., A human genetic disorder resulting from the presence of an extra chromosome 21; characterized by heart and respiratory defects and varying degrees of mental retardation., A condition in which a person has 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46, with 3 copies of chromosome 21 217. Fragile X Syndrome - Correct Answer ..., Children born with a fragile X chromosome generally display mild to moderate degrees of intellectual dysfunction, language impairments, and, in some cases, behavioral problems. Second most common chromosomal cause of mental retardation., A genetic disorder involving an abnormality in the X chromosome, which becomes constricted and often breaks. 218. Cri du chat - Correct Answer ..., cry of the cat. deletion of chromosome 5 distinct cat like cry, low set ears, facial deformities hearing and vision problem feeding problem mental retardation, A rare genetic disorder that results in the partial deletion of chromosome 5 is called, Chromosome 5 Deletion Syndrome or 219. Consanguinity - Correct Answer ..., A degree of relationship between persons who descend from a common ancestor. 220. Genotype - Correct Answer ..., An organism's genetic makeup or allele combinations 221. Phenotype - Correct Answer ..., Observable physical characteristics, which result from both genetic and environmental influences 222. Autosomal dominant diseases - Correct Answer ..., Affected individual has a single mutant allele that is transmitted to the offspring regardless of the sex, affected offspring have a 50% chance of transmitting the disorder, A pattern of inheritance characteristic of some genetic diseases. The gene in question is located on one of the numbered, or non-sex, chromosomes. "Dominant" means that a single copy of the disease-associated mutation is enough to cause the disease. Huntington's disease is a common example.. 223. Autosomal recessive diseases - Correct Answer ..., Abnormal allele is recessive and a person must be homozygous for the abnormal trait to express the disease, 25% recurrence rate, often due to consanguinit, Sickle-Cell disease, Cystic fibrosis, Tay-Sachs 224. Sickle cell disease - Correct Answer ..., A human genetic disease caused by a recessive allele that results in the substitution of a single amino acid in the hemoglobin protein; characterized by deformed red blood cells that can lead to numerous symptoms., A recessively inherited human blood disorder in which a single nucleotide change in the β-globin gene causes hemoglobin to aggregate, changing red blood cell shape and causing multiple symptoms in afflicted individuals. 225. Familial hypercholesterolemia - Correct Answer ..., A metabolic disorder that is caused by defective or absent receptors for LDLs on cell surfaces, that is marked by an increase in blood plasma LDLs and by an accumulation of LDLs in the body resulting in an increased risk of heart attack and coronary heart disease, and that is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait., AD disease from a number of different mutations to LDL receptor. Results in decreased LDL absorption by Liver. 226. Breast cancer rates - Correct Answer ..., 1 in 9 women will develop; 1 in 33 will die from 227. Children of alcoholic parents - Correct Answer ..., more likely to become alcoholics themselves. most have suffered some form of abuse. High risk of marrying alcoholic. depression, anxiety, they take care of parents instead of being taken care of, difficult to form intimate relationships, four times as likely to develop alcoholism as children of non alcoholics 228. BRCA1 & BRCA2 mutations - Correct Answer ..., When they function properly they prevent breast cancer by deterring cells from dividing uncontrollably. if genes altered thru mutation person has higher risk of breast cancer 229. Breast cancer symptoms - Correct Answer ..., Breast mass or thickening, lump or thickening in or near breast or in the underarm area, change in shape or size, dimpling or puckering in the skin of breast 230. Risk factors for Type 2 diabetes - Correct Answer ..., Aging, sedentary lifestyle, obesity, excessive abdominal fat, family history, history of gestational diabetes, impaired glucose metabolism, African American, Hispanic, American Indian, Asian, Native Hawaiian, and Pacific Islander., Family Hx, obesity, race/ethnicity, age 45+, HTN, HDL <35, Triglycerides >250, babies over 9 lbs 231. Type 1 diabetes - Correct Answer ..., An autoimmune disease because immune system cells target and destroy cells in the pancreas that produce insulin, Characterized by a low level of insulin, insatiable hunger (polyphagia), unquenchable thirst (polydypsia) and polyuria. Also known as juvenile-diabetes, it's onset is often before 20 years of age. Destruction of B cells 232. Relativity - Correct Answer ..., A numerical estimate of losses in one classification relative to losses in a base classification. 233. Prevalence - Correct Answer ..., (epidemiology) the ratio (for a given time period) of the number of occurrences of a disease or event to the number of units at risk in the population 234. Incidence - Correct Answer ..., Disease is the number of new cases occurring in a specific period 235. Colon cancer risk - Correct Answer ..., High fat, low residue diet, Low intake of fruits and vegetables, Diet high in red or processed meats. Increases with age, 90% of cancer with patients over 50 yrs. Family history, Personal cancer history, Intestinal polyps. Chronic Inflammatory Bowel Disease. Chronic Irritable Bowel Disease. Colon injury or surgery. Sedentary lifestyle, Obesity, Physical inactivity. Occupational exposure to carcinogens, Smoking, Heavy alcohol consumption. 236. Hormone determination of sexual differentiation in utero - Correct Answer ... 237. Leptin - Correct Answer ..., A hormone produced by adipose (fat) cells that acts as a satiety factor in regulating appetite., A protein hormone produced by adipose tissue that provides the brain with an assessment of adipose mass and regulates appetite and metabolism by altering the actions of neuropeptide Y (decreases appetite) 238. Activin - Correct Answer ..., a protein hormone that opposes inhibin by enhancing follicle-stimulating hormone synthesis and secretion and that participates in the regulation of the menstrual cycle, enhances luteinizing hormone action in the ovary and testis, and mediates spermatogenesis., antagonist to inhibin: enhances FSH biosynthesis and secretion, and participates in the regulation of the menstrual cycle 239. Bartholin glands - Correct Answer ..., two glands located on either side of the vaginal opening that secrete a lubricant during intercourse,, Small mucus- secreting exocrine glands at the vaginal orifice (opening to outside of the body) 240. Puberty changes - Correct Answer ..., ability to ejaculate exists; reproductive organs mature; release of gonadotropins; pubic hair develops; voice changes; thicken vaginal walls; larger uterus; menstration occurs; larger prostate and seminal vesicles; breast development, Hormones involved: pituitary hormone growth estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, thyroxine.