INTRODUCTION TO MICROBIOLOGY FINAL EXAM Questions with 100% Verified Answers Latest Update, Exams of Microbiology

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INTRODUCTION

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Chapter 1 The Microbial World and You Objective Questions

1. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Ehrlich chemotherapy B) Koch aseptic surgery C) Pasteur proof of biogenesis D) Jenner vaccination Answer: B Skill: Recall
2. Which of the following is a scientific name? A) IGAS B) Flesh-eating bacteria C) Group A streptococcus D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Streptococci Answer: D Skill: Analysis
3. Which of the following is not a domain in the three-domain system? A) Animalia B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Eukarya Answer: A Skill: Recall
4. Which of the following is true about fungi? A) All are prokaryotic. B) All are multicellular. C) All require organic material for growth. D) All grow using sunlight and carbon dioxide. E) All are plants. Answer: C Skill: Recall 1 2 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
5. Which of the following is not true about protozoa? A) They have rigid cell walls. B) They are classified by their method of locomotion. C) All are unicellular. D) All have complex cells. E) All are eukaryotic. Answer: A Skill: Recall
6. Which of the following is true about viruses? A) They are not composed of cells. B) They cannot metabolize nutrients.

C) They cannot reproduce themselves. D) They have DNA or RNA. E) All of the above. Answer: E Skill: Recall

7. Which of the following is probably true about all the experiments that proved spontaneous generation? A) Air was lacking. B) Too much heat was applied. C) The food source could not support life. D) Microorganisms were already present.

E) All of the above. Answer: D Skill: Analysis

8. Regarding Pasteurʹs experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is true? A) There was air involved. B) There was a food source involved. C) Any possibility of contamination was removed. D) All microorganisms were killed before beginning. E) All of the above. Answer: E Skill: Understanding CHAPTER 1 The Microbial World and You 3
9. Which of the following is true about insect control by microorganisms? A) The insects develop resistance to the microorganisms. B) The microorganisms are permanent in the environment. C) The microorganisms are specific for the insect pest. D) The microorganisms may cause disease in other animals. E) This technique is just as dangerous as the use of chemical pesticides. Answer: C Skill: Analysis
10. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Hooke cell theory B) van Leeuwenhoek germ theory C) Lister aseptic surgery D) Pasteur fermentation E) None of the above Answer: B Skill: Recall
11. Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation? A) van Leeuwenhoek B) Hooke C) Pasteur D) Koch E) None of the above Answer: C Skill: Recall
12. Who observed cells in plant material? A) van Leeuwenhoek B) Hooke C) Pasteur D) Koch E) None of the above Answer: B Skill: Recall 4 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
13. Who was the first to observe microorganisms with a microscope? A) van Leeuwenhoek B) Hooke C) Pasteur D) Koch E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Recall
14. Who proved that microorganisms cause disease? A) van Leeuwenhoek B) Hooke

C) Pasteur D) Koch E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Recall

15. Which of the following is a scientific name? A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Hansenʹs bacillus C) Leprosy bacterium D) Acid-fast bacteria Answer: A Skill: Recall
16. Classification of organisms in the three domains is based on A) Cell wall. B) Number of cells. C) Cell type. D) Nutritional type. E) Nucleus. Answer: C Skill: Recall CHAPTER 1 The Microbial World and You 5
17. Which of the following statements is untrue? A) All bacteria lack nuclear membranes. B) All fungi are multicellular. C) All protozoa are unicellular. D) All viruses are parasites. E) All fungi have nuclear membranes. Answer: B Skill: Analysis
18. Which of the following statements is true? A) Viruses cannot reproduce outside of a host cell. B) Bacteria cannot move. C) Fungi are plants. D) Protozoa have rigid cell walls. E) Algae are parasites. Answer: A Skill: Recall
19. Which of the following findings was essential for Jennerʹs vaccination process? A) A weakened microorganism may produce immunity. B) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease. C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again. D) Disease is caused by viruses. E) Vaccination provides immunity. Answer: A Skill: Analysis
20. Which of the following requirements was necessary for Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation? A) Providing a food source that would support growth B) Supplying air C) Keeping microorganisms out D) Removing microorganisms that were initially present E) All of the above Answer: E Skill: Analysis 6 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
21. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Immunologist studies ecology of Legionella pneumophila

B) Virologist studies human immunodeficiency virus C) Microbial ecologist studies bacteria that degrade oil D) Microbial physiologist studies fermentation of sourdough bread E) Molecular biologist studies recombinant DNAAnswer: A Skill: Analysis

22. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Chemotherapy treatment of disease B) Pathogen disease causing C) Vaccine a preparation of microorganisms D) Penicillin antibiotic E) Normal microbiota harmful Answer: E Skill: Recall
23. Which of the following is not part of the study of microbiology? A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Viruses D) Insects E) Helminths Answer: D Skill: Recall
24. Which one of the following does not belong with the others? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya D) Fungi Answer: D Skill: Understanding CHAPTER 1 The Microbial World and You 7
25. Which of the following is not an example of biotechnology? A) Bacterial production of French bread B) Bacterial degradation of a dead animal C) Bacterial production of yogurt D) Bacterial production of vinegar E) None of the above Answer: E Skill: Analysis
26. Recombinant DNA technology can be used to make all of the following except A) Vaccines. B) Human hormones. C) Drugs. D) Life. E) None of the above. Answer: D Skill: Understanding
27. The best definition of biotechnology is A) The development of recombinant DNA technology. B) The use of living organisms to make desired products. C) Curing diseases. D) The use of microorganisms in sewage treatment. E) All of the above. Answer: B Skill: Analysis
28. You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most likely A) Has a peptidoglycan cell wall. B) Has a cellulose cell wall.

C) Moves by pseudopods. D) Is part of a multicellular animal. E) None of the above. Answer: A Skill: Analysis 8 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction

29. A nucleated, green cell that moves by means of flagella is a(n). A) Alga B) Bacterium C) Fungus D) Helminth E) Virus Answer: A Skill: Recall
30. An agent that reproduces in cells but is not composed of cells and contains RNA as its genetic material is a(n). A) Alga B) Bacterium C) Fungus D) Helminth E) Virus Answer: E Skill: Recall
31. A multicellular organism that has chitin cell walls and absorbs organic material is a(n). A) Alga B) Bacterium C) Fungus D) Helminth E) Virus Answer: C Skill: Recall
32. A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a(n). A) Alga B) Bacterium C) Fungus D) Helminth E) Virus Answer: D Skill: Recall CHAPTER 1 The Microbial World and You 9
33. In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the A) Domain. B) Kingdom. C) Genus. D) Specific epithet. E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Analysis
34. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Lancefield immunology B) Weizmann virology C) Jenner immunology D) Jacob and Monod microbial genetics E) Winogradsky microbial ecologyAnswer: B Skill: Recall
35. Which of the following does not belong with the others?

A) Recycling elements B) Human diseases C) Sewage treatment D) Bioremediation E) Insect control Answer: B Skill: Analysis

36. You are looking at a white cottony growth on a culture medium. Microscopic examination reveals it is multicellular. You can conclude all of the following about this organism except that it A) Has cell walls. B) Has DNA enclosed in a nucleus. C) Is eukaryotic. D) Is a bacterium. E) Absorbs organic nutrients. Answer: D Skill: Analysis 10 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
37. All members of the following groups contain DNA except A) Bacteria. B) Fungi. C) Helminths. D) Protozoa. E) Viruses. Answer: E Skill: Recall
38. Which one of the following does not belong with the others? A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Nucleus D) Peptidoglycan Answer: C Skill: Understanding
39. All of the following have cell walls except A) Animalia. B) Bacteria. C) Fungi. D) Plantae. E) None of the above. Answer: A Skill: Recall
40. Which of the following does not belong with the others? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Helminth D) Plantae E) Protista Answer: E Skill: Understanding CHAPTER 1 The Microbial World and You 11
41. Fungi differ from bacteria because fungi A) Have cell walls. B) Have DNA. C) Have a nucleus. D) Spoil food. E) None of the above. Answer: C Skill: Analysis

42. Archaea differ from bacteria because archaea A) Lack peptidoglycan. B) Lack nuclei. C) Use organic compounds for food. D) Reproduce by binary fission. E) None of the above. Answer: A Skill: Analysis
43. Bacteria differ from viruses because bacteria A) Have DNA and RNA. B) Have cells. C) Can live without a host. D) All of the above. Answer: D Skill: Analysis
44. Which of the following lack a nucleus? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Protozoa E) None of the above Answer: B Skill: Recall 12 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
45. Sourdough bread differs from conventional bread during leavening because A) Yeasts produce carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol. B) Yeasts produce acid. C) Lactobacillus produce acids. D) Acids are added to it during rising. E) Of the temperature and humidity. Answer: C Skill: Recall Essay Questions
46. In 1835 Bassi showed that a silkworm disease was caused by a fungus, and in 1865 Pasteur found another silkworm disease was caused by a protozoan. Why do we use Kochʹs postulates instead of ʺBassiʹsʺ or ʺPasteurʹsʺ postulates?
47. List two examples of biotechnology that involve recombinant DNA technology and two examples that do not.
48. Paul Berg received the Nobel Prize for developing the procedure for incorporating fragments of animal DNA into bacteria. List some reasons why his work was a major contribution to science. Chapter 2 Chemical Principles Objective Questions
49. Which of the following statements is not true about the atom A) It has 6 protons in its nucleus. B) It has 12 neutrons in its nucleus. C) It has 6 electrons orbiting the nucleus. D) Its atomic number is 6. E) Its atomic weight is 12. Answer: B Skill: Understanding 12

C?

6 Table 2. 16 O 8 12 C 6 1 H 1

2. Calculate the molecular weight of ethyl alcohol, C 2 H 5 OH, using the information in Table 2.1. A) 96 B) 46 C) 34 D) 33 E) Canʹt tell Answer: B Skill: Analysis
3. Which of the following is not true about enzymes? A) Enzymes are made of proteins. B) Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction. C) Enzymes increase the number of collisions in a chemical reaction. D) Enzymes are not used up in a reaction. E) None of the above. Answer: C Skill: Recall 13 14 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
4. Which of the following is not true? A) Salts readily dissolve in water. B) Water molecules are formed by hydrolysis. C) Water freezes from the top down. D) Water is a part of a dehydration reaction. E) Water is a polar molecule. Answer: B Skill: Recall
5. Which of the following is the type of bond holding K+ and I- ions in KI? A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Hydrogen bond Answer: A Skill: Analysis
6. Which of the following is the type of bond between molecules of water in a beaker of water? A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Hydrogen bond Answer: C Skill: Analysis
7. What are the type of bonds holding hydrogen and oxygen atoms in the molecule of H 2 O? A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Hydrogen bond Answer: B Skill: Analysis CHAPTER 2 Chemical Principles 15
8. Identify the following reaction: Glucose + fructose → sucrose + water A) Dehydration synthesis reaction B) Hydrolysis reaction C) Exchange reaction D) Reversible reaction E) Ionic reaction

Answer: A Skill: Analysis

9. Identify the following reaction: Lactose + H 2 O → glucose + galactose A) Dehydration synthesis reaction B) Hydrolysis reaction C) Exchange reaction D) Reversible reaction E) Ionic reaction Answer: B Skill: Analysis
10. Identify the following reaction: HCl + NaHCO 3 → NaCl + H 2 CO 3 A) Dehydration synthesis reaction B) Hydrolysis reaction C) Exchange reaction D) Reversible reaction E) Ionic reaction Answer: C Skill: Analysis
11. Identify the following reaction: NH 4 OH ⇌ NH 3 + H 2 O A) Dehydration synthesis reaction B) Hydrolysis reaction C) Exchange reaction D) Reversible reaction E) Ionic reaction Answer: D Skill: Analysis 16 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
12. Which type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Nucleic acids D) Proteins E) None of the above Answer: B Skill: Recall
13. Which type of molecule is composed of (CH 2 O) units? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Nucleic acids D) Proteins E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Recall
14. Which type of molecule contains - NH 2 groups? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Nucleic acids D) Proteins E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Recall
15. Which type of molecule never contains a phosphate group? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Nucleic acids D) Proteins E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Recall CHAPTER 2 Chemical Principles 17
16. Which of the following statements is not true about the atom A) It has 8 protons in its nucleus. B) It has 8 electrons in its nucleus. C) It has 8 neutrons in its nucleus. D) Its atomic number is 8. E) Its atomic weight is 16.

Answer: B Skill: Understanding 16 O? 8 Table 2. 16 O 8 12 C 6 1 H 1

17. Calculate the number of moles in 92 grams of ethyl alcohol, C 2 H 5 OH, using the information in Table 2.1. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) Canʹt tell Answer: B Skill: Analysis
18. Which of the following statements is not true? A) Enzymes are made of proteins. B) Enzymes are used up in a chemical reaction. C) Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a reaction. D) Enzymes increase the probability of a reaction. E) None of the above. Answer: B Skill: Recall 18 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
19. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) NaOH ⇌ Na + + OH- base B) HF ⇌ H+ + F - acid C) MgSO 4 ⇌ Mg2+ + SO 42 - salt D) KH 2 PO 4 ⇌ K+ + H2 PO 4 - acid E) H 2 SO 4 ⇌ 2H + + SO 42 - acid Answer: D Skill: Analysis Table 2. Refer to these reactions to answer the question below. NaOH ⇌ Na+ + OH- base HF ⇌ H+ + F- acid MgSO 4 ⇌ Mg 2+ + SO 42 - salt KH2 PO4 ⇌ K+ H2 PO 4 - acid H2 SO4 ⇌ 2H+ + SO 42 - salt
20. Which of the following is not true about the reactions in Table 2.2? A) They are exchange reactions. B) They are ionization reactions. C) They occur when the reactants are dissolved in water. D) They are dissociation reactions. E) They are reversible reactions. Answer: A Skill: Understanding
21. What is the type of bond between the hydrogen of one molecule and the nitrogen of another molecule? A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Hydrogen bond Answer: C Skill: Recall CHAPTER 2 Chemical Principles 19
22. What is the type of bond between carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms in organic molecules? A) Ionic bond

B) Covalent bond C) Hydrogen bond Answer: B Skill: Recall

23. What type of bond is between ions in salt? A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Hydrogen bond Answer: A Skill: Recall
24. Identify the following reaction: H 2 O + CO 2 ⇌ H 2 CO 3 A) Dehydration synthesis reaction B) Hydrolysis reaction C) Exchange reaction D) Reversible reaction E) Covalent reaction Answer: C Skill: Analysis
25. Identify the following reaction: Glycine + lysine → dipeptide + H 2 O A) Dehydration synthesis reaction B) Hydrolysis reaction C) Exchange reaction D) Reversible reaction E) Covalent reaction Answer: E Skill: Analysis 20 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
26. Identify the following reaction: Sucrose + H 2 O → glucose + fructose A) Dehydration synthesis reaction B) Hydrolysis reaction C) Exchange reaction D) Reversible reaction E) Covalent reaction Answer: B Skill: Analysis
27. Structurally, ATP is most like this type of molecule. A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Recall
28. Which molecule has chemicals in genes? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Recall
29. Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids E) None of the above Answer: C Skill: Recall CHAPTER 2 Chemical Principles 21
30. These are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells. A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids E) None of the above

Answer: B Skill: Recall

31. The antimicrobial drug imidazole inhibits sterol synthesis. This would most likely interfere with A) Bacterial cell walls. B) Fungal cell walls. C) Eukaryotic plasma membranes. D) Prokaryotic plasma membranes. E) Genes. Answer: C Skill: Analysis Figure 2.
32. In Figure 2.1, which is an alcohol? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: C Skill: Analysis 22 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
33. In Figure 2.1, which is an ester? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Skill: Analysis
34. In Figure 2.1, which is an organic acid? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: A Skill: Analysis CHAPTER 2 Chemical Principles 23 Figure 2.
35. Use Figure 2.2 to answer the following question. Archaea differ from bacteria in the composition of the cell membrane lipids. Archaea have ether-bonded lipids shown in (1) Figure 2.2 and bacteria have ester-bonded lipids shown in (2) in Figure 2.2. A) 1 - b; 2 - a B) 1 - b; 2 - c C) 1 - a; 2 - c D) 1 - c; 2 - d E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Analysis 24 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction Figure 2.
36. What kind of bond is at the arrow in Figure 2.3? A) Ionic bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Peptide bond D) Double covalent bond E) None of the above Answer: B Skill: Analysis CHAPTER 2 Chemical Principles 25 Figure 2.
37. What kind of bond is at the arrow in Figure 2.4? A) Ionic bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Peptide bond D) Double covalent bond

E) None of the above Answer: C Skill: Analysis

38. An E. coli culture that has been growing at 37°C is moved to 25°C. Which of the following changes must be made in its plasma membrane? A) Increase the number of phosphate groups. B) Increase the viscosity. C) Increase the number of saturated chains. D) Increase the number of unsaturated chains. E) No changes are necessary. Answer: D Skill: Understanding 26 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
39. Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 35 S. After 48 hr incubation, the 35 S would most likely be found in the S. cerevisiaeʹs A) Carbohydrates. B) Nucleic acids. C) Water. D) Lipids. E) Proteins. Answer: E Skill: Understanding
40. Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 32 P. After 48 hr incubation, the 32 P would most likely be found in the S. cerevisiaeʹs A) Plasma membrane. B) Cell wall. C) Water. D) Proteins. E) None of the above. Answer: A Skill: Understanding
41. Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of A) Amino acids. B) Glucose. C) Fatty acids. D) Nucleic acids. E) None of the above. Answer: B Skill: Recall
42. Which of the following is a base? A) C 2 H 5 OCOOH → H+ + C 2 H 5 OCOO- B) C 2 H 5 OH C) NaOH → Na + + OH- D) H 2 O → H+ + OH- E) All of the above Answer: C Skill: Analysis CHAPTER 2 Chemical Principles 27
43. Two glucose molecules are combined to make a maltose molecule. The chemical formula for maltose is A) C 3 H 6 O 3 B) C 6 H 12 O 6 C) C 12 H 24 O 12 D) C 12 H 22 O 11 E) C 12 H 23 O 10 Answer: D Skill: Analysis
44. Desulfovibrio bacteria can perform the following reaction: S 6 - → S 2 - These bacteria are A) Synthesizing sulfur. B) Reducing sulfur. C) Hydrolyzing sulfur. D) Oxidizing sulfur. Answer: D Skill: Understanding
45. Oil-degrading bacteria are naturally present in the environment but cannot degrade an oil spill fast enough to avoid ecological damage. The actions of these bacteria can be speeded up

by A) Providing oil for them. B) Providing sugar as a carbon source. C) Providing nitrogen and phosphorus. D) Adding water. E) All of the above. Answer: C Skill: Recall Essay Questions

1. Describe how the properties of phospholipids make these molecules well-suited for plasma membranes. 28 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction Figure 2.
2. Use Figure 2.5 to answer the following question. Starch, cellulose, dextran, and glycogen are polysaccharides. How are they similar? To what are their different properties due? Why canʹt an enzyme that hydrolyzes starch degrade cellulose? Chapter 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope Objective Questions
3. Which of the following is not equal to 1 m? A) 10 6 μm B) 10 9 nm C) 10 dm D) 100 mm E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Analysis
4. What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope? A) Ocular lens B) Objective lens C) Specimen D) Illuminator Answer: C Skill: Analysis
5. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Gram-negative bacteria negative stain B) Iodine mordant C) Alcohol acetone-decolorizer D) Acid-alcohol decolorizer E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Recall 29 30 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
6. Place the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order: 1 - Alcohol-acetone; 2 - Crystal violet; 3 - Safranin; 4 - Iodine. A) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 B) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 C) 2 - 4 - 1 - 3 D) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 E) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 Answer: C Skill: Recall
7. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Alcohol-acetone decolorizer B) Crystal violet basic dye C) Safranin acid dye D) Iodine mordant E) None of the above Answer: C Skill: Recall
8. The counterstain in the acid-fast stain is A) A basic dye.

B) An acid dye. C) A negative stain. D) A mordant. E) Necessary to determine acid-fast cells. Answer: A Skill: Recall

7. The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is A) To remove the simple stain. B) To make the bacterial cells larger. C) To make the flagella visible. D) To prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells. E) None of the above. Answer: D Skill: Recall CHAPTER 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope 31
8. Place the following steps in the correct sequence: 1 - Staining; 2 - Making a smear; 3 - Fixing. A) 1 - 2 - 3 B) 3 - 2 - 1 C) 2 - 3 - 1 D) 1 - 3 - 2 E) The order doesnʹt matter Answer: C Skill: Recall
9. The best use of a negative stain is A) To determine cell size. B) To determine cell shape. C) To determine Gram reaction. D) To see endospores. E) A and B Answer: E Skill: Recall
10. Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in this microscope. A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: A Skill: Recall
11. This microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state. A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: B Skill: Recall 32 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
12. Which of the following microscopes uses visible light? A) Confocal microscope B) DIC C) Fluorescence microscope D) Scanning acoustic microscope E) Scanning electron microscope Answer: B Skill: Analysis
13. This microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution. A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: E Skill: Recall
14. In this microscope, the observer does not look at an image through a lens.

A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: E Skill: Recall

15. This microscope produces an image of a light cell against a dark background; internal structures are not visible. A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: C Skill: Recall CHAPTER 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope 33
16. Which of the following is not correct? A) 1 μm = 10 - 6 m B) 1 nm = 10- 9 m C) 1 μm = 103 nm D) 1 μm = 10 - 3 mm E) 1 nm = 10 - 6 μm Answer: E Skill: Analysis
17. The counterstain in the Gram stain is A) A negative stain. B) A mordant. C) A basic dye. D) An acid dye. E) Necessary to determine the Gram reaction. Answer: C Skill: Understanding 34 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction Figure 3.
18. In Figure 3.1 line A points to the microscopeʹs A) illuminator. B) condenser. C) ocular lens. D) objective lens. Answer: C Skill: Recall
19. In Figure 3.1 line B points to the microscopeʹs A) illuminator. B) condenser. C) ocular lens. D) objective lens. Answer: D Skill: Recall
20. In Figure 3.1 line C points to the microscopeʹs A) illuminator. B) condenser. C) ocular lens. D) objective lens. Answer: B Skill: Recall CHAPTER 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope 35
21. The light that hits the specimen is scattered and does not come directly from the light source in this microscope. A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: C Skill: Recall

22. This microscope is used to observe a specimen that emits light when illuminated with an ultraviolet light. A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: D Skill: Recall
23. This microscope does not use a light. A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: E Skill: Recall
24. This microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures. A) Compound light microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) Fluorescence microscope E) Electron microscope Answer: B Skill: Recall 36 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
25. The appearance of gram-positive bacteria after addition of the first dye in the Gram stain. A) Purple B) Red C) Colorless D) Brown E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Analysis
26. The appearance of gram-negative bacteria after addition of the mordant in the Gram stain. A) Purple B) Red C) Colorless D) Brown E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Analysis
27. The appearance of gram-negative bacteria after addition of the decolorizing agent in the Gram stain. A) Purple B) Red C) Colorless D) Brown E) None of the above Answer: C Skill: Analysis
28. The appearance of gram-positive bacteria after adding the counterstain in the Gram stain. A) Purple B) Red C) Colorless D) Brown E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Analysis CHAPTER 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope 37
29. The appearance of gram-negative bacteria after completing the Gram stain. A) Purple B) Red C) Colorless D) Brown E) None of the above

Answer: B Skill: Analysis

30. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Confocal microscope produces a three-dimensional image B) Darkfield microscope uses visible light C) Fluorescence microscope uses a fluorescent light D) Scanning electron microscope produces a three-dimensional image E) Scanning tunneling microscope allows visualization of atoms Answer: C Skill: Analysis
31. What is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed with a 10 × ocular lens and a 45× objective lens? A) 10× B) 45× C) 100× D) 450× E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Analysis
32. You suspect a 100 nm structure is present in a cell. Which of the following provides the lowest magnification that you can use to see this structure? A) Brightfield microscope B) Darkfield microscope C) Transmission electron microscope D) Phase-contrast microscope E) Scanning electron microscope Answer: E Skill: Analysis 38 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
33. This microscope uses two beams of light to produce a three-dimensional, color image. A) Fluorescence microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) DIC microscope E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Recall
34. This microscope is used to see intracellular detail. A) Fluorescence microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) DIC microscope E) None of the above Answer: B Skill: Recall
35. Image looks like a negative stain in this microscope: A) Fluorescence microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) DIC microscope E) None of the above Answer: A Skill: Recall
36. This microscope is used to see detail of a 300 nm virus. A) Fluorescence microscope B) Phase-contrast microscope C) Darkfield microscope D) DIC microscope E) None of the above Answer: E Skill: Recall CHAPTER 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope 39
37. Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green with heat and then counterstaining with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are A) Cell walls. B) Capsules.

C) Endospores. D) Flagella. E) Canʹt tell. Answer: C Skill: Analysis

38. Cells are differentiated after which step in the Gram stain? A) Safranin B) Alcohol-acetone C) Iodine D) Crystal violet Answer: B Skill: Understanding
39. You find colorless areas in cells in a Gram-stained smear. What should you do next? A) An acid-fast stain B) A flagella stain C) A capsule stain D) An endospore stain E) A simple stain Answer: D Skill: Analysis
40. What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? A) Gram-positive B) Gram-negative C) Both gram-positive and gram-negative D) Canʹt tell Answer: A Skill: Analysis 40 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
41. Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to A) Kill the bacteria. B) Affix the cells to the slide. C) Make their walls permeable. D) A and B. E) All of the above. Answer: D Skill: Recall
42. The resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the A) Condenser. B) Fine adjustment. C) Wavelength of light. D) Diaphragm. E) Coarse adjustment. Answer: C Skill: Recall
43. Van Leeuwenhoekʹs microscope was a(n) A) Electron microscope. B) Phase-contrast microscope. C) Simple microscope. D) Confocal microscope. E) None of the above. Answer: C Skill: Recall
44. The purpose of the ocular lens is to A) Improve resolution. B) Magnify the image from the objective lens. C) Decrease the refractive index. D) Increase the light. E) None of the above. Answer: B Skill: Recall CHAPTER 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope 41
45. The signal molecule produced in quorum sensing is A) Counterstain. B) Inducer. C) Light. D) Simple stain.

E) None of the above. Answer: B Skill: Recall Essay Questions

1. In 1877, Robert Koch thought preparing permanently stained slides would be valuable. Why was his assessment correct?
2. In 1884, Hans Christian Gram described a method of staining bacterial cells while not staining surrounding animal tissues. However, he thought that the staining method he developed was faulty because all bacteria did not stain. In a letter to the editor of the journal in which Gram published his findings, write your response to Gramʹs concern. Chapter 4 Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells Objective Questions
3. Which of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells? A) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane. B) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles. C) They have cell walls containing peptidoglycan. D) Their DNA is not associated with histones. E) None of the above. Answer: E Skill: Recall
4. Which of the following is not true about a gram-positive cell wall? A) It maintains the shape of the cell. B) It is sensitive to lysozyme. C) It protects the cell in a hypertonic environment. D) It contains teichoic acids. E) None of the above. Answer: C Skill: Analysis
5. Which of the following best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl? A) Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration. B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis. C) Water will move out of the cell. D) Water will move into the cell. E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic. Answer: C Skill: Understanding 42 CHAPTER 4 Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells 43
6. The best definition of osmotic pressure is A) The movement of solute molecules from a higher to a lower concentration. B) The force with which a solvent moves across a semi-permeable membrane from a higher to a lower concentration. C) The movement of a substance across a semi-permeable membrane from a higher to a lower concentration. D) The active transport of a substance out of a cell to maintain equilibrium. E) The movement of solute molecules from a lower to a higher concentration across a semi-permeable membrane. Answer: B Skill: Understanding
7. By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration? A) Simple diffusion B) Facilitated diffusion C) Active transport D) Extracellular enzymes E) Any of the above Answer: C Skill: Analysis
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the plasma membrane? A) Maintains cell shape B) Composed of a phospholipid bilayer C) Contains proteins

D) The site of cell wall formation E) Selectively permeable Answer: A Skill: Analysis 44 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction

7. All of the following are lacking a cell wall except A) Protoplasts. B) Fungi. C) L forms. D) Mycoplasmas. E) Animal cells. Answer: B Skill: Recall
8. Which of the following statements is true? A) Endospores are for reproduction. B) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes. C) Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain. D) A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing. E) A cell can produce many endospores. Answer: B Skill: Recall
9. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Endoplasmic reticulum internal transport B) Golgi complex secretion C) Mitochondria ATP production D) Centrosome food storage E) Lysosome digestive enzymesAnswer: D Skill: Recall
10. Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell? A) Nucleus B) Mitochondrion C) Golgi complex D) Vacuole E) Cell wall Answer: B Skill: Analysis CHAPTER 4 Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells 45 Figure 4.1
11. In Figure 4.1, which drawing is a tetrad? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: B Skill: Recall
12. In Figure 4.1, which drawing possesses an axial filament? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: A Skill: Recall
13. In Figure 4.1, which drawing is streptococci? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Skill: Recall 46 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction
14. In Figure 4.1, which drawing is bacilli? A) a

B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: C Skill: Recall

15. Which of the following is generally not true of prokaryotic cells? A) They have a semirigid cell wall. B) They are motile by means of flagella. C) They possess 80S ribosomes. D) They reproduce by binary fission. E) None of the above. Answer: C Skill: Recall
16. Which of the following is not true about gram-negative cell walls? A) They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment. B) They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids. C) They are toxic to humans. D) They are sensitive to penicillin. E) Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane. Answer: D Skill: Analysis
17. Which of the following is not a structure found in prokaryotic cells? A) Flagella B) Axial filament C) Cilia D) Pili E) Peritrichous flagella Answer: C Skill: Recall CHAPTER 4 Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells 47
18. Which of the following is not true about the glycocalyx? A) It may be composed of polysaccharide. B) It may be composed of polypeptide. C) It may be responsible for virulence. D) It is used to adhere to surfaces. E) None of the above. Answer: E Skill: Analysis
19. Which of the following is not a chemical component of a bacterial cell wall? A) Cellulose B) Peptidoglycan C) Teichoic acids D) Peptide chains E) N-acetylmuramic acid Answer: A Skill: Analysis
20. Which of the following is not part of the active transport process? A) Plasma membrane B) Transporter proteins C) ATP D) Cell wall E) None of the above Answer: D Skill: Analysis 48 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction Figure 4.2
21. Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2? A) Peritrichous flagella B) Amphitrichous flagella C) Lophotrichous flagella D) Monotrichous flagella E) Axial filament Answer: C Skill: Recall

22. In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in A) Chloroplasts. B) Cytoplasm. C) Chromatophores. D) Mesosomes. E) None of the above. Answer: C Skill: Recall
23. The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion A) Can move materials from a higher to a lower concentration. B) Can move materials from a lower to a higher concentration. C) Requires ATP. D) Requires transporter proteins. E) Doesnʹt require ATP. Answer: D Skill: Analysis CHAPTER 4 Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells 49
24. Possible functions of magnetosomes include all of the following except A) Get cells to the North Pole. B) Protect cells from hydrogen peroxide accumulation. C) Composed of iron oxide. D) Locate suitable environments. E) None of the above. Answer: A Skill: Recall
25. Which of the following cell structures has a role in the initiation of disease? A) Gram-positive cell wall B) Lipid A C) Cell membrane D) Fimbriae E) All of the above Answer: D Skill: Recall
26. Fimbriae and pili differ in that pili A) Are composed of pilin. B) Are composed of flagellin. C) Are used to transfer DNA. D) Are used for asexual reproduction. E) Are used for attachment. Answer: C Skill: Recall 50 Test Bank for Microbiology: An Introduction Figure 4.3
27. In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall? A) a B) b C) Both a and b D) Neither a nor b E) Canʹt tell Answer: A Skill: Analysis
28. In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a toxic cell wall? A) a B) b C) Both a and b D) Neither a nor b E) Canʹt tell Answer: A Skill: Analysis
29. In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a wall that protects against osmotic lysis? A) a B) b C) Both a and b D) Neither a nor b E) Canʹt tell Answer: C