ISA MUNICIPAL CERTIFIED ABORIST EXAMS 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DE, Exams of Nursing

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ISA MUNICIPAL CERTIFIED ABORIST EXAMS

2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS

AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES

ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY

TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS

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What is the preferred retreat path for a felling tree operation? (A) 45-degrees off the opposite fell path (B) 45-degrees off the fell path (C) 90-degrees off the opposite fell path (D) 90-degrees off the fell path

The answer is (A)

The preferred retreat path if possible is 45-degrees off a line opposite of the path of the felled tree. This may occur in either direction.

What level of contact is acceptable when working near electrical lines? (A) Direct (B) Indirect (C) Direct with electrified lines only (D) No level of contact is acceptable

The answer is (D)

When working around power lines it is not acceptable to come in contact with them regardless of being direct or indirect. It shall be assumed that all lines are energized for safety.

According to OSHA standards, what is the minimum working clearance to any overhead lines if the voltage is less than 50 kV? (A) 5' (B) 10' (C) 15' (D) 25'

The answer is (B)

OSHA standards require a distance of no less than 10' from any overhead lines if the voltage is

less than 50 kV. If more than 50 kV, there is a progression of more distance as the voltage increases. This can be found in OSHA section 1926.1408(h).

What class of rubber Insulating Protective Equipment (IPE) is rated for use of an AC voltage up to 36 kV? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

The answer is (D)

There are five classes of IPE starting at zero for up to 1 kV and the highest is class four which protects up to 36 kV.

What portion of a chainsaw will potentially cause a kickback if contacted by an object? (A) Lower portion of base (B) Upper portion of base (C) Lower portion of tip (D) Upper portion of tip

The answer is (D)

Kickbacks are a very common cause of injury for chainsaw use. If the upper portion of the tip comes in contact with an object it can cause the saw to violently recoil back.

What is the minimum hinge angular dimension for a properly felling a tree? (A) 45o (B) 60o (C) 70o (D) 90o

The answer is (C)

A correct hinge is an open face notch with between 70 to 90 degrees.

What is a disadvantage of 3-strand type rope? (A) Cost (B) Ability to run through a pully (C) Ability to elongate (D) Tendency to twist

The answer is (D)

3-strand rope is a relatively inexpensive option with the ability to elongate but comes with low strength. A main disadvantage is a tendency to twist or hock during use.

What safety factor is typically used for arborist rigging? (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 15

The answer is (B)

The appropriate safety factor for arborist rigging is 5.

What hazard is a specific concern related to the removal of palm trees? (A) Wet ground (B) Reduced sunlight (C) Sloughing (D) Brittle failure

The answer is (C)

Palm skirts are a unique hazard when dealing with palm trees. There is the potential for them to break free and fall on workers below. This is called sloughing.

What is the first step in urgent care procedures? (A) Begin CPR if necessary (B) Assess the safety of the surroundings (C) Check for a pulse (D) Check for breathing

The answer is (B)

It is often instinctual when an incident occurs for individuals to rush in and help immediately. It is important however to remember to first evaluate the situation to ensure no additional harm may occur to the victim or yourself.

A tree that splits during a backcut in an upward direction is which of the following? (A) Hinge cut (B) Humboldt notch (C) Internal fault (D) Barber chair

The answer is (D)

Depending on the lean and weight distribution of the tree, it is possible for it to split vertically when applying a backcut. This is known as a barber chair.

What is the most commonly appropriate length of a hinge? (A) 50% of the tree diameter (B) 80% of the tree diameter

(C) 10% of the tree height (D) 100% of the tree diameter

The answer is (B)

The recommended length of a hinge is 80% of the tree diameter.

The correct location for a backcut on a conventional notch shall be: (A) Even with the apex of the notch (B) Above the apex of the notch (C) Below the apex of the notch (D) Even with the top of the notch

The answer is (B)

For conventional notches specifically, the location of the backcut should be slightly higher than the apex of the notch. For other notches, it is recommended even with the apex of the notch.

A rope has a tensile limit of 15,000 lbs. What is the working load limit for a safety factor of 10? (A) 1,500 lbs. (B) 5,000 lbs. (C) 7,800 lbs. (D) 10,000 lbs.

The answer is (A)

The safety factor is the limiting load over the working load:

Limiting load/working load = safety factor

Therefore:

15,000 lbs/working load = 10

Working load = 15,000/10 = 1500 lbs

What knot type is not commonly used as a climbing hitch? (A) Tautline (B) Figure 8 (C) Blake's hitch (D) All of the above

The answer is (C)

The figure 8 is not used as a climbing hitch but rather a stopper knot or end line knot.

Which of the following is a false statement regarding the use of snaps for securing the climbing line? (A) Snaps are not permitted in all countries (B) May be self-closing or assisted closing (C) Must be compatible with the D-ring specific to the attachment (D) Required to have double closing action

The answer is (B)

Snaps must be self-closing and locking and must fit with the D-ring on the harness. There are countries that do not permit the use of snaps.

What is the minimum required tensile strength in the United States for carabiners? (A) 1,000 lbs. (B) 2,500 lbs. (C) 5,000 lbs. (D) 10,000 lbs.

The answer is (C)

Carabiners in the United States and other countries must have a minimum tensile strength of 5,000 lbs.

What rope type has the highest amount of elongation when loaded? (A) Polypropylene (B) Polyester (C) HMPE (D) LCP

The answer is (A)

When ropes are loaded in tension they will expand in length. Different materials are more elastic than others. Nylon and polypropylene will elongate the most while other high strength ropes such as HMPE or Liquid crystal polymer elongate less.

What rope type has a core that can share the load with the outer cover? (A) 3-strand (B) Double braids (C) 12-strand (D) 16-strand

The answer is (B)

Different rope types have different configurations and handle the load differently. 3 and 12- strand ropes are braided without a core and have lower strengths. 16-strand ropes have a parallel core, but its function is to keep the strands firm under loading and does not share the load. Double braids have an inner core that can share in carrying tensile loading.

What statement below is true regarding the relationship between the magnitude of loading and a rope's fatigue life? (A) A higher load decreases the number of cycles to failure (B) A higher load increases the number of cycles to failure (C) The number of cycles to failure is a fixed number regardless of load magnitude (D) The number of cycles to failure may decrease but not increase due to load magnitude

The answer is (A)

Failure due to fatigue is the effect of repeated use on a rope. Each rope has a maximum number of cycles to failure until it should no longer be used. The number of cycles is dependent on the loading and a larger magnitude of loads can decrease the number of cycles to failure.

What knot type is commonly used for securing equipment to a tree? (A) Timber hitch (B) Sheet bend (C) Prusik hitch (D) Tautline hitch

The answer is (A)

Of those listed, the timber hitch is a common means of securing equipment to a tree. Another type common for this use includes the cow hitch.

What climbing technique uses a Prusik loop to increase safety? (A) Footlocking (B) Body-thrust (C) Single rope technique (D) Mechanical ascending devices

The answer is (A)

The footlocking technique involves wrapping the rope around the foot and ascending the tree without making contact with the trunk. To increase the safety and effectiveness of the technique, it is recommended to use a Prusik hitch to attach the line to the front rings of the harness in case of slippage.

What climbing equipment is permitted only for use on trees which are to be removed? (A) Climbing line (B) Spurs (C) Ladders (D) Mechanical ascending devices

The answer is (B)

Climbing spurs pierce into the tree to establish a strong footing for the climber. Due to the destructive nature of the climbing method, they can only be used on trees to be removed.

What is the minimum recommended main branch diameter for a tie-off point? (A) 2" (B) 3" (C) 4" (D) 6"

The answer is (C)

A tie-off branch needs to be stable and large enough to support the force of an individual falling. The minimum recommended diameter is 4"

What rigging technique has a high anticipated shock-loading? (A) Butt-hitching (B) Running bowline (C) Through natural crotch (D) Use of a drop zone

The answer is (A)

In Butt-hitching, a piece is tied above the cut, but the line is run below the cut. This can cause an intense swing resulting in a potentially unsafe situation.

The most common recommended cut type for the removal of limbs is which of the following? (A) Snap cut (B) Drop cut (C) Hinge cut (D) Vertical cut

The answer is (B)

If possible the recommended cut is the drop.

When making a snap cut, the second cut is located: (A) Opposite and even with the first cut (B) At the base of the limb (C) Opposite and below the first cut (D) Opposite and above the first cut

The answer is (D)

The snap cut technique has two cuts and is often used for smaller branches. The first is on the top or side about halfway through and the second on the opposite side about an inch higher.

For a rope that is ¾" in diameter, what is the minimum recommended pully diameter? (A) 1" (B) 2" (C) 3" (D) 6"

The answer is (C)

The recommended pulley or block to rope diameter ratio is 4:1. Therefore 0.75" x 4 = 3".

Carabiners shall not be loaded in which of the following situations? (A) Sideways (B) Against the gate (C) Along the minor axis (D) All of the above

Carabiners shall be set so that they are only loaded along the major axis and never against the gate. The major axis is the opposite of the gate, so the long side of the carabiner is parallel to the rope. The answer is (D)

What type of meristems produce cells which increase the diameter of the tree? (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Residual (D) Pith

There are two types of meristems: primary and secondary. Primary results in the growth of shoots and roots. Secondary results in an increase in the diameter of the tree. The answer is (B)

What species of tree listed below is not classified as ring porous? (A) Oak (B) Elm (C) Ash (D) Maple

Ring porous trees are those which produce wide vessels early in the growing season and narrow later on. Examples of these include elm, oak, and ash. Conversely, diffuse porous are those in which the vessels remain constant throughout the season. These include maple, planetree, and poplar. The answer is (D)

Question 84 What tissue produced by the cambium is closer to the outer portion of the tree? (A) Phloem (B) Cork cells (C) Xylem (D) Cortex

The cambium produces two types of tissue. The xylem towards the inside of the tree and the phloem to the outside. The answer is (A)

What is not one of the main functions of the xylem? (A) Storage of carbohydrates (B) Support of the tree's self-weight (C) Defense against disease and decay (D) Moving of carbohydrates

The xylem has the following roles: · Conduction of water and elements · Storing carbohydrates · Protect against disease and decay · Support the tree itself The moving of carbohydrates is the job of the phloem The answer is (D)

The dominant bud which is most active on the branch or twig is called: (A) Lateral (B) Axillary (C) Terminal (D) Adventitious

Buds located at the end of the branch are known as the apical or terminal bud. These are often the most active and others are left dormant. The answer is (C)

What characteristic of engineered fill has a detrimental effect on root growth if used near an existing tree? (A) High level of compaction (B) Excessive number of voids (C) Increased drainage capacity (D) Decreased levels of PH

Engineered fill is used to create a stable base for structures above. Therefore, it is more easily and densely compacted. This creates a soil environment that is not conducive to root growth or proper conditions. The answer is (A)

Vertical roots formed to increase the anchorage of the system are known as: (A) Tap root (B) Root crown (C) Sinker root (D) Lateral root

Some trees will develop an additional vertical root to establish a better anchorage in the ground. These form off the lateral roots and are called sinkers. The answer is (C)

What element is released as a part of the process of photosynthesis? (A) O

(B) H2O

(C) C

(D) CO

Photosynthesis takes in water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) and releases oxygen. The answer is (A)

According to the Shigo CODIT model, what wall of defense is not included in the reaction zone? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

The CODIT (compartmentalization of decay in trees) model proposes the defense against decay including four walls · Wall 1: Resists vertical spread · Wall 2: Resists inward spread · Wall 3: Inhibits lateral spread · Wall 4: Protects against outward spread The reaction zone is composed of the first three walls. The answer is (D)

Biologically, palms are similar to which of the following? (A) Grass (B) Flowers (C) Animals (D) Oak

Palms have more biological similarities to grass than they do trees. Palms are composed of vascular bundles of phloem and xylem rather than the cambium layer. The answer is (A)

At what depth in the soil are the majority of the roots for palm trees? (A) 1 to 6 inches (B) 6 to 12 inches (C) 12 to 18 inches (D) 18 to 24 inches

For palms, the majority of the root structure falls close to the stem at a depth of about 12 to 18 inches. This differs from other trees which commonly have most of the absorbing roots fall within the first 12 inches of the soil. The answer is (C)

The preferred location of a thinning pruning cut in general is: (A) To the inside of the branch collar (B) To the outside of the branch collar (C) Halfway between the collar and tip (D) At the branch bark ridge

It is recommended to make cuts for pruning just to the outside of the branch collar. The answer is (B)

What is not a common characteristic of codominant stems? (A) No branch bark ridge (B) No branch protection zone (C) No presence of included bark (D) No branch collar

When codominant stems form, the competing stems inhibit proper growth. This leads to certain characteristics not properly forming such as a bark ridge, branch protection zone, or branch collar. Included bark is that forms to the interior and weakens the connection of the stems. This is commonly formed as a part of codominant stems. The answer is (C)

A tree is damaged heavily in a storm and only a few branches are remaining. What is most likely the appropriate pruning cut to try to save the tree? (A) Reduction (B) Heading (C) Three-cut (D) Thinning

In a situation where there is severe damage to a tree, a heading cut may be most appropriate. This removes the limbs to a stub which can be appropriate given the damage to the tree. The answer is (B)

What is not a detrimental effect as a result of topping? (A) Shock (B) Slowed new growth (C) Weakened limbs (D) Increased chance for disease

Topping is a type of heading cuts where the tree is cut back to a predetermined crown limit. In general, it is not a recommended practice and is seen as a lazy way to avoid proper pruning techniques. Some of the effects include: · Starvation · Increased disease · Potential for insects · Weaker limbs · Death · Poor aesthetics · Rapid new growth · Shock The answer is (B)

What is not an advantage of structural pruning? (A) Decreased chance of codominant stems

(B) Removal of defects (C) Less maintenance (D) Reduced equipment

The use of structural pruning saves potential problems such as codominant stems, defects that may be a problem, or other maintenance related activities. The answer is (D)

When selecting the permanent branch which of the following parameters shall apply? (A) It shall be the lowest branch (B) It shall be selected based on tree function (C) It shall be less than half the diameter of the trunk (D) All of the above

Pruning for young trees involves determining the lowest permanent branch. It is the lowest branch and the selection is determined by judgment based on the functionality of the tree. It is recommended that it should not be greater than one half of the tree diameter. The answer is (D)

What is the maximum recommended percentage of removal for a canopy per year? (A) 10% (B) 25% (C) 35% (D) 50%

No more than 25% of the tree canopy shall be removed in any one year. The answer is (B)

What component of the branch attachment has the ability to chemically prevent the spread of decay? (A) Branch collar (B) Branch bark (C) Stem (D) Branch protection zone

The branch protection zone is the area inside the collar. It has the ability to use chemicals as well as its physical properties to attempt to stop the spread of decay to the rest of the tree. The answer is (D)

What type of mature tree pruning is specifically done to provide a better view past the tree? (A) Vista pruning (B) Crown thinning (C) Crown reduction (D) Lion tailing

There are often reasons for pruning that do not involve the best interest of the life of the tree but rather to better serve a functional purpose. Vista pruning is the process of removing branches to improve eye line for a view. It shall still be done however with the tree's best

interest in mind and a balance shall be maintained. The answer is (A)

Healthy fronds on palm trees shall not be removed if possible if they are less than what angle to the stem? (A) 45o (B) 90o (C) 120o (D) 180o

If possible healthy, older fonds should not be removed. If they must be, fonds that are at an angle of less than 90o perpendicular to the stem shall not be removed. The answer is (B)

A tree can be defined as decurrent when: (A) New lateral shoots outgrow the original terminal shoots (B) Terminal shoots are longer than expected (C) Narrow tree crown (D) Strong apical control

Decurrent trees are when the buds produce lateral shoots that outgrow the originals year after year leading to a more widespread growth pattern. The answer is (A)

What is not a primary function of tree roots? (A) Conduction (B) Absorption (C) Anchorage (D) Defense

Roots have four major roles: · Conduction · Absorption · Anchorage · Storage The answer is (D)

The removal of an excessive amount of inner lateral branches causing a poor distribution of foliage is: (A) Lion tailing (B) Crown reduction (C) Pollarding (D) Espalier

Lion tailing occurs when too many inner laterals are removed and there no longer is an appropriate distribution. This can lead to bark sunburn, breakage, and waterspouts. The answer is (A)

Fungi can be beneficial to a tree, despite using the tree for food, by aiding in what root function? (A) Storage (B) Anchorage (C) Absorption (D) Conduction

Fungi can form a mutually beneficial relationship with the root of a tree. The fungi receive food from the tree and in return, the fungi help with absorption. The answer is (C)

What is the relationship that must exist between production rates of photosynthesis and respiration? (A) Respiration > Photosynthesis (B) Respiration < Photosynthesis (C) Respiration = Photosynthesis (D) The tree can survive at any level of relationship

Respiration takes the food stored by photosynthesis and converts it into energy. If the production rate due to photosynthesis is less than the required energy, the tree will eventually die. Therefore, there needs to be a greater rate of producing starches than is used for energy. The answer is (B)

Water movement within the tree between different aged cells is what type of transport? (A) Axial (B) Longitudinal (C) Osmosis (D) Radial

Water that moves between cells of different ages is called radial transport. The answer is (D)

What wound dressing has been proven to increase the rate of repair? (A) Tar (B) Paint (C) Petroleum solvent (D) None of the above

Wound dressings at one time were perceived as having the ability to decrease recovery time for trees but current research advises against the use. The answer is (D)

What type of cuts are done initially when using pollarding as a pruning technique for young trees? (A) Internodal (B) Outernodal (C) Auxiliary (D) Dominant

Pollarding is a process that involves severe heading early in a tree's life followed by annual sprout removal. To begin the process, internodal cuts are made to promote sprout growth at specific locations. Pollard heads will develop, and sprouts will extend from these locations. The answer is (A)

Sterilization of pruning tools is necessary when: (A) Disease exists in the tree (B) Only for specific tree types (C) If the tool has been used before with disease (D) Tools shall always be sterilized

Tools need to be sterilized if there is a presence of disease in the tree to prevent the spread of disease. They do not need to be done for every use. The answer is (A)

What type of pruning shears are best suited for growing branches and stems? (A) Bypasse (B) Anvil (C) Ratchets (D) Loppers

There are three types of pruning shears: · Anvil: Straight blade with splitting action · Bypasse: Scissor like action. Used commonly with growing stems · Ratchet: Stage cut anvil structure. The answer is (A)

What pruning technique is used to increase light penetration and air movement? (A) Cleaning (B) Thinning (C) Raising (D) Reduction

There are many types of pruning techniques: · Cleaning: Removal of dead, diseased, or problematic branches · Thinning: Cleaning and selective removal to increase light or air penetration · Raising: Removal of lower branches to raise clearance · Reduction: Reduction of the size of the tree The answer is (B)

What pruning tool is most likely best for branches up to 2½" thick? (A) Anvil pruning shear (B) Lopper (C) Pole pruner (D) Pruning saw

A lopper is suited for branches slightly bigger than pruning shears and can be used for those up to 2½". The answer is (B)

What is not an acceptable alternative to tree topping? (A) See if the removal of small branches can solve the issue (B) Remove a large branch so that another may assume a terminal role (C) Remove and replace the tree (D) None of the above

Topping is not a recommended practice and shall be done if other alternatives have been considered and determined to not be feasible. This includes removal of the tree entirely. The answer is (D)

What is the most appropriate space between permanent branches? (A) 1 ft. (B) 2.5 ft. (C) 1% of the longest branch (D) 3% of the tree height

The preferred distance between permanent branches is a function of the tree height and typically can be taken as 3%. The answer is (D)

What is the typical minimum clearance from the ground to the lowest permanent branch for a tree which will accommodate pedestrian traffic? (A) 5 ft. (B) 6 ft. (C) 8 ft. (D) 12 ft.

The clearance to the lowest permanent branch needs to be determined by judgment based on the functionality of the tree. It may be higher or lower depending on what the space needs to accommodate. In the case of pedestrians, it is recommended that a clearance of 8 ft. minimum is appropriate. The answer is (C)

What statement regarding how trees heal is false? (A) Trees grow over wounds (B) Smaller cuts are more damaging than larger ones (C) Wounds stay within the tree forever (D) Wound dressings are often ineffective

Larger cuts are indeed more harmful than smaller ones simply due to the magnitude of the impact. The answer is (B)

What plant health risk is not a living threat? (A) Pathogens (B) Phytoplasmas (C) Fungi (D) Mineral deficiencies

Plant health risks are often categorized into living or nonliving threats. Living includes phytoplasmas, insects and bugs, fungi, bacteria, viruses, and pathogens. Nonliving threats are also called abiotic disorders and include outside influences such as temperature, soil conditions, and deficiencies. The answer is (D)

Localized dead stem tissue which may be discolored is what type of tree disorder symptom? (A) Canker (B) Blight (C) Leaf blotch (D) Dieback

Canker is the presence of localized dead stem tissue which may be shrunken or discolored. Blight is the dieback of leaves on the major portions of the tree. Leaf blotch is dead spots on the leaves and dieback is characterized by a progressive decay of twigs starting at the tip and working backward. The answer is (A)

What is the most accurate description of the tree disorder chlorosis? (A) Drooping of leaves (B) Swollen plant tissue (C) Dead areas of tissue on leaves (D) Yellowing of green tissue

Chlorosis is characterized by yellowing of green tissue. Typically, this is caused by a lack of chlorophyll. The answer is (D)

What example of tree stressors can be classified as acute? (A) Lightning strike (B) Insufficient soil (C) Poor light exposure (D) Poor moisture conditions

Tree stressors are either acute or chronic. Chronic are a part of the existing condition of the tree such as soil conditions, drainage, or access to minerals or light. Acute are non-regular actions that have some impact on the tree. The answer is (A)

What is most likely not a possible cause of deformed leaves? (A) Spray injury (B) Air pollution

(C) Anthracnose (D) Frost

Air pollution will have a detrimental effect on leaves but are more likely to cause discoloration from the chemicals. Causes of deformed leaves can include: · Spray · Leaf galls · Fungus · Virus · Herbicide · Frost · Anthracnose · Insects The answer is (B)

What tree symptom is not likely to be caused by insect infestation? (A) Leaf droop (B) Yellow specks (C) Off-color foliage (D) Leaves with scorched appearance

The presence of insects has a wide range of effects on a healthy tree. One which is not typical of infestation is brown or scorched looking leaves. This is more often caused by other factors such as heat, pollution, infection, or winter drying. The answer is (D)

What insect listed below is classified as having piercing or sucking mouthparts? (A) Leafhoppers (B) Beetles (C) Weevils (D) Borers

Different types of bugs classified by their mouthpiece will have a different impact on the tree. Insects like caterpillars, beetles, weevils, and borers are chewing insects. Others like the leafhopper, aphid, and scale are piercers. The answer is (A)

What herbicide type eliminates the whole of the plant over a short period of time? (A) Pre-emergent (B) Contact (C) Systemic (D) Drench

Different types of herbicides are applied at different times and results: · Pre-emergent: applied prior to growth and affects the process of germination · Contact: applied directly to a plant to kill off parts which are contacted · Systemic: applied to a plant to kill it in its entirety

· Drench: soil applied The answer is (C)

If a tree is suffering from girdling root, what is most likely not an advisable action? (A) Remove the largest roots first (B) Remove only the smallest roots (C) Remove the tree (D) None of the above

Girdling root is a tree's roots growing in such a way that it chokes off the trunk and prevents proper growth and nutrition. It is recommended that the largest roots not be removed since this may hinder a significant portion of the root system and its ability to function properly. The answer is (A)

Which of the following is not actually classified as an insect? (A) Mites (B) Beetles (C) Moths (D) Caterpillars

Mites are more similar in structure to arachnids and do not behave in the same manner as insects. The answer is (A)

What statement below is false regarding vascular disease? (A) Examples include Dutch elm disease and oak wilt (B) It is treatable if found in a reasonable timeframe (C) It affects the flow of water and nutrients (D) It originates from pathogens entering the plant

Vascular disease is when pathogens enter the plant and disrupt the flow of nutrients. There is little that can be done once diagnosed and often result in rapid death. The answer is (B)

Cellulose and lignin are a defense mechanism against predators by what means? (A) They give off an unfavorable odor (B) They can't be digested (C) They have a poor taste (D) They are toxic

Cellulose and lignin prevent herbivores from eating leaves by not being digestible. The answer is (B)

A tree exhibits wounded areas of the lower trunk and some physical damage to surface roots. What is the most likely cause of the injury? (A) Frost (B) Poor soil conditions

(C) Lawnmower or machinery (D) Disease

Understanding the location and type of damage is the first step in identifying the cause of distress. In this case, there is apparent physical damage and it is on the lower and exposed portion of the tree. This is consistent with machinery such as lawnmowers being used in contact with the tree and causing harm. The answer is (C)

What is not one of the primary functions of the energy produced by photosynthesis? (A) Maintenance (B) Growth (C) Aesthetics (D) Defense

Photosynthesis produces sugars used for energy. This energy is used for: · Growth · Defense · Storage · Maintenance The answer is (C)

What statement below is true regarding how a tree's growth rate and photosynthesis rate will react to the amount of available resources? (A) The growth rate will be limited before the photosynthesis rate (B) The photosynthesis rate will be limited before the growth rate (C) The photosynthesis rate and growth rate become hindered equally with limited resources (D) The photosynthesis rate will not be hindered by limited resources

If water, nutrients, and sunlight are not appropriately available, it will affect the tree's ability to both produce energy and grow properly. However, the correlation between the growth rate and the available resources is more sensitive than that of the photosynthesis rate. The growth rate will begin to drop off significantly before the rate of photosynthesis. The answer is (A)

What single resource has the most detrimental effect on a tree's ability to perform photosynthesis if limited? (A) Light (B) Water (C) CO (D) None of the above

To perform the process of photosynthesis and produce energy, a tree needs light, water, chlorophyll, essential minerals, and CO2. If any one of the elements is missing, the process cannot proceed. The answer is (D)

What extract listed below is not an allelochemical classified as a natural insecticide? (A) Nicotine (B) Lignin (C) Rotenone (D) Neem

Allelochemicals are deferring agents to ward off insects or herbivores. Some natural insecticides include nicotine, pyrethrin, neem, and rotenone. The answer is (B)

A tree is identified as being in the mortality spiral when what has occurred? (A) The tree has begun to see detrimental stress factors (B) The tree has seen an isolated but severely detrimental stress factor (C) Cumulative stress factors have yielded a situation where very few actions can save the tree (D) Any combination of stress factors has occurred over time

The mortality spiral is a condition where trees have seen a number of stress factors which now have made the ultimate decline of the tree's health almost inevitable. Once this point has occurred there is often little or no practices that can reverse the cycle. The answer is (C)

The foundational element of an appropriate response process (ARP) is which of the following? (A) Monitoring (B) Immediate action (C) Establish thresholds (D) Readily available resources

The appropriate response process (ARP) is the act of gathering information to make assessments of any action that needs to be taken based on the best interest of the tree and the client. This cannot be determined without proper and continuous monitoring of the tree's health and situation. The answer is (A)

What is not a characteristic of any organism classified as a pest? (A) Threatens health or appearance of plants (B) May also contribute to the surrounding landscape (C) Provides competition to the local landscape (D) Diminishes safety or enjoyment of an area

Pests are those which have a harmful effect to the area. They often will create competition for resources, have a detrimental effect on the health of other living things, and reduce the safety or desirability of the area. The answer is (B)

Key stressors are identified by what criteria? (A) Universally detrimental site conditions (B) Retroactive analysis of stress

(C) Identifying local pests and conditions which may be detrimental (D) Species specific historical stressors

Key stressors may be pests or site conditions specific to the surrounding environment of the tree. They are unique to the species and location of the tree. The answer is (C)

Key plants can be identified by which of the following criteria? (A) Client specific indications (B) Specific species (C) Susceptibility to specific pests (D) All the above

Key plants are either those species with an inherent known susceptibility to pest problems or as identified by a client as special. The answer is (D)

For a threshold temperature of 50o, determine the average degree day unit value for temperatures over a 3-day span of 85o, 76o, and 82o. (A) 22o (B) 26o (C) 31o (D) 45o

The calculation of a degree-day for use in a degree-day model can be obtained by subtracting the threshold temperature from the average daily temperature. Therefore, for each day we have: Day 1: 85 - 50 = 35o Day 2: 76 - 50 = 26o Day 3: 82 - 50 = 32o Then take the average of the three days:

= 35 + 26 + 32 3 = 31#

The answer is (C)

What statement regarding landscapes with a monoculture of plantings is true? (A) They are more susceptible to pest problems (B) They are less susceptible to pest problems (C) They are equally as susceptible to pest problems (D) No correlation exists

Monoculture landscapes involve very little diversity of species. This can be detrimental to pest prevention by creating an easier path to widespread problems. The answer is (A)

What is not one of the three options available for plant health care professionals to manage pests? (A) Manage (B) Eradicate (C) Suppress (D) Prevent

Plant health care prevention for pests includes three options: · Prevent · Suppress · Eradicate The answer is (A)

What is not a means of biological control for pest populations? (A) Predators (B) Pathogens (C) Parasites (D) Miticides

The three options for biological control include: · Predators · Pathogens · Parasites Miticides are a form of pesticides used for the chemical control of pests. The answer is (D)

After application of pesticides, it is found that the original threat has died off, but a new contingency of mites has developed as a threat. This development is classified as which of the following? (A) Pest insurgence (B) Pest resurgence (C) Primary outbreak (D) Secondary outbreak

Sometimes the use of pesticides will work to eliminate a specific species, but this will then, in turn, eliminate competition for a second species to cause problems. This is known as secondary pest outbreak. The answer is (D)

What type of alternative pesticide has the potential side effect of phytotoxic injury if used during dry periods? (A) Insect growth regulator (B) Microbial (C) Insecticidal soap (D) Horticultural oil

Some plants may suffer phytotoxic injury due to the use of horticultural oils in dry times. The answer is (D)

When valuing the cost of a tree, when is it most appropriate to use the CTLA trunk formula method? (A) The tree is below a specific height (B) Smaller sized trunks (C) Larger sized trunks (D) Excessive number of branches

The CTLA trunk formula method is based on the size of the tree and is best suited for those which are too large to have comparisons of replacement. The answer is (C)

What type of ordinance would stipulate the requirements of trees that fall within two pieces of property? (A) Right-of-way (B) Permits (C) List of acceptable species (D) Tree preservation order

There are a number of ordinances that affect the proper handling, placement or maintenance of trees. If there is a question involving property lines and obligations, it is an issue of right-ofway. The answer is (A)

If a threshold temperature is established as 50o, what is the degree day unit recorded for a day with a temperature of 30o? (A) 0o (B) 20o (C) -20o (D) -30o

When calculating the degree day unit, a negative number is recorded as zero. The answer is (A)

What is not considered a benefit of trees in an urban setting for environmental advantages? (A) Improved air quality (B) Increased runoff for better flow of drainage (C) Cooling of the air (D) Better habitats for wildlife

Trees have a number of benefits which may be environmental, social, economic or aesthetic. Some of the environmental advantages include better quality and cooler air, better habitat for local wildlife, reduction in greenhouse effects, and decreased stormwater runoff creating a more efficient drainage system. The answer is (B)

The value of green infrastructure ____________ over time. (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Stays stagnant (D) Has a slight increase and then a gradual decline

Green infrastructure as it grows properly will increase in value over time by increasing in size or significance. The answer is (A)

A tree is measured to have a drip line to drip line distance of 66 ft. Using a canopy cover estimation of the tree as a circle, how many trees would it take to cover one acre? (A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 13 (D) 22

A method for calculating canopy cover includes estimating the cover of a tree as a circle with a diameter measured from the drip line on one end to the other. To then calculate the cover, use the equation for the area of a circle:

A= pi(r)^2 = pi(33)^2 = 3419.5 ft^2

Then you can divide the square feet of one tree into that of an acre which is 43,560 square feet

43560/3419.5 = 12.73 Trees

Round up to 13 trees. The answer is (C)

What is the commonly accepted reasonable maximum amount of a single plant family within an overall tree population? (A) 10% (B) 30% (C) 50% (D) 60%

Diversity among tree populations is important for the balance of aesthetics and defense. It is often recommended to maintain the following maximums within populations: · 30% of a single plant family · 20% of a single genus · 10% of a single species The answer is (B)

What is not a common subcomponent of an urban forest management plan? (A) Risk management plan (B) Planting plan