ISSA FINAL EXAM Question with 100% correct Answers Latest Updates 2024 GRADE A+, Exams of Nursing

Download ISSA FINAL EXAM Question with 100% correct Answers Latest Updates 2024 GRADE A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! ISSA FINAL EXAM Question with 100% correct Answers Latest Updates 2024 GRADE A+ 1. Who should recommend a GXT for a client prior to starting an exercise program? a. Trainer b. Client c. Nutritionist d. Physician 2. Which of the following is a key strategy for nutrition coaching? a. Identifying and eliminating behavior goals b. Identifying and eliminating time constraints c. Identifying and eliminating limiting factors d. Identifying and eliminating outcome goals 3. Which of the following is used to measure the pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels during refilling of the heart? a. Systolic pressure b. Heart rate c. Diastolic pressure d. Pulse 4. Utilizing the FITT principle, how many times per week should a beginner client workout? a.2 b.4 c.3 d.5 5. Which of the following is responsible for sensing excessive stretch to protect the muscle? a. Golgi tendon organ b. Muscle spindle c. Muscle fiber d. Sarcomere 6. What type of contraction is involved in controlling and stopping a movement? a. Eccentric b. Isometric c. Agonist d. Concentric 7. Which of the following populations are environmental considerations such as pollen, allergies, and extreme temperatures key for? a. Youth b. Asthma c. Arthritis d. Hypertension 8. The "hunchback", or rounded appearance of the upper back is known as which postural deviation? a. Kyphosis b. Lordosis c. Forward head d. Swayback 9. What is an alternative exercise for the hanging leg raise? a. Crunches b. Straight arm pulldown c. Pushups d. Cable crossover 10. Which joint in the body is known as the saddle joint? a. Knee b. Ankle c. Thumb d. Atlanto-axial Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 21. The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle? a. Gluteus b. Soleus c. Hamstrings d. Quadriceps 22. Which contraction helps to generate enough tension in muscles to contract explosively? a. Eccentric b. Ballistic c. Concentric d. Isometric 23. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of carbohydrates? a.4 b.3 c.5 d.6 24. A weight loss client is currently exercising 5+ hours a week and hits a plateau. What adjustments should a trainer suggest? a. Increase k/cal by 250 b. Decrease k/cal by 100 c. Increase k/cal 100 d. Decrease k/cal by 250 25. Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining? a. Increase in body weight b. Decreased number of infections c. Lowered heart rate during exercise d. Decrease in performance Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 26. Which macronutrient contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecules? a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Glycogen 27. A client performs 8 repetitions of seated leg press at 320 lbs., what is their estimated 1RM? a. 420 lbs. b. 400 lbs. c. 460 lbs. d. 480 lbs. 28. In a client's training cycle, one day or training session is known as which of the following? a. Microcycle b. Mesocycle c. Macrocycle d. Peak Cycle 29. What plane of motion do lateral raises take place in? a. Rotational b. Transverse c. Frontal d. Sagittal 30. When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage? a. Heimlich maneuver b. Valsalva maneuver c. Mueller maneuver d. Diaphragmatic maneuver Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 31. Which of the following is an example of a behavior goal? a. Lose 10 pounds b. Increase back squat by 10 pounds c. Workout 3 days a week d. Decrease mile run time by 1 minute 32. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a male client? a. 1 thumb b. 2 thumbs c. 1 fist d. 2 fists 33. A trainer has an explosive-sport athlete client and has them perform explosive movements. Which of the following principles does this describe? a. Individual differences b. Progressive overload c. SAID d. GAS 34. What occurs when exercise begins and the intake of oxygen doesn't immediately meet the demands? a. Oxygen deficit b. Oxygen debt c. Aerobic fitness d. Anaerobic fitness 35. Maximal heart rate is calculated by subtracting your age from: a. 100 b. 180 c. 220 d. 200 Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 46. Which principle states that we all undergo stress in three stages: shock, compensation, and exhaustion? a. Individual differences b. GAS c. Overload d. Specificity 47. Which of the following is the best carbohydrate source to consume for weight/fat loss? a. Minimally processed, slow digesting b. Processed quickly, fast acting c. A combination of fast and slow carbohydrates d. Moderately processed, absorbed quickly 48. Individuals with hypertension should moderate their intake of which of the following? a. Salt b. Fiber c. Water d. Fruit 49. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for testing upper body strength? a. Bench press b. Push-up c. Zipper stretch d. Bicep curl 50. How the body breaks down and uses energy for activity is which of the following? a. Anaerobic exercise b. Aerobic exercise c. Energy metabolism d. ATP/CP pathway Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 51. Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition? a. A cheat meal once a week b. Meal prep routine c. Adequate sleep and recovery d. Repetitive weekends full of not following the plan 52. "Keep your heels on the ground" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements? a. Dumbbell incline bench press b. Squat c. Lunge d. Bench press 53. Which of the following intake forms is necessary to ensure no prior medical concerns for a client? a. Liability waiver b. Comprehensive client form c. PAR-Q d. Recovery assessment 54. Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers known as which of the following? a. Actin and tropomyosin b. Tropin and myosin c. Tropoactin and myosin d. Actin and myosin 55. Which assessment allows a trainer to understand a client's lean body and total fat mass? a. Body fat calculation b. Girth measurements c. Scale weight d. Photographs Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 56. How often should information be collected when working with a client? a. Only on the initial assessment b. Once a month c. Every time a trainer meets with them d. Only at reassessments 57. What is primarily responsible for strength gains in beginning clients? a. Hypertrophy adaptations b. Neural adaptations c. Environmental adaptations d. Anaerobic adaptations 58. What bone runs parallel to the fibula? a. Radius b. Femur c. Tibia d. Ulna 59. When administering a skin-fold assessment, which side of the body should all measurements be taken on for body fat? a. Left b. Front c. Right d. Back 60. Which of the following is the agonist used in the upright row exercise? a. Triceps b. Deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi d. Gastrocnemius Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 71. What plane of motion does squatting take place in? a. Sagittal b. Frontal c. Transverse d. Lateral 72. When is it okay for a client to become intimately involved with their trainer? a. If both parties consent to it b. Never c. If the trainer's manager knows about it d. Always 73. Which type of contraction requires the muscles to "activate" but have no movement or change in muscle length? a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Eccentric d. Isotonic 74. What is an inexpensive, portable, and common way to assess body fat in the fitness industry? a. DEXA b. Bioelectrical impedance c. Skinfold testing d. Hydrostatic weighing 75. Which of the following is the smallest phase or cycle of training? a. Mesocycle b. Macrocycle c. Recovery cycle d. Microcycle Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 76. A conditioned client's resting heart rate will be which of the following? a. Less than 60 BPM b. 61-70 BPM c. 71-80 BPM d. More than 81 BPM 77. Constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions occur in order to maintain a certain position during: a. Guided movement b. Sustained force c. Dynamic balance d. Ballistic movement 78. Which of the following is an example of an outcome goal? a. Lose 10 pounds b. Eat out only once a week c. Workout 3 days a week d. Go for a walk daily 79. Which of the following supplements assists in muscle contraction, immunity, and regulation of blood sugar? a. Protein powder b. Fish oil c. Vitamin D d. Magnesium 80. Which principle do emergency medical professionals use to reduce the pain and inflammation from an athletic injury? a. RICE principle b. FITT principle c. HITT principle d. NCAA principle Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 82. During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the liability waiver be signed? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 3 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 5 83. Programming tempo runs for a client who wishes to compete in a race represents which training principle? a. Progressive overload b. SAID principle c. Henneman's size principle d. 2-for-2 rule 84. Metabolism can be categorized in which of the following phases? a. Symbiosis and anabolism b. Morphosis and catabolism c. Symbiosis and catabolism d. Catabolism and anabolism 85. Which of the following is the recommended duration of exercise for a beginner hypertensive client? a. 20-30 mins a day, 2 days per week b. 45-60 mins a day, 2 days per week c. 20-30 mins a day, 4 days per week d. 45-60 mins a day, 4 days per week 86. Which of the following is the prime mover used in the bench press? a. Trapezius upper b. Pectoralis major c. Biceps bracii d. Latissimus dorsi Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 97. "Do not allow legs to bow inward or outward" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements? a. Hanging leg raise b. Tube walking c. Dumbbell incline bench press d. Lunge 98. Those who engage in cross training may experience which of the following? a. Increased risk of injury b. Positive orthopedic benefit c. Decreased risk of injury d. Specific adaptations 99. Which of the following represents a portion control strategy for women regarding carbohydrates? a. 4 cups a day b. 1 cupped handful c. 120 grams d. 3 servings 100. Which of the following training principles dictates increasing load or intensity each mesocycle? a. Progressive overload b. GAS c. Quality training d. Individual differences 101. Which macronutrient is made up of carbon and hydrogen elements joined together in long groups called hydrocarbons? a. Proteins b. Magnesium c. Potassium d. Fats Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 102. Which of the following represents safe load increases for a beginner client? a. 5-10% b. 1-4% c. 12-15% d. 16-18% 103. Which of the following is the recommended exercise intensity level for a client with Type I diabetes? a. Less than 40% MHR b. 40-54% MHR c. 55-85% MHR d. More than 86% MHR 104. Which of the following are the four elements of fitness programs? a. Strength, cardio, flexibility, body composition b. Warm-up, cardio, strength, power c. Strength, power, cardio, flexibility d. Warm-up, strength, cardio, flexibility 105. Which of the following is an environmental stressor a client may experience? a. Job problems b. Allergies c. Overuse stress d. Schedule conflicts 106. Which of the following increases the rate of fatty acid metabolism and decreases the rate of carbohydrate metabolism during aerobic exercise? a. Fish oil b. Caffeine c. Alcohol d. Magnesium Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 107. What is the appropriate protein portion for women? a. 2 palm portions b. 2 cupped handfuls c. 1 cupped handful d. 1 palm portion 108. Which of the following is an acceptable body fat range for a male client? a. 6-9% b. 10-14% c. 15-18% d. 19-23% 109. At what age will most adults experience decrease ROM? a. 40 b. 45 c. 50 d. 55 110. The gluteus maximus is located superior to which muscle? a. Biceps brachii b. Erector spinae c. Gastrocnemius d. Brachioradialis 111. Which of the following determines how many meals a client should eat per day? a. The trainer's discretion b. Client preference c. According to how the client's body responds d. It should always be 5 meals per day Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 122. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of protein? a.4 b.3 c. 7 d.5 123. How many hours after a meal should a diabetic train? a. 1-3 b. 2-4 c. 7-8 d. 5-6 124. If body fat has decreased but the scale has stayed the same, this means your client has gained which of the following? a. Fat mass b. Water weight c. Bone density d. Lean mass 125. What exercise should be performed LAST? a. Shuttle runs b. Power snatch c. Overhead press d. Front raise 126. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do? a. Stop the workout, offer her water b. Ask another trainer what to do c. Refer her to her doctor d. Ask the training manager what to do Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 127. In which of the following is the soleus considered the prime mover? a. Leg extension b. Hamstring curl c. Seated calf raise d. Standing calf raise 128. During training, clients with hypertension should avoid which of the following? a. Seated resistance exercises b. Squat jumps c. Rising slowly from seated exercises d. Flexibility training 129. Exercises which include sprinting and weightlifting utilize which type of fiber? a. Fast twitch b. Slow twitch c. Type I d. Type A 130. If a client is in a hypertrophy-based phase, how many repetitions should be programmed? a. 2-4 reps b. 12-15 reps c. 1-6 reps d. 8-10 reps 131. Macrocycles, mesocycles, and microcycles are a part of which training protocol? a. Synchronization b. Optimization c. Periodization d. Stabilization Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 132. A client is 45 years old and has a resting heart rate of 75 bpm. Using the Karvonen formula, what is their target heart rate at an exercise intensity of 60%? a. 145 b. 155 c. 165 d. 135 133. A client has a BMI of 24.8, which of the following categories would they fall into? a. Normal b. Overweight c. Obesity Class 1 d. Underweight 134. The body is comprised of storage fat and which of the following? a. Brown fat b. Essential fat c. White fat d. Lipid fat 135. What does BMI stand for? a. Body metabolic index b. Body mass index c. Basal metabolic index d. Basal mass index 136. How often does an ISSA personal trainer have to renew their certification? a. Every year b. Every 2 years c. Every 3 years d. Every 4 years Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% c. Food journal Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% d. Exercise journal 148. A client thinks they injured their shoulder, what should the trainer do? a. Check out the issue b. Have another trainer check out the issue c. Continue training the client d. Refer them to a doctor 149. Which of the following rep ranges is appropriate for a client training for hypertrophy?a. 1-3 b. 4-6 c. 8-12 d. 12 or more 150. High Normal blood pressure is categorized as which of the following? a. 140-159/90-99 b. 120/80 c. 130-139/85-89 d. 160/100 151. For children between the ages of 5 and 12, what should strength training focus on? a. Sport-specific activities b. Becoming more flexible c. Increasing muscular strength d. Learning basic lifting techniques 152. Which of the following states that energy is never created nor destroyed, it's just transferredbetween entities? a. Newton's 1st law b. Law of thermodynamics c. Newton's 3rd law d. General adaptation syndrome 153. Which of the following is the prime mover used in the lunge? Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% a. Quadriceps b. Soleus c. Psoas d. Gastrocnemius Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 160. Which of the following populations is most at risk for Osgood Schlatter's disease? a. Pregnant b. Senior c. Youth d. Disabled 161. A trainer has a client request their records; how must that request be made? a. Over the phone b. In a face to face conversation c. Only in writing d. Asking the trainer's manager 161. Client differences are an important part of periodization and refer to which principle? A. SAID B. GAS C. Use/disuse D. Individual differences 162. Which of the following are the building blocks of protein? A. Fatty acids B. Amino acids C. Ribonucleic acids D. Alpha-linolenic acids 163. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a female client? A. 1 thumb B. 2 thumbs C. 1 fist D. 2 fists 164. Which of the following measures exercise intensity? A. Rate of perceived exertion B. Daily caloric intake C. Basal metabolic rate D. Heinneman's Size Principle 165. A client completed 2 or more repetitions in the last 2 consecutive workouts. Which of the followingindicates the client needs a load progression? Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% A. Henneman's principle B. Karvonen formula C. 2-for-2 rule Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% D. Harris-Benedict equation 166. Which of the following stabilizes the knee on the posterior side? A. Sartorius B. Gracilis C. Hamstrings D. Quadriceps 167. What is the suggested carbohydrate intake for male clients per meal? A. 2 palm portions B. 2 cupped handfuls C. 1 cupped handful D. 1 palm portion 168. Protein is composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and which of the following? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Nitrogen 169. Which muscle fiber type is best for competing in a triathlon? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type IIA D. Type III 170. If a client has a hard time touching their head to the wall during postural analysis, they may have which ofthe following postural deviations? A. Tight shoulders B. Swayback C. Kyphosis D. Forward head 171. Which of the following requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions? A. Core integration B. Postural development C. Dynamic balance D. Neuromuscular strength 172. How long does the guided discovery stage of the drawing in phase last? A. 2-3 weeks B. 2-3 sessions Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% A. Nutrient density B. Caloric density C. Phyto-density D. Zoo-nutrient density 180. What is the daily water consumption recommendation? Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% A. 1 Liter B. 4 Liters C. 3 Liters D. 2 Liters 181. The ATP/CP Pathway is best for which of the following activities? A. Running a marathon B. 100m sprint C. 30 minutes steady state cardio D. Tabata workout 182. Which of the following are categorized as carbohydrates? A. Sugar, animal proteins, starch B. Fiber, sugar, starch C. Starch, fiber, animal proteins D. Fiber, sugar, animal proteins 183. Which of the following is an appropriate body fat range for a female client?A. 6-9% B. 10-13% C. 14-18% D. 19-23% 184. Which resistance training system helps to increase intensity and optimize time? A. Rest-pause B. Pyramid C. Occlusion D. Superset 185. Which of the following is primarily responsible for strength gains in youth clients? A. Hypertrophy training B. Neurological factors C. Power training D. Environmental factors 186. Which type of joint allows movement? A. Cartilaginous B. Synovial C. Fibrous D. Periosteum Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 187. The incorporation of which of the following in a program can help reduce the extent of DOMS? A. Static stretching Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% C. Abduction D. Hyperextension 195. Obesity and stress are confirmed risk factors for which of the following? A. Arthritis B. Coronary heart disease C. Type II diabetes D. Kidney disease 196. High impact exercise could be problematic for diabetics due to which of the following? A. Muscle cramps B. Nerve damage C. Headaches D. Dehydration 197. Which of the following is the best way to earn a client's trust when they are feeling the water beforejumping in? A. Utilize a plan that has worked for similar clients B. Let the client tell you what they want the plan to be C. Dictate to the client what the plan will be D. Create a plan that you have both jointly discovered 198. Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise? A. Moderate aerobic training B. Lying in the supine position C. Stretching before and after exercise D. Consuming additional calories 199. In which stage of the drawing in phase will you collect client data? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 4 200. Which of the following forms would you use to gain insight into the daily nutritional habits of a client? A. Comprehensive client form B. PAR-Q C. 3-day dietary record D. Food intolerance form iB) eee eT a EarEEE EEE EE ESE SEs] es sy Le ey We ey es Le ey Le ey es Le ey ES Eis] Seis] SEES SE5E55SS5EE5EE55EE55 ey ey) SEE EEE EEE5050E02:5EE0E8E8EI lees] EEE P PEEP PEEP EPP Pee PP eee Pee eeeeee  iB) eee eT a EarEEE EEE EEE SES 55] se ee es es es ee es es ey en =n sf) ES Eis] Seis] SEES SE5E55SS5EE5EE55EE55 ey ey) SEE EEE EEE5050E02:5EE0E8E8EI lees] EEE P PEEP PEEP EPP Pee PP eee Pee eeeeee