ISSA Personal Trainer questions with correct answers graded A+ already passed, Exams of Nursing

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ISSA Personal Trainer

94 Billion Dollars - correct answer ✔✔How much the fitness industry brought in 2019 Training Effect - correct answer ✔✔A change in the body that occurs as a result of exercise training Cartilage - correct answer ✔✔Firm, flexible connective tissue that pads and protects joints and structural components of the body. HyperTension - correct answer ✔✔High blood pressure, higher than 140/ Joint - correct answer ✔✔An articulation between two bones in the body. Tendons - correct answer ✔✔Strong, fibrous cords made of collagen that attach muscle to bone. Metabolism - correct answer ✔✔Chemical processes within the body that convert food into energy. Diabetes - correct answer ✔✔A condition characterized by an elevated level of glucose in the blood. Ligaments - correct answer ✔✔Short bands of tough but flexible fibrous connective tissue connecting two bones or cartilages or holding together a joint. Behavior - correct answer ✔✔An action that can be observed, measured, and modified. Type 2 Diabetes - correct answer ✔✔A long-term metabolic disorder that is characterized by high blood sugar, insulin resistance, and relative lack of insulin.

TRANSTHEORETICAL MODEL (TTM) - correct answer ✔✔A behavior change model focused on the stages of change, the process of changing behavior, self-efficacy, and the decision balance. Pre-Contemplation - correct answer ✔✔In denial, or ignorant, that a change is necessary, possible, or worth the effort within the next six months. Contemplation - correct answer ✔✔Contemplate making a change in the next six months but reluctant to commit. Preparation - correct answer ✔✔Committed to make a change in the next six months but reluctant to commit. Action - correct answer ✔✔Engaged in change behavior for less than six months; new behavior is not fully stabilized. Maintenance - correct answer ✔✔Sustaining their new, healthy behavior for more than six months. Experiential processes - correct answer ✔✔Influence behavior indirectly by focusing on the thoughts, perceptions, or feelings that an individual might have about the target behavior. Behavioral processes - correct answer ✔✔Focus on active strategies and influence behavior directly by manipulating environmental, social, or situational cues to encourage the desired behavior. SELF-DETERMINATION THEORY (SDT) - correct answer ✔✔A general theory of human motivation that suggests a person is motivated to change by three basic psychological needs of autonomy, competence, and relatedness. Autonomy - correct answer ✔✔The need for self-governance and control over one's own behaviors. Competence - correct answer ✔✔The need to feel effective and capable in one's own actions.

Relatedness - correct answer ✔✔The need to feel a sense of belonging and connection to others. Motivational Interviewing (MI) - correct answer ✔✔a collaborative, client-focused method of guiding a client toward a self-identified motivation for change OARS Model for MI - correct answer ✔✔A communication model for motivational interviewing that includes open-ended questions, affirmations, reflective listening, and summarizing. Rapport - correct answer ✔✔A close, harmonious relationship in which all parties involved understand one another's feelings and communicate well. Goal Setting - correct answer ✔✔The process of identifying the client's ideal state, determining their current state, and defining the actions that must be taken to close the gap. Process Goal - correct answer ✔✔A goal where the focus is on the process or action that will lead to the desired end result. Outcome Goal - correct answer ✔✔A goal where the end result is a specific desired outcome. SMART Goals - correct answer ✔✔Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely appendicular skeleton - correct answer ✔✔bones of the shoulder girdle, pelvis, and upper and lower extremities Which human organ systems are responsible for human movement? - correct answer ✔✔The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System Which classification of neurons initiate muscle contraction and activate glands? - correct answer ✔✔Motor neurons

What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS) responsible for? - correct answer ✔✔Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions. Where in the brain does most information processing occur? - correct answer ✔✔Cerebral Cortex Which type of muscle is the most common in the human body? - correct answer ✔✔Skeletal muscle Which type of muscle fiber derives its energy primarily from aerobic energy pathways? - correct answer ✔✔Type I muscle fibers Which type of bone supports the weight of the body and facilitates movement? - correct answer ✔✔Long bones What does the Golgi tendon organ detect and respond to in the muscle? - correct answer ✔✔Changes in muscle tension. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are examples of what type of ligament? - correct answer ✔✔Intrinsic ligaments cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) - correct answer ✔✔the attempt to restore cardiac and pulmonary function Cardiopulmonary System - correct answer ✔✔Heart, Blood, Blood Vessels, Trachea, Blowhole, Brochi, Lungs 2 - 3 Minutes - correct answer ✔✔How long it takes the brain to start dying after blood flow interruption 4 - 6 Minutes - correct answer ✔✔how long the brain can survive without oxygen 7 - 10% - correct answer ✔✔Chances of survival, for every minute that goes by without CPR.

CAB (compressions, airway, breathing) - correct answer ✔✔Proper Order of CPR 7 Steps of CPR - correct answer ✔✔1. Recognize the emergency

2. Call or send someone to call 911
3. Check for breathing
4. Provide Chest Compressions
5. Open their Airway
6. Mouth-to-Mouth breathing
7. Repeat Chest Compressions and Breathing heel - correct answer ✔✔use this during compressions head tilt-chin lift maneuver - correct answer ✔✔a technique used to open the airway of a patient with no suspected neck or spine injury How many rescue breaths should be administered in between chest compression cycles? - correct answer ✔✔ 2 Compression Cycle - correct answer ✔✔30 compressions, 2 breaths 5 and 5 Apporach - correct answer ✔✔5 back blows and abdominal thrusts AED - correct answer ✔✔automated external defibrillator used after CPR AED steps - correct answer ✔✔1. turn it on;
8. remove clothing and other obstructions wipe chest dry;
9. place pads;
10. Stand clear, no one touch victim

5. let it analyze
6. deliver shock
7. Begin CPR The heart and blood vessels are the components of which human organ system? - correct answer ✔✔The Circulatory System Blood vessels are comprised of which type of muscle tissue? - correct answer ✔✔Smooth Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart? - correct answer ✔✔Arteries Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body? - correct answer ✔✔Right Atrium During the cardiac cycle, what is the name of the contraction phase of the heartbeat? - correct answer ✔✔Systole During exercise, which organ system regulates fluid volume and pressure in body tissues? - correct answer ✔✔The Lymphatic System What is the process of external respiration? - correct answer ✔✔The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs. Which endocrine hormone promotes the breakdown of protein in muscle cells? - correct answer ✔✔Cortisol Which of the following is an effect of long-term cortisol elevation in the body? - correct answer ✔✔Increased Appetite Which component of the digestive system performs both mechanical digestion and chemical digestion? - correct answer ✔✔The Mouth

What anatomical term is described as a position closer to the center of the body relative to a reference point? - correct answer ✔✔Proximal Which anatomical term refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts? - correct answer ✔✔Extension Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right halves? - correct answer ✔✔Sagittal Plane Which of the following joints should have more mobility? - correct answer ✔✔Shoulder A medicine ball rolling across the floor is an example of what type of friction? - correct answer ✔✔Rolling Friction Which of the following is a muscle of the shoulder? - correct answer ✔✔Subscapularis Which three muscles make up the erector spinae group? - correct answer ✔✔Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis What is the muscle action of the rectus femoris? - correct answer ✔✔Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee What is the most superficial muscle of the posterior calf? - correct answer ✔✔Gastrocnemius What is the largest muscle of the chest? - correct answer ✔✔Pectoralis Major Where in the cell do the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain occur? - correct answer ✔✔Mitochondria What two values are required to calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ)? - correct answer ✔✔Volume of Carbon Dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled

What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrates? - correct answer ✔✔1. Which energy pathway is dominant for activity generally lasting 10 seconds to 2 minutes? - correct answer ✔✔Anaerobic Glycolysis What is the primary by-product of anaerobic glycolysis? - correct answer ✔✔Lactic Acid What is the point at which the body switches from metabolism requiring oxygen to primarily anaerobic metabolism called? - correct answer ✔✔Anaerobic threshold The Krebs cycle and electron transport chain are steps in which energy pathway? - correct answer ✔✔Oxidative Energy Pathway How many Calories (Cal) per gram are in fat? - correct answer ✔✔9 Cal The Harris-Benedict equation incorporates the resting metabolic rate and an activity level factor to determine what metabolic information? - correct answer ✔✔DCE - Daily Calorie Expenditure What is the general recommendation for a daily calorie deficit for someone working to lose bodyfat? - correct answer ✔✔200 to 500 Calories What type of client assessments are based on observations and opinions? - correct answer ✔✔Subjective Assessments What document should a personal trainer collect from a client to show they are ready to begin an exercise program and explain any restrictions or limitations they have? - correct answer ✔✔Physician's Letter of Clearance What does body composition measure? - correct answer ✔✔Fat Mass and Lean Body Mass

What is the average bodyfat percentage for males? - correct answer ✔✔ 17 - 25% What type of muscular assessment is the push-up test? - correct answer ✔✔Muscular Endurance Assessment From bottom to top, what are the six kinetic chain checkpoints? - correct answer ✔✔Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head Which spinal deviation is characterized by the excessive curvature of the thoracic spine? - correct answer ✔✔Kyphosis What postural and movement deviation occurs when the knees excessively bow outward away from the midline? - correct answer ✔✔Knee Varus During the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscle is likely underactive (weak) if the heels elevate? - correct answer ✔✔Tibialis Anterior During the squat or overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles are likely overactive (tight) if knee valgus occurs? - correct answer ✔✔Adductors Which of the five components of fitness is described as the physical makeup of the body considering fat mass and lean mass? - correct answer ✔✔Body Composition Which of the following is a known benefit of improving muscular strength? - correct answer ✔✔Increases Bone Density What type of warm-up is simple and aims to increase blood flow, respiration, body temperature, and neural activation of major muscle groups? - correct answer ✔✔General Warmup Which element of a fitness program trains the body to be explosive, fast, and agile? - correct answer ✔✔Reactive Training

What is the definition of agility as it relates to the element of reactive training? - correct answer ✔✔The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture What type of cardiorespiratory training is performed at a fixed level of exertion? - correct answer ✔✔Steady-state exercise Which of the following is a known benefit of interval training? - correct answer ✔✔Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart Which of the following is a measure commonly used to determine the intensity of cardiorespiratory exercise? - correct answer ✔✔Rate of Perceived Exertion Which of the following is an adaptation from plyometric exercise? - correct answer ✔✔Increased Muscle Size In fitness, what do acute training variables determine? - correct answer ✔✔HOW an exercise or training program is performed. Which acute training variable is the equipment, methods, or technique used to complete an activity? - correct answer ✔✔Type The load used for a resistance training exercise is most closely related to which actute training variable? - correct answer ✔✔Intensity A training intensity of 67 percent or less is most closely related to which training adaptation? - correct answer ✔✔Muscular Endurance For the training adaptation of muscle hypertrophy, what is the recommended number of repetitions per set? - correct answer ✔✔ 6 - 12 Reps What does the "F" in the FITT Principle stand for? - correct answer ✔✔Frequency

Which principle of fitness states that acute training variables must be changed periodically to prevent plateaus, injuries, and boredom? - correct answer ✔✔Principle of Variability What is the final stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? - correct answer ✔✔Exhaustion Resistance training is included in which category of training? - correct answer ✔✔Strength Training What condition is the result of the accumulation of stress from both training and non-training activities resulting in short-term decreases in performance? - correct answer ✔✔Overreaching Which of the following is a known benefit of flexibility training? - correct answer ✔✔Decreased Chronic Pain What is dynamic stretching? - correct answer ✔✔Movement-based active stretching where muscles engage to bring about a stretch In a flexibility training protocol, which of the following should be executed after a training session? - correct answer ✔✔Static or Pre-Contraction Stetching What type of inhibition do myofascial release techniques rely on to decrease the excitability of muscle tissue? - correct answer ✔✔Autogenic Inhibition Which type of stretching should mirror the movements that will be performed in an upcoming activity? - correct answer ✔✔Dynamic Stretching What term is defined as the measurement of movement around a specific joint or body part? - correct answer ✔✔Range of Motion Which of the following is an example of an active range of motion? - correct answer ✔✔A client moving their shoulder through flexion and extension.

What type of stretching uses bouncing and the momentum of the body or limb to force it beyond a normal range of motion? - correct answer ✔✔Ballistic Stretching What are the two most important acute training variables related to flexibility training? - correct answer ✔✔Intensity and Time In most cases, how long should a static stretch be held? - correct answer ✔✔10 to 30 Seconds Which of the following is a known benefit of cardiorespiratory training? - correct answer ✔✔Improves Sleep Which acute training variables are included in the FITT Principle as it relates to cardiorespiratory training? - correct answer ✔✔Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type What is a metabolic equivalent (MET)? - correct answer ✔✔The measure of the ratio of a person's energy expenditure to their mass during physical activity According to the modified Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) chart, what intensity equates to maximum exertion during cardiorespiratory exercise? - correct answer ✔✔RPE 10 During cardiorespiratory training, how can speed be modified to increase training intensity? - correct answer ✔✔Increase Speed What vital capacity reading is considered low and a potential symptom of a respiratory problem? - correct answer ✔✔Below 3,000 mL Which of the following activities has a MET value between 3.0 and 6.0? - correct answer ✔✔Brisk Walk 3.5-4 mph What does (1) MET equal to? - correct answer ✔✔A person's metabolic rate when at rest

What other cardiorespiratory efficiency measure can be estimated by the ventilatory threshold? - correct answer ✔✔Lactate Threshold The formula 220 minus age is commonly used to estimate what cardiorespiratory information? - correct answer ✔✔Maximum Heart Rate Which strength category is defined as a combination of strength and speed? - correct answer ✔✔Power Strength training has been found to reduce which resting biological measure? - correct answer ✔✔Resting Blood Pressure Which strength curve most accurately represents a squatting exercise? - correct answer ✔✔Ascending Strength Curve What type of foundational exercises promote overall strength adaptations without necessarily translating to performance or skill development? - correct answer ✔✔General Exercises During a taper, how much should training volume be reduced while exercise intensity remains at or above competition (maximal) levels? - correct answer ✔✔ 30 - 70 Percent Reduction in Training Volume For resistance training, how is intensity expressed? - correct answer ✔✔Percentage of 1RM - Rep Maximum What training goal is promoted when resistance training intensity is below 67 percent of 1RM? - correct answer ✔✔Muscular Endurance During resistance training, what sub-variable is related to exercise type? - correct answer ✔✔Grip Which of the following is equipment with variable resistance? - correct answer ✔✔Resistance Bands Which of the following is an example of a static resistance exercise? - correct answer ✔✔Plank

What is an exercise progression? - correct answer ✔✔Modifications to acute training variables that increase the challenge of a movement pattern. Body language, spatial relations, and paralanguage are all examples of what type of communication? - correct answer ✔✔Nonverbal Communication What type of learner learns best when they can see the information being taught? - correct answer ✔✔Visual Learners Which if the following is advised when giving verbal cues to increase client understanding? - correct answer ✔✔Use Simplified Language Which of the following exercises is categorized as a hinge movement? - correct answer ✔✔Deadlift Which movement category includes upper body exercises in which the arms themselves or the arms and a tool are moved away from the body? - correct answer ✔✔Push What is the agonist at the shoulder during an upper body vertical pulling movement? - correct answer ✔✔Latissimus Dorsi What type of exercises are often single-joint movements that can promote muscular adaptations like strength and hypertrophy? - correct answer ✔✔Isolation Exercises Which movement dysfunction occurs when a synergist muscle takes over a movement pattern when an agonist fails? - correct answer ✔✔Synergistic Dominance According to the study of proxemics, what is considered a personal distance between two people? - correct answer ✔✔1.5-4 feet Which of the following animal-based protein sources has the highest bioavailability in the human body? - correct answer ✔✔Whey Protein Isolate

Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin C? - correct answer ✔✔Brussel Sprouts Which of the following is a food source of the mineral calcium? - correct answer ✔✔Dairy Which of the following is a function of sodium in the body? - correct answer ✔✔Fluid balance According to the World Health Organization, what is one of the most common nutrient deficiencies worldwide? - correct answer ✔✔Iron Deficiency Which of the following is a food source of vitamin E? - correct answer ✔✔Nuts Where in the digestive tract are amino acids absorbed? - correct answer ✔✔Small Intestine When selecting a multivitamin, what information should be considered? - correct answer ✔✔Sex and Age In a normal, healthy adult, what percent of food consumed is absorbed in the GI tract? - correct answer ✔✔95% What minimum consistent blood pressure reading is associated with the condition of hypertension? - correct answer ✔✔140/90 mm Hg What chronic disease was the DASH diet created to combat? - correct answer ✔✔High Blood Pressure What is the role of insulin in the human body? - correct answer ✔✔Insulin binds to target cells and promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood. What condition is characterized as a degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear on the joints? - correct answer ✔✔Osteoarthritis (OA)

Which of the following exercises are recommended for a client with arthritis? - correct answer ✔✔Cycling, swimming, group exercise class, and brisk walking. What is the definition of the heart condition of cardiomyopathy? - correct answer ✔✔The enlargement and stiffening of the heart. Which chronic health condition can be caused by pollen, mold, smoke, and air pollution? - correct answer ✔✔Asthma What is the most common symptom of coronary artery disease (CAD)? - correct answer ✔✔Angina (What is Angina?) Which of the following joints in the body are commonly affected by the condition of Gout? - correct answer ✔✔Lesser toe joints, ankle, and knee. Which arthritic condition is an autoimmune disorder? - correct answer ✔✔Rheumatoid arthritis At what age may youth begin implementing circuit training and strength exercises with light free weights and low intensity? - correct answer ✔✔ 11 - 14 years Approximately what percentage of adults over the age of 65 are living with at least one chronic health condition? - correct answer ✔✔80% Which type of exercise is recommended to prevent osteoporosis in older adults? - correct answer ✔✔Resistance Training For senior populations, what does the back scratch fitness assessment measure? - correct answer ✔✔Upper Body Flexibility

What is the general physical activity recommendation for pregnant women assuming no medical conditions are present? - correct answer ✔✔150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for a pregnant client? - correct answer ✔✔Premature Labor Exercise programming for a pregnant client should focus on what fitness outcome(s)? - correct answer ✔✔Maintaining Current Health Status Approximately what percentage of the world's population has a condition that disables them? - correct answer ✔✔15% Which of the following is a physiological change that occurs in pregnant women that can affect how they exercise? - correct answer ✔✔Resting Heart Rate Increases Which fitness assessment for senior populations measures the amount of time needed for an individual to stand up from a seated position and walk eight feet? - correct answer ✔✔8 Foot Up and Go Which style of personal training utilizes both in-person and virtual training? - correct answer ✔✔Hybrid Training Which style of personal training utilizes videos, live streaming, websites, and chat forums to deliver training content? - correct answer ✔✔Virtual Training When utilizing emails to communicate with clients, what is the ideal length of an email? - correct answer ✔✔ 50 - 125 Words In email marketing, what is a strategic email? - correct answer ✔✔An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves.

In email marketing, what is an onboarding email? - correct answer ✔✔A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program. Under the scope of practice for a personal trainer, which of the following may a certified personal trainer assist clients with? - correct answer ✔✔General Nutrition Guidance In marketing, what is the phrase "Sign up now!" an example of? - correct answer ✔✔Call to Action When identifying a target market, what is the fictional person that represents a trainer's preferred clientele known as? - correct answer ✔✔Client Persona Which style of personal training is often choreographed? - correct answer ✔✔Group Exercise Which style of personal training requires a fitness professional to consider camera quality, lighting, and the available exercise equipment? - correct answer ✔✔Virtual Training According to the CDC, what is the definition of disinfecting? - correct answer ✔✔Killing germs and viruses on surfaces with the use of chemicals. To receive a personal training certification, what additional certification is required? - correct answer ✔✔CPR/AED What type of injury develops slowly and is persistent? - correct answer ✔✔Chronic Injury Which of the following is often included in a first aid kit? - correct answer ✔✔Adhesive Bandages Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? - correct answer ✔✔An Unconscious Person What type of acute injury occurs in a muscle? - correct answer ✔✔Strain

Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? - correct answer ✔✔Chest Pain What tool in a first aid kit can be used to remove debris from a wound? - correct answer ✔✔Tweezers What should every location where exercise is performed have posted or available for patrons and employees? - correct answer ✔✔Emergency Exit Plan What serious health situation occurs when the body is unable to regulate its temperature? - correct answer ✔✔Heat Stroke