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ISSA Strength & Conditioning Final Exam Study What is the neural circuitry that travels outside the spinal cord? - Answer-Peripheral nervous system Which of the following is a sensory receptor within a muscle that detects changes in length and helps regulate contraction? - Answer-Muscle spindle Which of the following are branches of the cell body that act as receivers, collecting information from other neurons? - Answer-Dendrites A cascade of events, resulting in muscle contraction, is triggered when which of the following chemical neurotransmitters binds to receptors on the muscle? - Answer-Acetylcholine Which division of the peripheral nervous system controls voluntary movement? - Answer-Somatic nervous system Which type of motor unit can contract for many hours, or even days if necessary? - Answer-Slow (S) of Motor Unit Which type of motor unit has a large motor neuron and consists of a large bundle of type IIx muscle fibers? - Answer-Fast fatigable (FF) Voluntary movement starts in the - Answer-cerebral cortex Which of the following is the process that allows a muscle spindle to contract at the same rate as the muscle where it resides? - Answer-Alpha-gamma co-activation How many nerves are contained within the peripheral nervous system, which includes all the neurons and glia outside of the brain and spinal cord? - Answer-43 pairs The muscular system includes how many muscles? - Answer-Approximately 650 Which muscle fiber type are the largest, and produce the most amount of force? - Answer-Type IIx The cross-bridge cycle requires energy, which is provided by - Answer-ATP hydrolysis. The function of epimysium is to - Answer-protect muscle from friction against other muscles or bone. With regard to mitochondrial density, which muscle fiber type has a very small amount of mitochondria? - Answer-Type IIx Regarding the make-up of a person's muscle fiber ratio, which of the following is correct? - Answer-It can't be changed to a large degree It is currently theorized that training with heavy loads causes - Answer-equal growth of type I and type II fibers. Which of the following functions like girdles and guy wires to provide an interconnected structure? - Answer-Fascia The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body and moves it into the - Answer-right ventricle The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy - Answer-cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another. In the short term, metabolic acidosis can - Answer-impair muscle power and energy production. The process of making ATP from glucose, is called: - Answer-Glycolysis Which of the following is true regarding cytoplasm and sarcoplasm? - Answer-Sarcoplasm is where the actions of the phosphagen system and the reaction components take place. How long does it take to fully replenish stored phosphocreatine after maximum effort exercise? - Answer-15 - 25 minutes The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources is known as - Answer-gluconeogenesis The lactate threshold corresponds with which of the following? - Answer-Rapid drop in physical output and performance What action occurs within the mitochondria during the first 10 to 30 seconds of maximal activity? - Answer-The mitochondria absorb protons (H+). Which enzyme breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids during lipolysis? - Answer-Hormone-sensitive lipase During aerobic metabolism, which fuel type produces 106 ATP? - Answer-Fatty acids Mechanics are divided into two categories: - Answer-dynamic and static In which class of lever is the fulcrum (axis) located between the effort and the load? - Answer-First-class Which of the following is a state of no acceleration, with the body at rest? - Answer-Equilibrium The point at which both body mass and weight are equally distributed is known as - Answer-center of gravity Force is a product of - Answer-mass times acceleration With regard to stress from mechanical loading, the term shearing refers to - Answer-cutting or breaking The muscles responsible for protraction of the scapulothoracic (ST) joint include the - Answer-pectoralis major Which of the following correctly describes adduction? - Answer-movement toward the midline The four primary wrist movements include - Answer-ulnar deviation The ankle is formed by three bones: the tibia, the fibula, and the - Answer-talus When using skinfold calipers to assess body composition, how should the skin of the suprailiac region be pinched? - Answer-at a 45-degree angle Instead of referring to posture as either good or bad, it is better to think of posture as - Answer-ideal or not ideal Which of the following terms refers to a condition when muscles surrounding a joint are abnormally weakened or overactive, thus limiting a joint's movement? - Answer-muscle imbalance When conducting the Rockport one mile walk test, when should the participant's heart rate be measured? - Answer-at the end of the test only Why is the three-minute step test used less frequently than the Rockport one-mile walk test and the Cooper 12-minute run test? - Answer-It is less effective and has a lower percentage of participant completion Which of the following is true regarding the lunge assessment? - Answer-The coach will observe the lunge movement with little or no coaching. When conducting a standard squat assessment, the participant should be observed - Answer-anterior, posterior, and lateral positions Which of the following is true regarding a gait assessment? - Answer-A gait assessment requires a coach to observe the client while walking. Which term refers to the reduction in the normal curvature of the spine? - Answer-flat back A basic fitness assessment includes flexibility, posture, mobility, and - Answer-general strength assessment The ability to exert muscular force under a given condition is known as: - Answer-strength A fibrous band of fascia created between tissues as a result of injury, muscle stress, or overuse is a(n) - Answer-adhesion Regarding muscle and connective tissue, what type of tension generated by external forces? - Answer- passive tension A sudden stretch to the tendon of a muscle results in muscle contraction response known as the - Answer-myotatic stretch reflex With the application of heat, tendon and ligament elasticity can be increased by what percentage? - Answer-up to 25% Research suggests the greatest appreciable changes in ROM occur with static stretching - Answer- between 15 and 30 seconds An increase in flexibility affects the two types of ROM need for sport and functional movement: - Answer-active and passive What type of muscle contraction maintains constant tension in the muscle as the length changes? - Answer-isotonic The SSC of muscle contraction driving plyometrics has three phases: a loading eccentric phase, a transitional amortization phase, and a(n) - Answer-unloading concentric phase During which stage of the SSC are the muscle spindles stretched along with the noncontractile tissues within the muscle? - Answer-eccentric phase What detects changes in length of muscle fiber, and signal through afferent neurons to the spinal cord and the brain? - Answer-muscle spindle Which statement is true regarding plyometrics? - Answer-With a foundation of power, plyometrics can benefit athletes of any sport. Regarding recovery from plyometric training, what is the recommended duration of rest between training sessions? - Answer-48 to 72 hours Regarding the progression of plyometric exercises, which of the following is the logical progression from the squat jump? - Answer-broad jump Which of the following statements regarding the progression of plyometric exercises is correct? - Answer-Quick changes of direction encourage neuromuscular overload. Within the SSC, the transition from absorbing force to generating force and acceleration is the - Answer- amortization phase A slower eccentric phase will result in - Answer-less potential energy than a faster eccentric phase. A longer amortization phase will result in - Answer-the loss of potential energy in the form of heat and reduced kinetic output in muscle contraction. The core is also known as the - Answer-lumbopelvic-hip-complex (LPHC) The musculature of the core is divided into - Answer-local and global stabilizers. Physical therapists and orthopedic specialists use three widely accepted tests of muscular endurance to test core endurance over strength: flexor endurance test, extensor endurance test, and the - Answer- side bridge Which of the following does research suggest, regarding the core? - Answer-Muscular endurance of the core is more important for core stability than strength The first step in core progression focuses on - Answer-muscle recruitment Which of the following exercises is often used for stabilization and core stability? - Answer-bird dog When performing the standing landmine twist exercise, the athlete should - Answer-avoid lumbar rotation Where should an athlete's elbows be placed when performing a plank exercise? - Answer-directly below the shoulders When performing a sit-up, the athlete should lie supine - Answer-with knees bent at 90 degrees and arms crossed at the chest. Which of the following core exercise is considered a multi-planar exercise? - Answer-Modified side plank with hip external rotation There are various major dysfunctions of the hip a coach can observe, including - Answer-lateral weight shift. What is the largest and most complex joint in the body? - Answer-knee Which of the following is a muscle involved in controlling the knee? - Answer-Popliteus Which of the following is true regarding the clean and jerk exercise? - Answer-The barbell remains close to the athlete's body throughout the movement. The Olympic style lifts are highly dependent upon - Answer-explosive extension of the lifter's ankles, knees, and hips. What is often an index for static posture, and is also an important factor for power training? - Answer- center of pressure What is the path a weight follows during a movement? - Answer-trajectory What is the goal of the lateral speed skater power-training exercise? - Answer-To leap as far as possible in each direction Which of the following is true regarding the wall ball power-training exercise? - Answer-From the half squat, the athlete explosively stands and extends the arms forward and overhead. Movement competency is the ability to move well, requiring a combination of - Answer-Mobility and stability It is widely accepted that a dynamic warm up start with - Answer-general activity The components of a fitness program that determine how it will be executed, are called - Answer- training parameters Exercises performed with the extremities in direct contact with the surface the athlete is training on are called - Answer-closed kinetic chain exercises. Research surrounding post-activation potentiation suggests the effect after a heavy conditioning set is highest - Answer-between 15 seconds and 5 minutes after. The shortcoming of training with heavy loads is - Answer-the strain on joints and the nervous system is used too frequently. A heavy load is typically defined as what percent of 1RM? - Answer-80% or higher When programming with moderate loads it is important to remember they - Answer-should be light enough to be performed with a high velocity. The minimum required amount of training an athlete must perform to achieve their goal is called the - Answer-minimum effective dose Which of the following statements is correct? - Answer-Training for maximal strength requires more rest between sets than does hypertrophy training. In linear periodization models, and inverse relationship exists between - Answer-volume and intensity Which of the following is true regarding linear and non-linear periodization (NLP)? - Answer-Linear periodization lacks the variability necessary to avoid stagnation. Which periodization model varies volume and intensity each workout or week? - Answer-Undulating periodization Which of the following is used to counteract fatigue in order to achieve peak performance at the time of competition? - Answer-Tapering The preparation phase consists of three components, including - Answer-general physical preparation (GPP). Which of the following allows a coach to subjectively control an athlete's training intensity and provide a model for progressions? - Answer-Using RPE for programming During which phase is a relatively high volume of work programmed to build general fitness? - Answer- General preparation phase (GPP) Which of the following is true regarding the SPP Phase? - Answer-Exercises with greater sport specificity are programmed During the SSP phase sport-specific conditioning exercises are performed for what duration? - Answer- 10 to 15 second burst Which of the following is true regarding competition phase programming? - Answer-The primary goal is to maintain strength and conditioning qualities If glycolysis occurs at a high rate for an extended time, it can lead to - Answer-metabolic acidosis Anti-glycolytic training avoids metabolic fatigue to ensure the primary source of energy is - Answer-ATP The three energy systems are ATP-PC, anaerobic glycolysis, and - Answer-aerobic metabolism Which of the muscle fiber types have high concentrations of capillaries, mitochondria, myoglobin, and oxidative enzymes, giving them superior endurance capabilities? - Answer-Type I What is lactate threshold? - Answer-The point when aerobic work is highest before lactate accumulates The rate at which an endothermic animal expends energy while at rest is called - Answer-basal metabolic rate (BMR). Which of the following is true regarding weight loss and weight gain? - Answer-When energy output exceeds input, weight is lost. Regarding cell water absorption, research suggests a single gram of glucose can create a higher level of intracellular water by bringing how many grams of water into the cell mass? - Answer-Anywhere from two to four The branched-chain amino acids are: isoleucine, leucine, and - Answer-valine. Anything that provides a mental or physical edge when exercising or competing is called a(n) - Answer- ergogenic aid. Which of the following statements is true? - Answer-Supplement recommendation is outside a strength and conditioning coach's scope of practice. The three main types of whey protein are: whey concentrate, whey isolate, and whey - Answer- hydrolysate. Which of the following is a rapidly digested carbohydrate? - Answer-Maltodextrin What is the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of fiber for males? - Answer-30-38 grams What two fatty acids are most abundant in fatty fish? - Answer-Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) When combined with a resistance -exercise regimen, and compared to resistance exercise alone, creatine has been shown to increase strength by - Answer-fourteen percent. Which sports supplement is known for the tingle it leaves on the skin? - Answer-Beta alanine Branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs), commonly known as a supplement to support recovery and stimulate muscle growth, may also serve to - Answer-increase endurance. Which of the following is true regarding magnesium? - Answer-Many people are deficient in magnesium. The ability or learned capacity to regulate a psychological quality, such as confidence, motivation, or focus is called psychological - Answer-skill Which of the following is an umbrella term covering a specific set of traits, all of which positively affect performance? - Answer-Mental toughness Which of the following statements is a fact, rather than a myth regarding performance psychology training? - Answer-Mental toughness can be attributed to environmental influences like psychological training. Athletes who tend to perform below their potential or fail to make improvements might be operating from what type of mindset? - Answer-fixed mindset The expectation or belief in one's ability to perform well at a specific task or in a specific situation is called - Answer-self-efficacy The four sources of confidence associated with performance psychology are: personal experience, physiological state, verbal persuasion, and - Answer-vicarious experience Which of the following is true regarding goal setting? - Answer-Long-term goals provide the necessary motivation to purse short-term goals. Instructing athletes to pay attention to what they say to themselves before and during a training session or performance, is an example of the athlete becoming more aware of their - Answer-self talk Which type of cues direct the athlete to focus on physical sensations or body movements? - Answer- internal cues Which of the following is true regarding rapid breathing drills used to "amp up" for performance? - Answer-the athlete should repeat 15 to 30 times What is the primary role of a strength and conditioning coach? - Answer-To develop an athlete's performance safely and effectively Which of the following actions is generally within the scope of practice for a strength and conditioning coach? - Answer-Providing verbal cues and feedback during resistance training exercises Of all the steps taken to prepare for a strength and conditioning job interview, which is arguably the most challenging? - Answer-Showing an understanding of what the team needs With regard to a new coach interviewing for a strength and conditioning job, which of the following is a recommended practice? - Answer-Highlight and explain any volunteered time spent to better understand player needs. With regard to the interview process for a strength and conditioning job, once a coach has determined to the best of their ability what the team needs, a coach should - Answer-highlight how they can help the team.