Information Assurance and Security: FISMA, Risk Mitigation, and Incident Handling, Exams of Cybercrime, Cybersecurity and Data Privacy

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IT 336

Information

Assurance and

Security Review Exam

Q & A

1. What is the primary goal of Information Assurance (IA)? A) Ensuring that data is available only to authorized users B) Protecting the physical components of a computer network C) Guaranteeing that all data is stored in a centralized location D) Providing training for employees on cybersecurity threats Answer: A) Ensuring that data is available only to authorized users Rationale: The primary goal of IA is to ensure that information is accessible to authorized users when needed and protected from unauthorized access.
2. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'least privilege' in security management? A) Users should be granted the minimum levels of access—or permissions—needed to perform their job functions. B) Privileges should be given to the least number of users possible. C) The least sensitive data should be protected with the highest level of security. D) Users should have privileges that are reviewed at the least frequent intervals possible. Answer: A) Users should be granted the minimum levels of access—or permissions—needed to perform their job functions. Rationale: The principle of 'least privilege' aims to minimize risk by providing only the access necessary to perform required tasks.
3. In the context of incident handling, what is the FIRST step that should be taken after identifying a security incident? A) Eradication of the threat B) Containment of the incident C) Notification of stakeholders D) Recovery of affected systems Answer: B) Containment of the incident Rationale: Containment is crucial to prevent further damage or spread of the incident, and it precedes eradication, recovery, and notification in the incident response process.
4. Which legal act requires U.S. federal agencies to develop, document, and implement an agency-wide program to provide information security?

A) Sarbanes-Oxley Act B) Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA) C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) D) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act Answer: B) Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA) Rationale: FISMA specifically relates to federal information security and mandates that agencies implement a security program.

5. What is the primary purpose of risk mitigation in cybersecurity? A) To transfer all risks to a third party B) To eliminate all risks C) To reduce the impact of risks to an acceptable level D) To ignore risks that are considered low Answer: C) To reduce the impact of risks to an acceptable level Rationale: Risk mitigation strategies are designed to manage, not eliminate, risks by reducing the potential impact to the organization.
6. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a security policy? A) Disciplinary actions for non-compliance B) A list of all employees with administrative access C) Guidelines for creating strong passwords D) The scope and purpose of the policy Answer: B) A list of all employees with administrative access Rationale: Security policies outline the rules and guidelines for maintaining security, not the specific details of who has administrative access.
7. Ethical hacking is performed to: A) Exploit vulnerabilities in an organization's systems without permission B) Test the security of an organization's systems with permission C) Conduct espionage on competitors D) Facilitate the spread of malware Answer: B) Test the security of an organization's systems with permission Rationale: Ethical hacking is a proactive security measure where a hacker is authorized to test systems for vulnerabilities to improve security.

8. What is the main difference between a vulnerability assessment and a penetration test? A) A vulnerability assessment identifies weaknesses, while a penetration test exploits them to understand the impact. B) A penetration test is automated, while a vulnerability assessment is not. C) A vulnerability assessment is conducted by external parties, while a penetration test is conducted internally. D) A penetration test focuses on policy compliance, while a vulnerability assessment does not. Answer: A) A vulnerability assessment identifies weaknesses, while a penetration test exploits them to understand the impact. Rationale: Vulnerability assessments aim to list potential vulnerabilities, whereas penetration tests attempt to exploit them to determine the actual level of risk.
9. Which of the following best defines 'security operations management'? A) The process of designing and implementing security hardware B) The ongoing management and monitoring of an organization's security posture C) The development of security policies and procedures D) The technical maintenance of security software Answer: B) The ongoing management and monitoring of an organization's security posture Rationale: Security operations management involves the day-to-day activities required to maintain a secure and operational computing environment.
10. An effective security policy should be: A) Flexible enough to accommodate all potential future scenarios B) Rigid and unchanging to maintain consistency C) Reviewed and updated only when security breaches occur D) Reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the changing threat landscape Answer: D) Reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the changing threat landscape Rationale: Security policies must evolve with the threat landscape to

remain effective and relevant. Regular reviews and updates are essential.

1. Which of the following is NOT a legal consideration related to information assurance and security? a) Data protection laws b) Intellectual property rights c) Liability for data breaches d) Best practices for network security Answer: d) Best practices for network security Rationale: Legal considerations involve laws and regulations that govern the protection of data and intellectual property rights.
2. What is the primary goal of incident handling and reporting in information assurance? a) To prevent all security incidents b) To respond quickly to security incidents c) To assign blame for security incidents d) To ignore security incidents altogether Answer: b) To respond quickly to security incidents Rationale: Incident handling and reporting aims to minimize the impact of security incidents by responding quickly and effectively.
3. Risk identification in information assurance involves: a) Predicting all possible risks b) Assessing the likelihood and impact of potential risks c) Ignoring potential risks d) Avoiding all risks entirely Answer: b) Assessing the likelihood and impact of potential risks Rationale: Risk identification involves identifying and assessing potential risks to determine their likelihood and impact on information security.
4. Which of the following is NOT an example of security and operations management? a) Security audits b) Patch management

c) Change management d) Data encryption Answer: d) Data encryption Rationale: Data encryption is a security control, while security and operations management focus on managing security processes and procedures.

5. Security policies in an organization should: a) Be kept secret from employees b) Be communicated and enforced consistently c) Be ignored in favor of flexibility d) Be revised only when a security incident occurs Answer: b) Be communicated and enforced consistently Rationale: Security policies need to be clearly communicated and consistently enforced to ensure compliance and mitigate security risks.
6. Which of the following is a key principle of information assurance and security? a) Open access to all data and systems b) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information c) Ignoring security incidents d) Using default passwords for all accounts Answer: b) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information Rationale: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) are key principles of information assurance and security.
7. The process of identifying vulnerabilities in an organization's systems and networks is known as: a) Risk assessment b) Vulnerability assessment c) Threat modeling d) Penetration testing Answer: b) Vulnerability assessment Rationale: Vulnerability assessment involves identifying weaknesses in systems and networks that could be exploited by attackers.
8. Which of the following is an example of a security control? a) Firewall

b) Risk assessment c) Threat analysis d) Incident response Answer: a) Firewall Rationale: Firewalls are a security control that can help prevent unauthorized access to networks and systems.

9. What is the purpose of a security incident response plan? a) To prevent all security incidents b) To identify all potential security incidents c) To respond effectively to security incidents d) To assign blame for security incidents Answer: c) To respond effectively to security incidents Rationale: A security incident response plan outlines the processes and procedures for responding to security incidents in a timely and effective manner.
10. Which of the following is NOT a component of a security policy? a) Acceptable use policy b) Data encryption policy c) Incident response policy d) Employee handbook Answer: d) Employee handbook Rationale: An employee handbook is a separate document from a security policy that outlines the organization's policies and procedures for employees.
11. What is the purpose of risk mitigation in information assurance? a) To eliminate all risks completely b) To ignore potential risks c) To reduce the likelihood and impact of potential risks d) To assign blame for security incidents Answer: c) To reduce the likelihood and impact of potential risks Rationale: Risk mitigation aims to reduce the likelihood and impact of potential risks to information security through the implementation of security controls and measures.
12. Which of the following is NOT a best practice for network security?

a) Regularly updating software and security patches b) Enforcing strong password policies c) Allowing unrestricted access to sensitive data d) Implementing network segmentation Answer: c) Allowing unrestricted access to sensitive data Rationale: Allowing unrestricted access to sensitive data can increase the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches, making it a poor network security practice.

13. What is the role of a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) in an organization? a) To ignore information security issues b) To oversee and manage the organization's information security program c) To assign blame for security incidents d) To avoid implementing security controls Answer: b) To oversee and manage the organization's information security program Rationale: The CISO is responsible for overseeing and managing the organization's information security program to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information.
14. Which of the following is NOT a common security incident? a) Phishing attack b) Denial of Service (DoS) attack c) Data backup d) Malware infection Answer: c) Data backup Rationale: Data backup is a security measure rather than a security incident.
15. Which of the following is an ethical consideration in information assurance? a) Ignoring security incidents b) Respecting user privacy and confidentiality c) Selling customer data to third parties d) Assigning blame for security incidents Answer: b) Respecting user privacy and confidentiality Rationale: Ethical considerations in information assurance involve

ensuring the trust, privacy, and confidentiality of user information.

16. What is the purpose of a security risk assessment? a) To identify all potential risks b) To predict all future security incidents c) To assess and prioritize security risks d) To ignore potential risks Answer: c) To assess and prioritize security risks Rationale: A security risk assessment involves evaluating and prioritizing potential security risks to information systems and networks.
17. Which of the following is NOT a component of incident handling and reporting? a) Incident detection b) Incident escalation c) Incident attribution d) Incident response Answer: c) Incident attribution Rationale: Incident attribution, or assigning blame for security incidents, is not a component of incident handling and reporting.
18. Which of the following is an example of a security incident? a) Regular software updates b) Loss of confidential data c) Strong password policies d) Network segmentation Answer: b) Loss of confidential data Rationale: The loss of confidential data is an example of a security incident that can have serious consequences for an organization.
19. What is the purpose of a security audit? a) To ignore potential security risks b) To predict all future security incidents c) To assess the effectiveness of security controls d) To assign blame for security incidents Answer: c) To assess the effectiveness of security controls Rationale: A security audit evaluates the effectiveness of security controls and measures in place to protect information systems and networks.

20. Which of the following is a best practice for incident response? a) Delaying incident response actions b) Communicating about the incident internally only c) Assigning blame for the incident d) Documenting and reporting on the incident Answer: d) Documenting and reporting on the incident Rationale: Documenting and reporting on security incidents is essential for learning from past incidents and improving incident response processes.
21. What is the primary goal of security and operations management? a) To ignore security incidents b) To prevent all risks c) To manage security and operational processes effectively d) To assign blame for security incidents Answer: c) To manage security and operational processes effectively Rationale: Security and operations management focus on managing security processes and operational activities to protect information systems and networks.
22. Which of the following is a key principle of information security policies? a) Open access to all data and systems b) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information c) Ignoring security incidents d) Using default passwords for all accounts Answer: b) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information Rationale: Information security policies should uphold the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) to protect information assets.
23. What is the purpose of security awareness training for employees? a) To ignore potential security risks b) To predict all future security incidents c) To educate employees on security best practices d) To assign blame for security incidents Answer: c) To educate employees on security best practices

Rationale: Security awareness training for employees is essential for educating them on security best practices and minimizing security risks.

24. Which of the following is NOT a common security policy? a) Acceptable use policy b) Data encryption policy c) Password management policy d) Data backup policy Answer: d) Data backup policy Rationale: Data backup is a security measure rather than a security policy.
25. What is the purpose of a security risk assessment? a) To predict all future security incidents b) To identify all potential risks c) To assess and prioritize security risks d) To ignore potential risks Answer: c) To assess and prioritize security risks Rationale: A security risk assessment involves evaluating and prioritizing potential security risks to information systems and networks. Question: What is the primary goal of Information Assurance? A. Ensuring 100% protection against all cyber threats B. Guaranteeing the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of data C. Blocking all network traffic to prevent potential attacks D. Ignoring security risks to prioritize operational efficiency Answer: B. Guaranteeing the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of data Rationale: Information Assurance aims to protect and manage data by ensuring its availability when needed, maintaining its integrity, and preserving its confidentiality. Question: Which legal framework governs the protection of personal data in the European Union? A. Data Protection Act B. Privacy Shield Agreement

C. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) D. Patriot Act Answer: C. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) Rationale: The GDPR is a comprehensive regulation that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the EU. Question: In incident handling, what is the primary purpose of the containment phase? A. Identifying vulnerabilities in the system B. Eradicating the root cause of the incident C. Preventing the incident from spreading further D. Notifying the media about the incident Answer: C. Preventing the incident from spreading further Rationale: Containment aims to limit the impact of the incident and prevent it from causing more damage to the organization's systems. Question: Which of the following is a proactive approach to risk identification? A. Penetration testing B. Incident response C. Security audit D. Patch management Answer: A. Penetration testing Rationale: Penetration testing simulates real-world attacks to identify vulnerabilities in a system before they are exploited by malicious actors. Question: What is the purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC)? A. Blocking all incoming network traffic B. Monitoring, detecting, and responding to cybersecurity incidents C. Conducting regular security training for employees D. Ignoring security alerts to focus on business operations Answer: B. Monitoring, detecting, and responding to cybersecurity incidents Rationale: SOC plays a crucial role in monitoring the organization's security posture, detecting threats, and responding to incidents in a timely manner.

Question: Which document outlines the organization's security objectives, principles, and guidelines? A. Security incident response plan B. Acceptable use policy C. Security policy D. Disaster recovery plan Answer: C. Security policy Rationale: A security policy provides a framework for implementing security controls and practices within an organization. Question: What is the purpose of encryption in data security? A. To hide the existence of data B. To ensure data is not accessible to authorized users C. To protect data from unauthorized access D. To slow down data transmission Answer: C. To protect data from unauthorized access Rationale: Encryption transforms data into a secure format to prevent unauthorized users from accessing or reading it. Question: Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication? A. Username and password B. Fingerprint scan and facial recognition C. Security question and answer D. Email verification link Answer: B. Fingerprint scan and facial recognition Rationale: Two-factor authentication requires two different forms of identification to verify a user's identity, enhancing security. Question: What is the purpose of a security risk assessment? A. To eliminate all risks from the organization B. To prioritize risks based on their potential impact C. To ignore potential risks to focus on business growth D. To blame individuals for security incidents Answer: B. To prioritize risks based on their potential impact Rationale: Risk assessments help organizations identify and prioritize risks to allocate resources effectively for mitigation.

Question: Which of the following is a key component of security incident reporting? A. Delaying incident reporting to avoid negative publicity B. Providing detailed information on the incident C. Blaming individuals for the incident D. Ignoring incident response procedures Answer: B. Providing detailed information on the incident Rationale: Detailed incident reports help organizations understand the nature of the incident and implement measures to prevent future occurrences. Question: What role does a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) typically play in an organization? A. Implementing security controls B. Managing cybersecurity incidents C. Setting the organization's security strategy D. Ignoring security best practices Answer: C. Setting the organization's security strategy Rationale: The CISO is responsible for developing and implementing the organization's security policies and strategy. Question: What is the purpose of a security awareness training program? A. To avoid compliance with security regulations B. To provide employees with knowledge on security best practices C. To blame employees for security incidents D. To ignore emerging cybersecurity threats Answer: B. To provide employees with knowledge on security best practices Rationale: Security awareness training educates employees on identifying and responding to security threats to enhance the organization's overall security posture. Question: What is the main objective of security incident response? A. Punishing employees for security incidents B. Restoring normal operations as quickly as possible C. Delaying incident resolution to investigate further D. Ignoring the impact of security incidents Answer: B. Restoring normal operations as quickly as possible

Rationale: Incident response aims to minimize the impact of security incidents and restore operations to normalcy in a timely manner. Question: Which security control focuses on preventing unauthorized access to a system or network? A. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) B. Firewall C. Antivirus software D. Security patch management Answer: B. Firewall Rationale: Firewalls act as a barrier between internal systems and external networks to prevent unauthorized access and filter network traffic. Question: What is the purpose of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? A. Ignoring potential disruptions to business operations B. Preparing for and recovering from unexpected events C. Blaming external factors for business failures D. Delaying the resumption of business activities Answer: B. Preparing for and recovering from unexpected events Rationale: A BCP outlines procedures to ensure critical business functions continue during and after a disaster, minimizing downtime and ensuring business continuity.