Download ITIL 4 Exam Questions and Correct, Verified Answers 2024-2025. Graded A+ and more Exams Mobile Communication Systems in PDF only on Docsity! ITIL 4 Exam Questions and Correct, Verified Answers 2024-2025. Graded A+ 1) What is the effect of increased automation on the 'service desk' practice? A. Greater ability to focus on customer experience when personal contact is needed B. Decrease in self-service incident logging and resolution C. Increased ability to focus on fixing technology instead of supporting people D. Elimination of the need to escalate incidents to support teams - ANSA. Correct. "With increased automation... The impact on service desks is reduced phone contact, less low-level work, and a greater ability to focus on excellent CX when personal contact is needed". Ref 5.2.14 B. Incorrect. The effect of automation is to increase self-service, not to decrease it. "With increased automation, AI, robotic process automation (RPA), and chatbots, service desks are moving to provide more self-service logging and resolution directly via online portals and mobile applications". Ref 5.2.14 C. Incorrect. The opposite is true. "With increased automation and the gradual removal of technical debt, the focus of the service desk is to provide support for 'people and business' rather than simply technical issues". Ref 5.2.14 D. Incorrect. The use of automation will not eliminate the need to escalate incidents. "A key point to be understood is that, no matter how efficient the service desk and its people are, there will always be issues that need escalation and underpinning support from other teams". Ref 5.2.14 10) Which joint activity performed by a service provider and service consumer ensures continual value co-creation? A. Service provision B. Service consumption C. Service offering D. Service relationship management - ANSA. Incorrect. Service provision is not a joint activity; it is performed by a service provider. Ref 2.4.1 B. Incorrect. Service consumption is not a joint activity; it is performed by a service consumer. Ref 2.4.1 C. Incorrect. Service offering is not an activity; it is "A description of one or more services, designed to address the needs of a target consumer group. A service offering may include goods, access to resources, and service actions". Ref 2.4.1 D. Correct. Service relationship management is "Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co-creation based on agreed and available service offerings". Ref 2.4.1 11) Which practice may involve the initiation of disaster recovery? A. Incident management B. Service request management C. Service level management D. IT asset management - ANSA. Correct. "In some extreme cases, disaster recovery plans may be invoked to resolve an incident." Ref 5.2.5 B. Incorrect. "Service requests are a normal part of service delivery and are not a failure or degradation of service, which are handled as incidents." Ref 5.2.16 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the service level management practice is to set clear business-based targets for service levels, and to ensure that delivery of services is properly assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets." Ref 5.2.15 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the IT asset management practice is to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets." Asset management "includes the acquisition, operation, care and disposal of organizational assets." Ref 5.2.6 12) What type of change is MOST likely to be managed by the 'service request management' practice? A. A normal change B. An emergency change C. A standard change D. An application change - ANSA. Incorrect. "Normal changes: These are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed, and authorized". This is supported by the 'change control' practice, not by 'service request management'. Ref 5.2.4 B. change control is both efficient and effective." Ref 5.2.4 B. Incorrect. There is no rule that centralizing change authority is the most effective method. In some cases decentralizing decision-making is better: "In high-velocity organizations, it is a common practice to decentralize change approval, making the peer review a top predictor of high performance." Ref 5.2.4 C. Incorrect. This answer confuses normal changes with emergency changes. "Emergency changes are not typically included in a change schedule, and the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly." Ref 5.2.4 D. Incorrect. Standard changes are usually low risk and pre-authorized. "These are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented, and can be implemented without needing additional authorization." Ref 5.2.4 16) Which dimension of service management considers governance, management, and communication? A. Organizations and people B. Information and technology C. Partners and suppliers D. Value streams and processes - ANSA. Correct. "It is important to ensure that the way an organization is structured and managed, as well as its roles, responsibilities, and systems of authority and communication, is well defined and supports its overall strategy and operating model." Ref 3.1 B. Incorrect. The 'information and technology' dimension "includes the information and knowledge necessary for the management of services, as well as the technologies required. It also incorporates the relationships between different components of the SVS, such as the inputs and outputs of activities and practices." Ref 3.2 C. Incorrect. "The partners and suppliers dimension encompasses an organization's relationships with other organizations that are involved in the design, development, deployment, delivery, support and/or continual improvement of services. It also incorporates contracts and other agreements between the organization and its partners or suppliers." Ref 3.3 D. Incorrect. The 'value streams and processes' dimension "is concerned with how the various parts of the organization work in an integrated and coordinated way to enable value creation through products and services." Ref 3.4 17) Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A known error is a problem that has been [?] and has not been resolved. A. logged B. analysed C. escalated D. closed - ANSA. Incorrect. A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved". If a problem has been logged but not analysed, it would not be considered a known error. Ref 5.2.8 B. Correct. A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved". Ref 5.2.8 C. Incorrect. A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved" - it may or may not be escalated. Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved". If a problem has been closed, it would not be considered a known error. Ref 5.2.8 18) Which statement about known errors and problems is CORRECT? A. Known error is the status assigned to a problem after it has been analysed B. A known error is the cause of one or more problems C. Known errors cause vulnerabilities, problems cause incidents D. Known errors are managed by technical staff, problems are managed by service management staff - ANSA. Correct. Known errors "are problems where initial analysis has been completed; it usually means that faulty components have been identified... the problem remains in the known error status, and the documented workaround is applied". Ref 5.2.8 B. Incorrect. A problem is "A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents." A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved." Known errors do not cause problems; they are problems that have been analysed but not yet resolved. Ref 5.2.8 C. Incorrect. Both known errors and problems cause incidents. A problem is "A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents." A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved." Both problems and known errors may be vulnerabilities: "Every service has errors, flaws, or vulnerabilities that may cause incidents." Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. "Many problem management activities rely on the knowledge and experience of staff, rather than on following detailed procedures. People responsible for diagnosing problems often need the ability to understand complex systems, and to think about how different failures might have occurred. Developing this combination of analytic and creative ability requires mentoring and time, as well as suitable training." These people might work in a technical role, or in a service management role. Ref 5.2.8 19) What does the 'service request management' practice depend on for maximum efficiency? A. Compliments and complaints B. Self-service tools C. Processes and procedures D. Incident management - ANSA. Incorrect. Compliments and complaints are examples of service requests. The efficiency of the practice does not depend on them. Ref 5.2.16 B. Incorrect. Many service requests are initiated and fulfilled using self-service tools, but not all are appropriate for this approach. Ref 5.2.16 C. Correct. "Service request management is dependent upon well-designed processes and procedures, which are operationalized through tracking and automation tools to maximize the efficiency of the practice." Ref 5.2.16 D. Incorrect. "Service requests are a normal part of service delivery and are not a failure or degradation of service, which are handled as incidents." Ref 5.2.16 2) Which term describes the functionality offered by a service? A. Cost B. Utility C. Warranty D. Risk - ANSA. Incorrect. Cost is "The amount of money spent on a specific activity or resource." Ref 2.5.2 B. Correct. following sentence. A customer is a person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the [?] of service consumption. A. outputs B. outcomes C. costs D. risks - ANSA. Incorrect. "Customer: A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption." Ref 2.2.2 B. Correct. "Customer: A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption." Ref 2.2.2 C. Incorrect. "Customer: A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption." Ref 2.2.2 D. Incorrect. "Customer: A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption." Ref 2.2.2 24) Which guiding principle describes the importance of doing something, instead of spending a long time analysing different options? A. Optimize and automate B. Start where you are C. Focus on value D. Progress iteratively with feedback - ANSA. Incorrect. 'Optimize and automate' says that you should understand and optimize something before you automate it. "Attempting to automate something that is complex or suboptimal is unlikely to achieve the desired outcome." Ref 4.3.7.3 B. Incorrect. 'Start where you are' says that you should understand the current situation before making changes. "Services and methods already in place should be measured and/or observed directly to properly understand their current state and what can be re-used from them. Decisions on how to proceed should be based on information that is as accurate as possible." Ref 4.3.2.1 C. Incorrect. 'Focus on value' says that each improvement iteration should create value for stakeholders "All activities conducted by the organization should link back, directly or indirectly, to value for itself, its customers, and other stakeholders." Ref 4.3.1 D. Correct. 'Progress iteratively with feedback' recommends comprehending "the whole, but do something: Sometimes the greatest enemy to progressing iteratively is the desire to understand and account for everything. This can lead to what has sometimes been called 'analysis paralysis', in which so much time is spent analyzing the situation that nothing ever gets done about it." Ref 4.3.3.3 25) What should be done for every problem? A. It should be diagnosed to identify possible solutions B. It should be prioritized based on its potential impact and probability C. It should be resolved so that it can be closed D. It should have a workaround to reduce the impact - ANSA. Incorrect. "It is not essential to analyse every problem; it is more valuable to make significant progress on the highest- priority problems than to investigate every minor problem that the organization is aware of." Ref 5.2.8 B. Correct. "Problems are prioritized for analysis based on the risk that they pose, and are managed as risks based on their potential impact and probability." Ref 5.2.8 C. Incorrect. "Error control also includes identification of potential permanent solutions which may result in a change request for implementation of a solution, but only if this can be justified in terms of cost, risks, and benefits." Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. "When a problem cannot be resolved quickly, it is often useful to find and document a workaround for future incidents, based on an understanding of the problem." Ref 5.2.8 26) How should an organization include third-party suppliers in the continual improvement of services? A. Ensure suppliers include details of their approach to service improvement in contracts B. Require evidence that the supplier uses agile development methods C. Require evidence that the supplier implements all improvements using project management practices D. Ensure that all supplier problem management activities result in improvements - ANSA. Correct "When contracting for a supplier's service, the contract should include details of how they will measure, report on, and improve their services over the life of the contract." Ref 5.1.2 B. Incorrect. Agile methods do take an incremental approach, as they "focus on making improvements incrementally at a cadence"; however, this alone would not guarantee a supplier is committed to continual improvement. Ref 5.1.2 C. Incorrect. Many improvement initiatives use project management practices, but it may not be practical to do so for some. "Many improvement initiatives will use project management practices to organize and manage their execution", but not all improvement initiatives. Ref 5.1.2 D. Incorrect. Many 'problem management' activities will result in improvements, however not all supplier problems will result in improvements, so this is not a sensible approach. "It is not essential to analyse every problem; it is more valuable to make significant progress on the highest-priority problems than to investigate every minor problem that the organization is aware of." Ref 5.2.8 27) What considerations influence the supplier strategy of an organization? A. Contracts and agreements B. Type of cooperation with suppliers C. Corporate culture of the organization D. Level of formality - ANSA. Incorrect. "The partners and suppliers dimension encompasses an organization's relationships with other organizations that are involved in the design, development, deployment, delivery, support and/or continual improvement of services. It also incorporates contracts and other agreements between the organization and its partners or suppliers." These considerations depend on the supplier strategy, rather than influence it. Ref 3.3 B. Incorrect. The type of cooperation with suppliers depends on the supplier strategy, rather than influence it. The forms of cooperation "are not fixed but exist as a spectrum. An organization B. Correct. "The purpose of the monitoring and event management practice is to systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes of state identified as events". Ref 5.2.7 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the information security management practice is to protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business". Ref 5.1.3 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the incident management practice is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible". Ref 5.2.5 30) Which is intended to help an organization adopt and adapt ITIL guidance? A. The four dimensions of service management B. The guiding principles C. The service value chain D. Practices - ANSA. Incorrect. "To support a holistic approach to service management, ITIL defines four dimensions that collectively are critical to the effective and efficient facilitation of value for customers and other stakeholders in the form of products and services." Adopting ITIL to address these four dimensions of ITSM helps to facilitate value but does not help the organization to adapt ITIL guidance to its organization. Ref 3 B. Correct. The guiding principles can "guide organizations in their work as they adopt a service management approach and adapt ITIL guidance to their own specific needs and circumstances." Ref 4.3 C. Incorrect. "Service value chain: A set of interconnected activities that an organization performs to deliver a valuable product or service to its consumers and to facilitate value realization." Adopting a service value chain helps to facilitate value but does not help the organization to adapt ITIL guidance to its organization. Ref 4.1 D. Incorrect. Practices are sets of organizational resources designed for performing work or accomplishing an objective. They do not help the organization to adapt ITIL guidance to its organization. Ref 4.1 31) What is an output? A. A change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item B. A possible event that could cause harm or loss C. A result for a stakeholder D. Something created by carrying out an activity - ANSA. Incorrect. An event is: "Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item (CI). Events are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, CI, or monitoring tool." Ref 5.2.7 B. Incorrect. Risk is "A possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives." Ref 2.5.3 C. Incorrect. An outcome is "A result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs." Ref 2.5.1 D. Correct. An output is "A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity". Ref 2.5.1 32) What is the reason for using a balanced bundle of service metrics? A. It reduces the number of metrics that need to be collected B. It reports each service element separately C. It provides an outcome-based view of services D. It facilitates the automatic collection of metrics - ANSA. Incorrect. There would not be fewer metrics gathered, although it would combine and aggregate them to provide clearer information. "The practice requires pragmatic focus on the whole service and not simply its constituent parts; for example, simple individual metrics (such as percentage system availability) should not be taken to represent the whole service." Ref 5.2.15 B. Incorrect. The reason is to reduce reporting of the individual system- based metrics which are not meaningful to the customer. "They should relate to defined outcomes and not simply operational metrics. This can be achieved with balanced bundles of metrics." Ref 5.2.15.1 C. Correct. "They should relate to defined outcomes and not simply operational metrics. This can be achieved with balanced bundles of metrics." Ref 5.2.15.1 D. Incorrect. This does not affect the mechanism for metric collection. "The practice requires pragmatic focus on the whole service and not simply its constituent parts; for example, simple individual metrics (such as percentage system availability) should not be taken to represent the whole service." Ref 5.2.15 33) Why should incidents be prioritized? A. To help automated matching of incidents to problems or known errors B. To identify which support team the incident should be escalated to C. To ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first D. To encourage a high level of collaboration within and between teams - ANSA. Incorrect. "Modern IT service management tools can provide automated matching of incidents to other incidents, problems or known errors," but this is not dependent on the incident priority, which is used to ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first. Ref 5.2.5 B. Incorrect. "More complex incidents will usually be escalated to a support team for resolution. Typically, the routing is based on the incident category, which should help to identify the correct team." Ref 5.2.5 C. Correct. "Incidents are prioritized based on an agreed classification to ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first." Ref 5.2.5 D. Incorrect. "Effective incident management often requires a high level of collaboration within and between teams." However, this is not dependent on the incident priority, which is used to "ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first". Ref 5.2.5 34) Which practice has a purpose that includes helping the organization to maximize value, control costs and manage risks? A. Relationship management B. IT asset management C. Release management D. Service desk - ANSA. Incorrect. "The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels." Ref 5.1.9 B. Correct. "The purpose of the IT asset management practice is to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT value may come in various forms, such as revenue, customer loyalty, lower cost, or growth opportunities." Ref 4.3.1 38) Which practice provides visibility of the organization's services by capturing and reporting on service performance? A. Service desk B. Service level management C. Service request management D. Service configuration management - ANSA. Incorrect. "Service desks provide a clear path for users to report issues, queries, and requests, and have them acknowledged, classified, owned, and actioned." Ref 5.2.14 B. Correct. "Service level management provides the end-to-end visibility of the organization's services. To achieve this, service level management:... captures and reports on service issues, including performance against defined service levels." Ref 5.2.14 C. Incorrect. "A request from a user or a user's authorized representative that initiates a service action which has been agreed as a normal part of service delivery." Ref 5.2.15 D. Incorrect. "Service configuration management collects and manages information about a wide variety of CIs, typically including hardware, software, networks, buildings, people, suppliers, and documentation." Ref 5.2.11 39) Which is the BEST example of an emergency change? A. The implementation of a planned new release of a software application B. A low-risk computer upgrade implemented as a service request C. The implementation of a security patch to a critical software application D. A scheduled major hardware and software implementation - ANSA. Incorrect. Emergency changes "are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security patch." The implementation of a planned new release of a software application does not fall into this category and would be planned and implemented as a normal change. Ref 5.2.4 B. Incorrect. Emergency changes "are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security patch." A low-risk computer upgrade implemented as a service request does not fall into this category. Using a service request implies that this is a standard change, as standard changes "are often initiated as service requests." Ref 5.2.4 C. Correct. Emergency changes are "Changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security patch." Ref 5.2.4 D. Incorrect. Emergency changes "must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security patch. Emergency changes are not typically included in a change schedule, and the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly." A scheduled major hardware and software implementation does not fall into this category and would be planned and implemented as a normal change. Ref 5.2.4 4) What should all 'continual improvement' decisions be based on? A. Details of how services are measured B. Accurate and carefully analysed data C. An up-to-date balanced scorecard D. A recent maturity assessment - ANSA. Incorrect. How services are measured is important, however only accurate data can drive fact-based decisions for improvement. Ref 5.1.2 B. Correct. "Accurate data, carefully analysed and understood, is the foundation of fact-based decision-making for improvement." The 'continual improvement' practice should be supported by relevant data sources and by skilled data analytics to ensure that each potential improvement situation is sufficiently understood. Ref 5.1.2 C. Incorrect. A balanced scorecard is one input to making a decision, but on its own it does not serve as the foundation for fact-based decisions. Ref 5.1.2 D. Incorrect. Maturity assessments are useful but they provide only one piece of information, as opposed to providing the foundations for decision-making in the continual improvement practice. Ref 5.1.2 40) Which guiding principle recommends assessing the current state and deciding what can be reused? A. Focus on value B. Start where you are C. Collaborate and promote visibility D. Progress iteratively with feedback - ANSA. Incorrect. The guiding principle 'focus on value' advises "All activities conducted by the organization should link back, directly or indirectly, to value for itself, its customers, and other stakeholders." This is not the main concern of the guiding principle 'start where you are'. Ref 4.3.1 B. Correct. The guiding principle 'start where you are' advises "Having a proper understanding of the current state of services and methods is important to selecting which elements to re-use, alter, or build upon." Ref 4.3.2.3 C. Incorrect. The focus of the guiding principle 'collaborate and promote visibility' is on involving the right stakeholders and communicating with them. "When initiatives involve the right people in the correct roles, efforts benefit from better buy-in, more relevance (because better information is available for decision-making) and increased likelihood of long-term success". This is not the main concern of the guiding principle 'start where you are'. Ref 4.3.4 D. Incorrect. The main concern of the guiding principle 'progress iteratively with feedback' is breaking initiatives into smaller parts. "By organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can be executed and completed in a timely manner, the focus on each effort will be sharper and easier to maintain." This is not the main concern of the guiding principle 'start where you are'. Ref 4.3.3 5) How do all value chain activities transform inputs to outputs? A. By determining service demand B. By using a combination of practices C. By using a single functional team D. By implementing process automation - ANSA. Incorrect. Demand is the input to the service value chain. Value chain activities "represent the steps an organization takes in the creation of value. Each activity contributes to the which are relevant to the whole SVS, including the entirety of the service value chain and all ITIL practices." They do not ensure that the organization continually co- creates value with all stakeholders. Ref 3 C. Correct. "The purpose of the SVS is to ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all stakeholders through the use and management of products and services." Ref 4.1 D. Incorrect. The purpose of the 'service request management' practice is to "support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner." It doesn't ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all stakeholders. Ref 5.2.16 9) Which practice provides support for managing feedback, compliments and complaints from users? A. Change control B. Service request management C. Problem management D. Incident management - ANSA. Incorrect. "The purpose of the change control practice is to maximize the number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change schedule." Ref 5.2.4 B. Correct. "The purpose of the service request management practice is to support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user- friendly manner," and "Each service request may include one or more of the following: ... feedback, compliments, and complaints (for example, complaints about a new interface or compliments to a support team)." Ref 5.2.16 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors." Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the incident management practice is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible." Ref 5.2.5