Jarvis Study Guide - Chapters 1-7 Questions with Answers 2024, Exams of Medicine

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Jarvis Study Guide - Chapters 1-

Questions with Answers 2024

The concept of health and healing has evolved in recent years. Which is the best description of health? a. Health is the absence of disease. b. Health is a dynamic process toward optimal functioning. c. Health depends on an interaction of mind, body, and spirit within the environment. d. Health is the prevention of disease. ✔ c. Health depends on an interaction of mind, body, and spirit within the environment. Which would be included in the database for a new patient admission to a surgical unit? a. All subjective and objective data gathered by a health practitioner from a patient b. All objective data obtained from a patient through inspection, percussion, palpation, and auscultation c. A summary of a patient's record, including laboratory studies d. All subjective and objective data, data gathered from a patient, and the results of any laboratory or diagnostic studies completed ✔ d. All subjective and objective data, data gathered from a patient, and the results of any laboratory or diagnostic studies completed You are reviewing assessment data of a 45-year-old male patient and note pain of 8 on a scale of 10, labored breathing, and pale skin color on the electronic health record. This documentation is an example of: a. Hypothetical reasoning. b. Diagnostic reasoning. c. Data cluster. d. Signs and symptoms. ✔ c. Data Cluster A patient is in the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. Which would you include in the database? a. A complete health history and full physical examination b. A diet and GI history c. Previously identified problems d. Start collection of data in conjunction with lifesaving measures ✔ b. A diet and GI history

5. A patient has recently received health insurance and would like to know how often he should visit the provider. How do you respond?

a. "It would be most efficient if you visit on an annual basis." b. "There is no recommendation for the frequency of health care visits." c. "Your visits may vary, depending on your level of wellness." d. "Your visits will be based on your preference." ✔ c. "Your visits may vary, depending on your level of wellness." You are reviewing concepts related to steps in the nursing process for determining prioritization and developing patient outcomes. To what are these actions attributed? a. Planning b. Assessment c. Implementation d. Diagnosis ✔ a. Planning Which best describes evidence-based nursing practice? a. Combining clinical expertise with the use of nursing research to provide the best care for patients while considering the patient's values and circumstances b. Appraising and looking at the implications of one or two articles as they relate to the culture and ethnicity of the patient c. Completing a literature search to find relevant articles that use nursing research to encourage nurses to use good practices d. Finding value-based resources to justify nursing actions when working with patients of diverse cultural backgrounds ✔ a. Combining clinical expertise with the use of nursing research to provide the best care for patients while considering the patient's values and circumstances What can be determined when the nurse clusters data as part of the critical-thinking process? a. This step identifies problems that may be urgent and require immediate action. b. This step involves making assumptions in the data. c. The nurse recognizes relevant information among the data. d. Risk factors can be determined so the nurse knows how to offer health teaching. ✔ c. The nurse recognizes relevant information among the data. A patient says she is very nervous and nauseated, and she feels as if she will vomit. This data would be what type of data? a. Objective b. Reflective c. Subjective d. Introspective ✔ c. Subjective

The expert nurse differs from the novice nurse by acting without consciously thinking about the actions. This is referred to as: a. Deductive reasoning. b. Intuition. c. The nursing process. d. Focused assessment. ✔ b. Intuition. Which would be considered a risk diagnosis? a. Identifying existing levels of wellbess b. Evaluating previous problems and goals c. Identifying potential problems the individual may develop d. Focusing on individual's transition to higher strengths and reflecting an levels of wellness ✔ c. Identifying potential problems the individual may develop Which would be included in a holistic model of assessment? a. Nursing goals for the patient b. Anticipated growth and development patterns c. A patient's perception of his or her health status d. The nurse's perception of disease related to the patient ✔ c. A patient's perception of his or her health status The nurse uses health promotion activities with a new patient. What would this focus include? a. The nurse would try to change the patient's perceptions of disease. b. The nurse would search for identification of biomedical model interventions. c. The nurse would help to identify negative health acts of the patient. d. The nurse would empower the patient to choose a healthier lifestyle. ✔ d. The nurse would empower the patient to choose a healthier lifestyle. Which is an example of objective data? a. Patient's history of allergies b. Patient's use of medications at home c. Last menstrual period 1 month ago d. 2- x 5-cm scar present on the right lower forearm ✔ d. 2- x 5-cm scar present on the right lower forearm During the evaluation phase of the nursing process, which action would be included?

a. Validating the nursing diagnosis b. Establishing priorities related to patient care c. Including the patient and family members d. Establishing a timeline for planned outcomes ✔ c. Including the patient and family members Which statement best describes religion? a. An organized system of beliefs concerning the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe b. Belief in a divine or superhuman spirit to be obeyed and worshiped c. Affiliation with one of the 1200 recognized religions in the United States d. The following of established rituals, especially in conjunction with health-seeking behaviors ✔ a. An organized system of beliefs concerning the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe The major factor contributing to the need for cultural care nursing is: a. An increasing birth rate. b. Limited access to health care services. c. Demographic change. d. A decreasing rate of immigration. ✔ c. Demographic change. The term culturally competent implies that the nurse: a. Is prepared in nursing. b. Possesses knowledge of the traditions of diverse peoples. c. Applies underlying knowledge to providing nursing care. d. Understands the cultural context of the patient's situation. ✔ d. Understands the cultural context of the patient's situation.

4. You are the triage nurse in the emergency department and perform the initial intake assessment on a patient who does not speak English. Based on your understanding of linguistic competence, which action would present as a barrier to effective communication? a. Maintaining a professional respectful demeanor b. Allowing for additional time to complete the process c. Providing the patient with a paper and pencil so he or she can write down the answers to the questions that you are going to ask d. Seeing if there are any family members present who may assist with the interview process ✔ c. Providing the patient with a paper and pencil so he or she can write down the answers to the questions that you are going to ask

Which culture would describe illness as hot and cold imbalance? a. Asian-American heritage b. African-American heritage c. Hispanic-American heritage d. American Indian heritage ✔ c. Hispanic-American heritage Of what does the patient believe the amulet is protective? a. The evil eye b. Being kidnapped c. Exposure to bacterial infections d. An unexpected fall ✔ a. The evil eye Which statement best illustrates the difference between religion and spirituality? a. Religion reflects an individual's reaction to whether the individual attends religious life events whereas spirituality is based on services. b. Religion is characterized by identification of a higher being shaping one's destiny, whereas spirituality reflects an individual's perception of one's life having worth or meaning. c. Religion is the expression of spiritual awakening whereas spirituality is based on belief in divine right. d. Religion is the active interpretation of one's spirituality. ✔ b. Religion is characterized by identification whereas spirituality reflects an individual's of a higher being shaping one's destiny, perception of one's life having worth meaning. The first step to cultural competency by a nurse is to: a. Identify the meaning of health to the patient. b. Understand how a health care delivery system works. c. Develop a frame of reference to traditional health care practices. d. Understand your own heritage and its basis in cultural values. ✔ d. Understand your own heritage and its basis in cultural values. Which statement is true in regard to pain? a. Nurses' attitudes toward their patients' pain are unrelated to their own experiences with pain. b. The cultural background of a patient is important in a nurse's assessment of that patient's pain.

c. A nurse's area of clinical practice is most likely to determine his or her assessment of a patient's pain. d. A nurse's years of clinical experience and current position are a strong indicator of his or her response to patient pain. ✔ b. The cultural background of a patient is important in a nurse's assessment of that patient's pain. Which factor is identified as a priority influence on a patient's health status? a. Poverty b. Lifestyle factors c. Legislative action d. Occupational status ✔ a. Poverty Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating an assessment of cultural beliefs with an older American Indian patient? a. "Are you of the Christian faith?" b. "Do you want to see a medicine man?" c. "How often do you seek help from medical providers?" d. What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?" ✔ d. What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?" Which statement best describes ethnocentrism? a. The government's description of various cultures b. A central belief that accepts all cultures as one's own c. The tendency to view your own way of life as the most desirable d. The tendency to impose your beliefs, values, and patterns of behaviors on an individual from another culture ✔ c. The tendency to view your own way of life as the most desirable Which category is appropriate in a cultural assessment? a. Family history b. Chief complaint c. Past medical history d. Health-related beliefs ✔ d. Health-related beliefs Which health belief practice is associated with patients who are of American Indian heritage? a. Wearing bangle bracelets to ward off evil spirits b. Believing that forces of nature must be kept in natural balance

c. Using swamp root as a traditional home remedy d. Believing in a shaman as a traditional healer ✔ b. Believing that forces of nature must be kept in natural balance Which statement best reflects the Magicoreligious causation of illness? a. Each being is but a part of a larger structure in the world of nature as relates to health and illness. b. Causality relationship exists, leading to expression of illness. c. Belief in the struggle between good and evil is reflected in the regulation of health and illness. d. Illness occurs as a result of disturbances between hot and cold reactions. ✔ c. Belief in the struggle between good and evil is reflected in the regulation of health and illness.

1. The practitioner, entering the examining room to meet a patient for the first time, states: "Hello, I'm M.M., and I'm here to gather some information from you and to perform your examination. This will take about 30 minutes. D.D. is a student working with me. If it's all right with you, she will remain during the examination." Which of the following must be added to cover all aspects of the interview contract? a. A statement regarding confidentiality, patient costs, and the expectations of each person b. The purpose of the interview and the role of the interviewer c. Time and place of the interview and a confidentiality statement d. An explicit purpose of the interview and a description of the physical examination, including diagnostic studies ✔ a. A statement regarding confidentiality, patient costs, and the expectations of each person _____________ is exhibiting an accurate person's feelings within a communication understanding of the other context. a. Empathy b. Liking others c. Facilitation d. A nonverbal listening technique ✔ a. Empathy You conduct an admission interview. Because you are expecting a phone call, you stand near the door. Which would be a more appropriate approach? a. Arrange to have someone page you so you can sit on the side of the bed. b. Have someone else answer the phone so you can give the patient your full attention. c. Use this approach given the circumstances.

d. Arrange for a time free of interruptions after the initial physical examination is complete. ✔ b. Have someone else answer the phone so you can give the patient your full attention. A patient asks the nurse, "May I ask you a question?" This is an example of: a. An open-ended question. b. A reflective question. c. A closed question. d. A double-barreled question. ✔ c. A closed question.

5. Which statement best describes interpretation as a communication technique? a. Interpretation is the same as clarification. b. Interpretation is a summary of a statement made by a patient. c. Interpretation is used to focus on a particular aspect of what the patient has just said. d. Interpretation is based on the interviewer's inference from the data that have been presented. ✔ d. Interpretation is based on the interviewer's inference from the data that have been presented. Which demonstrates a good understanding of the interview process? a. The nurse stops the patient each time something is said that is not understood. b. The nurse spends more time listening to the patient than talking. c. The nurse is consistently thinking of his or her next response so the patient will know he or she is understood. d. The nurse uses "why" questions to seek clarification of unusual symptoms or behavior. ✔ b. The nurse spends more time listening to the patient than talking. During an interview, a patient denies having any anxiety. The patient frequently changes position in the chair, holds his arms folded tight against his chest, and has little eye contact with the interviewer. The interviewer should: a. Use confrontation to bring the discrepancy between verbal and nonverbal behavior to the patient's attention. b. Proceed with the interview. Patients usually are truthful with a health care practitioner. c. Make a mental note to discuss the behavior after the physical examination is completed. d. Proceed with the interview and examination as outlined on the agency assessment form. The patient's behavior is appropriate for the circumstances.

✔ a. Use confrontation to bring the discrepancy between verbal and nonverbal behavior to the patient's attention. For what or with whom should touch be used during the interview? a. Only with individuals from a Western culture b. As a routine way of establishing contact with the person and communicating empathy c. Only with patients of the same gender d. Only if the interviewer knows the person well ✔ d. Only if the interviewer knows the person well Children usually come for health care with a caregiver. At about what age should the interviewer begin to question the child himself or herself regarding presenting symptoms? a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 9 years d. 11 years ✔ b. 7 years Because of adolescents' developmental level, not all interviewing techniques can be used with them. Which techniques should be avoided? a. Facilitation and clarification b. Confrontation and explanation c. Empathy and interpretations d. Silence and reflection ✔ d. Silence and reflection Mr. B. tells you, "Everyone here ignores me." You respond, "Ignores you?" This technique is best described as: a. Clarification. b. Selective listening. c. Reflecting. d. Validation. ✔ c. Reflecting. What does active listening NOT include? a. Taking detailed notes during the interview b. Watching for clues in body language c. Repeating statements back to the person to make sure you have understood d. Asking open-ended questions to explore the person's perspective ✔ a. Taking detailed notes during the interview

When interviewing a patient who does not speak English, the examiner should: a. Take advantage of family members who are readily available and willing to assist. b. Use a qualified medical interpreter who is culturally literate. c. Seek as much information as possible and then continue with the physical examination d. Wait until a qualified medical interpreter is available before starting the interview. ✔ b. Use a qualified medical interpreter who is culturally literate. With older adults, how should the examiner proceed with the interview? a. Proceed in a more organized and concise manner. b. Consider the fatigue of the older person and break the interview into shorter segments. c. Ask a family member to complete some of the records while moving ahead with the interview. voice if the patient does not d. Raise your appear to hear you. ✔ b. Consider the fatigue of the older person and break the interview into shorter segments. When reading a medical record, you see the following notation: Patient states, "I have had cold for about a week, and now I am having difficulty breathing." This is an example of: a. A past health history. b. A review of systems. c. A functional assessment. d. A reason for seeking care. ✔ d. A reason for seeking care. You have reason to question the reliability of the information being provided by a patient. One way to verify the reliability within the context of the interview is to: a. Rephrase the same questions later in the interview. b. Review the patient's previous medical records. c. Call the person identified as the emergency contact to verify the data provided. d. Provide the patient with a printed history to complete and then compare the data provided. ✔ a. Rephrase the same questions later in the interview. The statement "Reason for seeking care" has replaced the "chief complaint." This change is significant because: a. The "chief complaint" is really a diagnostic statement. b. The newer term allows another individual to supply the necessary information.

c. The newer term incorporates wellness needs. d. The "reason for seeking care" can incorporate the history of the present illness. ✔ c. The newer term incorporates wellness needs. During an initial interview, the examiner says, "Mrs. J., tell me what you do when your headaches occur?" This is an example of which type of information? a. The patient's perception of the problem b. Aggravating or relieving factors c. The frequency of the problem d. The severity of the problem ✔ b. Aggravating or relieving factors Which is an appropriate recording of a patient's reason for seeking health care? a. Angina pectoris, duration 2 hours b. Substernal pain radiating to left axilla, 1 hour duration c. "Grabbing" chest pain for 2 hours d. Pleurisy, 2 days' duration ✔ c. "Grabbing" chest pain for 2 hours A genogram is used for which reasons? a. Past history b. Past health history, specifically hospitalizations c Family history d. The 8 characteristics of presenting symptoms ✔ c Family history What is the best description of "review of systems" as a part of the health history? a. The evaluation of the past and present health state of each body system b. A documentation of the problem as described by the patient c. The recording of the objective findings of the practitioner d. A statement that describes the overall health state of the patient ✔ a. The evaluation of the past and present health state of each body system Which finding is considered to be subjective? a. Temperature of 101.2° F b. Pulse rate of 96 beats/min c. Measured weight loss of 20 pounds since the previous measurement d. Pain lasting 2 hours ✔ d. Pain lasting 2 hours

When taking a health history for a child, what information, in addition to that for an adult, is usually obtained? a. Coping and stress management b. A review of immunizations received c. Environmental hazards d. Hospitalization history ✔ b. A review of immunizations received Functional assessment measures how a person manages day-to-day activities. The impact of adoption on the daily activities of child is referred to as: a. Developmental history. b. Instrumental activities of daily living. c. Reason for seeking care. d. Interpersonal relationship assessment. ✔ d. Interpersonal relationship assessment. Which two sections of the child's health history become separate sections because of their importance to the child's current health status? a. Play activities and rest patterns b. Prenatal and postnatal status c. Developmental and nutritional history d. Accidents, injuries, and immunizations ✔ c. Developmental and nutritional history Which statement best describes the purpose of a health history? a. To provide an opportunity for interaction between patient and examiner b. To provide a form for obtaining the patient's biographic information C. To document the normal and abnormal findings of a physical assessment d. To provide a database of subjective information about the patient's past and present health ✔ d. To provide a database of subjective information about the patient's past and present health While assessing a man for allergies, he states he is allergic to penicillin. Which response is best? a. "Are you allergic to any other drugs?" b. "How often have you received penicillin?" c. "I'll write your allergy on your chart so you won't receive any." d. "Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin." ✔ d. "Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin."

Although a full mental status examination may not be required, you must be aware of the 4 main headings of the assessment while performing the interview and physical examination. These headings are: a. Mood, affect, consciousness, and orientation. b. Memory, attention, thought content, and perceptions. c. Language, orientation, attention, and abstract reasoning. d. Appearance, behavior, cognition, and thought process. ✔ d. Appearance, behavior, cognition, and thought process. Select the finding that most accurately describes appearance of a patient. a. Tense posture and restless activity. Clothing clean but not appropriate season (e.g, patient wearing T-shirt and shorts in cold weather) b. Oriented x 3. Affect appropriate for circumstances. c. Alert and responds to verbal stimuli. Tearful when diagnosis discussed. d. Laughing inappropriately, oriented x 3. ✔ a. Tense posture and restless activity. Clothing clean but not appropriate season (e.g, patient wearing T-shirt and shorts in cold weather) You are assessing short-term cognitive function. Which assessment shows the ability to lay down new memories? a. Noting whether the patient completes a thought without wandering b. A test of general knowledge C. A description of past medical history d. Use of the Four Unrelated Words Test ✔ d. Use of the Four Unrelated Words Test You are preparing the discharge plan for a patient with aphasia. What assessment should you include in the plan? a. Ask the patient to calculate serial 7s. b. Ask the patient to name his or her grandchildren and their birthdays. c. Ask the patient to demonstrate word comprehension by naming articles in the room or on the body as you point to them. d. Ask the patient to interpret a proverb. ✔ c. Ask the patient to demonstrate word comprehension by naming articles in the room or on the body as you point to them. During an interview with a patient diagnosed with a seizure disorder, the patient states, "I plan to be an airline pilot." If the patient continues to have this as a career goal after teaching regarding seizure disorders has been provided, you might question the patient's: a. Thought processes.

b. Judgment. c. Attention span. d. Recent memory. ✔ b. Judgment. On a patient's second day in an acute care hospital, the patient complains about the "bugs" on the bed. The bed is clean. This would be an example of altered: a. Thought processes. b. Orientation. c. Perception. d. Higher intellectual function. ✔ c. Perception. One way to assess cognitive function and to screen dementia is with: a. The Proverb Interpretation Test. b. The Mini-Cog. c. The Denver II. d. The Older Adult Behavioral Checklist. ✔ b. The Mini-Cog. A major characteristic of dementia is: a. Impairment of short- and long-term memory. b. Hallucinations. c. Sudden onset of symptoms. d. Substance-induced. ✔ a. Impairment of short- and long-term memory. What statement is an example of a patient with dysarthria? a. When asked a question, the patient responds fluently but uses words incorrectly or makes up words so that speech may be incomprehensible. b. The word choice and grammar are appropriate, but the sounds are distorted so speech is unintelligible. c. The pitch and volume of words are difficult and the voice may be hoarse, but language is intact. d. Comprehension is intact but there is difficulty in expressing thoughts, with nouns and verbs being the dominant word choices. ✔ b. The word choice and grammar are appropriate, but the sounds are distorted so speech is unintelligible. You are leading a discussion of the planned activities for the day at an adult living center and state, "We will be having snacks at 9:30 and lunch will be at noon." One of

the participants responds in a very monotone manner, "Snacks at 9:30, lunch at noon, snacks at 9:30, lunch at noon." This patient is exhibiting signs of: a. Echolalia. b. Confabulation. c. Flight of ideas. d. Neologisms. ✔ a. Echolalia. You are performing a mental status examination. Which assessments would be most appropriate? a. Examining the patient's EEG b. Observing the patient as he or she takes an IQ test c. Observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction d. Examining the patient's response to a specific set of questions ✔ c. Observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction What is a priority assessment for aging adults? a. Phobias b. General intelligence c. Irrational thinking patterns d. Sensory perceptive abilities ✔ d. Sensory perceptive abilities You are assessing a 75-year-old man. What is an expected finding? a. He will have no decrease in any of his abilities, including response time. b. He will have difficulty on tests of remote memory because this typically decreases with age. C. It may take him a little longer to respond but his general knowledge and abilities should not have declined. d. He will have had a decrease in his response time due to language loss and a decrease in general knowledge. ✔ C. It may take him a little longer to respond but his general knowledge and abilities should not have declined. When assessing mental status in children, what statement is true? a. All aspects of mental status in children are interrelated. b. Children are highly labile and unstable until the age of 2. c. Children's mental status is largely a function of their parents' level of functioning until the age of 7. d. A child's mental status is impossible to assess until the child develops the ability to concentrate.

✔ a. All aspects of mental status in children are interrelated. The phase of addiction characterized by tolerance, increasing time spent in substance- related activities, unsuccessful attempts to quit, and continued use despite known harm is: a. Relief. b. Withdrawal. c. Dependency. d. Preoccupation. ✔ c. Dependency. The unpleasant effect that occurs when use of a drug is stopped is called: a. Potency. b. Withdrawal. c. Metabolism. d. Threshold. ✔ b. Withdrawal. The need for increasingly larger doses of a substance to achieve the same effect that was initially experienced from using is called: a. Tolerance. b. Addiction. c. Abuse. d. Dependence. ✔ a. Tolerance. Which health issue is NOT a result of prolonged heavy drinking? a. Kidney and liver damage b. Increased risk for oral cancer c. Increased resistance to pneumonia and other infectious diseases d. Damage to the brain and peripheral nervous system ✔ c. Increased resistance to pneumonia and other infectious diseases How many drinks does a man consume in one sitting for it to be considered binge drinking? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8 ✔ b. 5

A pregnant woman explains that she does not intend to stop drinking because her friends continued to drink during pregnancy, and "nothing happened to them or their kids." How should the clinician respond to this statement? a. "While it's true that there is no scientific evidence that alcohol harms the fetus, abstinence is recommended because of the physical effects on your body." b. "No amount of alcohol has been determined to be safe for a pregnant woman so I would ask you to stop drinking alcohol completely." c. "Maybe you could cut back on your alcohol intake, at least until you're in the third trimester, when the effects on the fetus are minimal." d. "If you can limit yourself to only one drink per day, you will be helping yourself and your baby." ✔ b. "No amount of alcohol has been determined to be safe for a pregnant woman so I would ask you to stop drinking alcohol completely." Which is the most commonly used laboratory test to identify chronic alcohol drinking? a. Blood urea nitrogen b. Liver enzyme panel c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) d. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) ✔ c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) The CAGE screening tool is used to assess: a. Sexual activity. b. Depression. c. Problem alcohol use. d. Decreased mental status. ✔ c. Problem alcohol use. While assessing a man during a physical examination for work, you suspect alcohol use. Which assessment tool is appropriate this situation? a. AUDIT screening tool b. Rapid eye test c. Mental status examination d. Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale ✔ a. AUDIT screening tool You are screening patients for excessive alcohol consumption. Which patient would be considered over the recommended limit? a. The man who reports drinking 2 beers each day b. The woman who reports drinking 2 vodka martinis each day

c. The older adult man who reports drinking 1 glass of sherry before going to bed each night d. The woman who reports drinking 1 glass of wine with dinner each day ✔ b. The woman who reports drinking 2 vodka martinis each day You are performing a sports physical on a 16-year-old girl. Which question would most likely yield an accurate substance use assessment? a. "Many teenagers have tried street drugs. Have you tried these drugs? " b. "Tell me which street drugs your friends have offered to you?" c. "Do most of your friends drink alcohol or do street drugs?" d. "Your high school has a reputation for drug use. Do you use drugs?" ✔ a. "Many teenagers have tried street drugs. Have you tried these drugs? During the assessment, you will observe for which problems in addition to alcohol withdrawal syndrome? a. Renal insufficiency b. Hypertension c. Irritable bowel syndrome d. Impaired glucose tolerance ✔ b. Hypertension You are assessing a patient's cardiac risk factors secondary to chronic alcohol use. Which condition might this patient exhibit? a. Bradycardia b. Ventral fibrillation c. Hypertension d. Hypotension ✔ c. Hypertension You are assessing a male patient's blodesdT alcohol consumption. Which statement would alert you to investigate further? a. "I drink at wedding and holidays." b. "I enjoy a few beers on the weekend." c. "No matter how much I drink I don't get drunk." d. "I drink a beer with dinner every day." ✔ c. "No matter how much I drink I don't get drunk." Which scenario is an example of intimate partner violence? a. An ex-boyfriend stalks his ex-girlfriend b. Marital rape c. Hitting a date

d. All of the above ✔ d. All of the above Routine universal screening for domestic violence includes: a. Asking everyone each time they come to the health care system if they are abused. b. Asking everyone who has injuries if they are abused. c. Asking everyone who has symptoms of depression and PTSD if they are abused. d. Asking everyone ages 18 to 30 years if they are abused. ✔ a. Asking everyone each time they come to the health care system if they are abused. Patients are at high risk for which mental health problem associated with intimate partner violence? a. Hallucinations b. Suicidality c. Schizophrenia d. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) ✔ b. Suicidality Which gynecologic problem is not usually associated with intimate partner violence? a. Pelvic pain b. Ovarian cysts c. STIS d. Vaginal tearing ✔ b. Ovarian cysts Risk factors for intimate partner homicide include: a. Abuse during pregnancy. b. Victim substance abuse c. Victim unemployment. d. History of victim childhood sexual assault. ✔ a. Abuse during pregnancy. Elder abuse and neglect assessments include: a. Willful infliction of force. b. Withholding prescription medications without medical orders. c. Not replacing broken eyeglasses d. Threatening to place someone in a nursing home. e. All of the above ✔ e. All of the above

When assessing an injury on a child, which should be considered? a. The child's developmental level b. The child's medical and medication history c. The history of how the injury occurred d. All of the above ✔ d. All of the above What is a known risk factor for child maltreatment? a. Substance abuse b. Intimate partner violence c. Physical disability and/or mental retardation in the child d. All of the above ✔ d. All of the above Bruising on a nonwalking or noncruising child: a. Is a common finding from normal infant activity. b. Needs to be further evaluated for either an abusive or medical explanation. c. Is commonly seen on the buttocks. d. Cannot be reported until after a full medical evaluation. ✔ b. Needs to be further evaluated for either an abusive or medical explanation. Which is a forensic term that is related to "purpura" but is not related to blunt force trauma? a. Wound b. Incision c. Ecchymosis d. Bruise ✔ c. Ecchymosis Which should be routinely included in evaluating a case of elder abuse? a. Corroborative interview from caregiver b. Baseline laboratory tests c. Testing for STIS d. TB testing ✔ b. Baseline laboratory tests During an examination, you notice a patterned injury on a patient's back. Which is most likely? a. A blunt force trauma b. A friction rub

c. A stabbing d. A welt from a leather belt ✔ d. A welt from a leather belt During an interview, a woman has answered "yes" to 3 of the Abuse Assessment Screen questions. How should you proceed? a. Ask the patient if she has filed a restraining order. b. Proceed by asking more questions about the items she answered "yes." c. Respond by confirming that the patient was abused. d. Interview the woman's partner and compare notes. ✔ b. Proceed by asking more questions about the items she answered "yes." Which clinical situation would require the examiner to report to the proper authorities? a. Statements from the victim b. Statements from witnesses c. Proof of abuse and/or neglect d. Suspicion of elder abuse and/or neglect ✔ d. Suspicion of elder abuse and/or neglect Which would you include on the chart of the patient who has been the victim of abuse? a. Photographic documentation of injuries b. A summary of the abused patient's statements c. Verbatim documentation of every statement made d. A general description of injuries in the progress notes ✔ a. Photographic documentation of injuries