JB test prep EMT 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT, Exams of Nursing

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JB test prep EMT 100%

VERIFIED ANSWERS

202 4/2025 CORRECT

D

All of the following would cause an increased level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood, EXCEPT: A: short exhalation phase. B: reduced tidal volume. C: slow, shallow breathing. D: deep, rapid breathing. The correct answer is C A woman presents with acute shortness of breath. Her breathing appears labored and her skin is pale. You should: A: deliver humidified oxygen and administer an inhaled bronchodilator. B: ensure that her oxygen saturation does not fall below 85 percent. C: administer high-flow oxygen and assess the quality of her breathing. D: place her supine and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. The correct answer is D; Which of the following signs or symptoms is indicative of cerebral hypoxia? A: Diffuse wheezing on exhalation B: Chief complaint of dyspnea C: Heart rate greater than 120 beats/min D: Decreased level of consciousness The correct answer is A; You are assessing a 66-year-old man who has emphysema and complains of worsened shortness of breath. He is confused, has a heart rate of 120 beats/min, and an oxygen saturation of 89%. Which of

the following assessment findings should concern you the MOST? A: Confusion B: Worsened shortness of breath C: Low oxygen saturation D: Tachycardia The correct answer is C; Which of the following is the preferred initial method for providing artificial ventilations to an apneic adult? A: Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device B: Two-person bag-valve-mask technique with 100% oxygen C: Mouth-to-mask technique with supplemental oxygen D: One-person bag-valve-mask technique with 100% oxygen The correct answer is A; Which of the following processes occurs during inhalation? A: The intercostal muscles and diaphragm both contract. B: The diaphragm contracts and the intercostal muscles relax. C: The diaphragm descends and the intercostal muscles relax. D: The intercostal muscles relax and the diaphragm descends. The correct answer is A; Which of the following would MOST likely occur if an adult patient is breathing at a rate of 45 breaths/min with shallow depth? A: Most of his or her inhaled air will not go beyond the anatomic dead space. B: The lungs would become hyperinflated, potentially causing a pneumothorax. C: Alveolar minute volume would increase due to the rapid respiratory rate. D: The volume of air that reaches the alveoli would increase significantly. The correct answer is D;

Occasional, irregular breaths that may be observed in a cardiac arrest patient are called: A: Biot respirations. B: Cheyne-Stokes respirations. C: ataxic respirations. D: agonal gasps. The correct answer is B; During the inhalation phase of breathing: A: the muscles in between the ribs relax, which lifts the ribs up and out. B: pressure within the thorax decreases and air is drawn into the lungs. C: air passively enters the lungs as pressure within the thorax increases. D: the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and ascend. The correct answer is D; You are assessing a 70-year-old male who complains of pain in both of his legs. He is conscious and alert, has a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 14 breaths/min and unlabored. Further assessment reveals edema to both of his feet and legs and jugular venous distention. This patient's primary problem is MOST likely: A: chronic hypertension. B: left heart failure. C: pulmonary edema. D: right heart failure. The correct answer is B; Which of the following is the MOST detrimental effect that tachycardia can have on a patient experiencing a cardiac problem? A: Decreased cardiac functioning B: Increased oxygen demand C: Increased stress and anxiety D: Increased blood pressure The correct answer is C;

While assessing a patient with chest pain, you note that his pulse is irregular. This indicates: A: a dysfunction in the left side of the patient's heart B: acute myocardial infarction or angina pectoris. C: abnormalities in the heart's electrical conduction system. D: high blood pressure that is increasing cardiac workload. The correct answer is A The wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart is called the: A: septum. B: carina. C: mediastinum. D: pericardium. The correct answer is A; While transporting an elderly woman who was complaining of nausea, vomiting, and weakness, she suddenly becomes unresponsive. You should: A: quickly look at her chest for obvious movement. B: feel for a carotid pulse for at least 5 seconds. C: analyze her heart rhythm with the AED. D: open her airway and ensure that it is clear. the correct answer is B; Which of the following types of stroke would MOST likely present with a sudden, severe headache? A: Ischemic B: Hemorrhagic C: Embolic D: Thrombotic The correct answer is A; Despite direct pressure, a large laceration to the medial aspect of the arm continues to bleed profusely. You should:

A: quickly apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury. B: pack the inside of the laceration with sterile gauze. C: locate and apply pressure to the brachial artery. D: continue direct pressure and elevate the extremity. The correct answer is C; A 19-year-old male was assaulted and has trauma to multiple body systems. After performing your primary assessment and treating any immediate life-threatening injuries, you should: A: transport at once and intercept with ALS. B: obtain a full set of baseline vital signs. C: perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment. D: fully immobilize his spine and transport. The correct answer is C; Displaced fractures of the proximal femur are characterized by: A: hip joint extension and external leg rotation. B: lengthening and internal rotation of the leg. C: shortening and external rotation of the leg. D: a flexed hip joint and inward thigh rotation. The correct answer is C; Which of the following assessment parameters is the MOST reliable when determining if a patient with a head injury is improving or deteriorating? A: pupillary reaction. B: rate and depth of breathing. C: level of consciousness. D: systolic blood pressure. The correct answer is C; Which of the following is MOST indicative of compensated shock in an adult?

A: Unresponsive, pallor, absent radial pulses, tachypnea B: Weak carotid pulse, cool skin, increased respiratory rate C: Restless, diaphoresis, tachypnea, BP of 104/64 mm Hg D: Confusion, mottling, tachycardia, BP of 88/60 mm Hg The correct answer is C; (weight (in pounds) ÷ 2.2 = weight in kg) A 16-year-old, 125-pound male ingested a bottle of aspirin approximately 20 minutes ago. Medical control orders you to administer activated charcoal in a dose of 1 g/kg. How much activated charcoal should you administer? A: 60 g B: 51 g C: 57 g D: 54 g The correct answer is B; Hypoxia-induced unresponsiveness during a submersion injury is usually the result of: A: associated hypothermia. B: laryngospasm. C: a cardiac dysrhythmia. D: water in the lungs. The correct answer is D; When insulin levels in the blood remain high: A: the cells starve for glucose and begin to metabolize fat. B: the patient urinates excessively and becomes dehydrated. C: a fruity odor can be detected on the patient's breath. D: glucose is rapidly taken out of the blood to fuel the cells. The correct answer is C;

Which of the following structures is responsible for regulating body temperature? A: Medulla oblongata B: Cerebrum C: Hypothalamus D: Cerebellum The correct answer is A; Immediately following a generalized seizure involving tonic-clonic activity, most patients: A: are unresponsive but gradually regain consciousness. B: return to a normal level of consciousness but cannot recall the event. C: have a slow heart rate because of cardiac depression during the seizure. D: experience prolonged apnea and require positive-pressure ventilations. The correct answer is A; The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle is to: A: form a general impression of the child without touching him or her. B: identify if the child has a medical condition or a traumatic injury. C: determine if the child's problem is respiratory or circulatory in nature. D: detect immediate life threats through a quick hands-on assessment. The correct answer is C; Seizures in children MOST often are the result of: A: an inflammatory process in the brain. B: a life-threatening infection. C: an abrupt rise in body temperature. D: a temperature greater than 102°F. The correct answer is C Following an apparent febrile seizure, a 4-year-old boy is alert and crying. His skin is hot and moist. Appropriate treatment this child includes:

A: rapidly cooling the child in cold water. B: keeping the child warm and providing transport. C: offering oxygen and providing transport. D: allowing the parents to transport the child. The correct answer is D; You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before, but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as: A: gravida 2, para 1. B: gravida 0, para 2. C: gravida 1, para 1. D: gravida 2, para 0. The correct answer is B A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing: A: a hypertensive emergency. B: preeclampsia. C: a condition unrelated to pregnancy. D: gestational diabetes. The correct answer is B The role of triage officer at a mass-casualty incident should be assumed by the: A: EMS provider with the most years in EMS. B: most knowledgeable EMS provider. C: EMS medical director via telephone communication. D: first EMS provider who is willing to perform the task. the correct answer is C

Upon arriving at the scene of an overturned tanker truck, you see a clear liquid leaking from the rear of the tank. The driver is still in the vehicle and you can see that his face is covered with blood. You should: A: approach the rear of the tanker to identify the type of fluid leaking. B: ensure that the ambulance is downwind and downhill from the tanker. C: request fire department assistance if they are not already en route. D: put on gloves, a gown, and a mask and quickly remove the driver. the correct answer is C According to the United States Department of Transportation (USDOT), minimum staffing for a basic life support ambulance includes: A: an EMT who functions as the driver. B: a minimum of two EMTs in the ambulance. C: at least one EMT in the patient compartment. D: at least two EMTs in the patient compartment. The correct answer is A; All of the following are considered key components at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, EXCEPT: A: an on-scene emergency physician. B: an adequately staffed treatment area. C: a supply area near the treatment area. D: an on-site communication system. The correct answer is D Which of the following statements regarding the high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator is correct? A: A HEPA respirator should be placed on any patient with tuberculosis. B: A HEPA respirator is necessary only if the patient with suspected tuberculosis is coughing. C: A surgical mask provides better protection against tuberculosis than a HEPA respirator. D: Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator. The correct answer is C

As soon as you begin transport of a patient to the hospital, you should: A: conduct a detailed examination. B: contact medical control. C: advise dispatch of your status. D: notify the receiving facility. The correct answer is D; The technique of rapid extrication from a vehicle involves: A: grabbing the patient by his or her clothing, protecting his or her spine as much as possible, and dragging him or her from the vehicle. B: applying a cervical collar, grasping the patient by the clothing, and quickly removing him or her onto the stretcher. C: applying a vest-style extrication device, sliding a long backboard under the patient's buttocks, and removing him or her from the vehicle. D: manually stabilizing the head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard. The correct answer is C; Which of the following is considered minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) when suctioning an unresponsive patient's airway? A: Gloves, gown, and eye protection B: Gloves, head cover, and eye protection C: Gloves and full facial protection D: Gloves and a mask The correct answer is C; Hypoxia is defined as: A: an excess amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood. B: decreased oxygen content in arterial blood. C: inadequate oxygen to the body's cells and tissues. D: an absence of oxygen to the vital body organs.

The correct answer is A; The active, muscular part of breathing is called: A: inhalation. B: expiration. C: respiration. D: ventilation. The correct answer is B; Which of the following would MOST likely occur if an adult patient is breathing at a rate of 45 breaths/min with shallow depth? A: The volume of air that reaches the alveoli would increase significantly. B: Most of his or her inhaled air will not go beyond the anatomic dead space. C: The lungs would become hyperinflated, potentially causing a pneumothorax. D: Alveolar minute volume would increase due to the rapid respiratory rate. The Correct answer is B Wheezing is a whistling sound that results from narrowing and/or inflammation of the bronchioles in the lungs and is an indicator of a lower airway disease (ie, asthma, bronchiolitis). Crowing and stridor are both high-pitched sounds that indicate an upper airway disease or obstruction (ie, croup, epiglottitis, foreign body obstruction), and gurgling indicates secretions in the oropharynx. Which of the following airway sounds indicates a lower airway obstruction? A: Stridor B: Wheezing C: Crowing D: Gurgling The correct answer is C A woman presents with acute shortness of breath. Her breathing appears labored and her skin is pale. You should: A: place her supine and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

B: deliver humidified oxygen and administer an inhaled bronchodilator. C: administer high-flow oxygen and assess the quality of her breathing. D: ensure that her oxygen saturation does not fall below 85 percent. The correct answer is A The lower airway begins at the: A: larynx. B: cricoid cartilage. C: epiglottis. D: trachea. The correct answer is D; Prior to your arrival, a woman experiencing an asthma attack took two puffs from her prescribed inhaler without relief. After administering supplemental oxygen, you should: A: administer one more puff from her inhaler. B: provide immediate transport to the hospital. C: perform a detailed secondary assessment. D: contact medical control for further advice. The correct answer is D; Which of the following is the MOST detrimental effect that tachycardia can have on a patient experiencing a cardiac problem? A: Increased blood pressure B: Decreased cardiac functioning C: Increased stress and anxiety D: Increased oxygen demand The correct answer is C; A middle-aged woman took three of her prescribed nitroglycerin tablets after she began experiencing chest pain. She complains of a bad headache and is still experiencing chest pain. You should assume that:

A: her nitroglycerin is no longer potent. B: her blood pressure is elevated. C: she has ongoing cardiac ischemia. D: her chest pain is not cardiac-related. The correct answer is D; In patients with heart disease, acute coronary syndrome is MOST often the result of: A: atrial damage. B: coronary artery spasm. C: coronary artery rupture. D: atherosclerosis. The correct answer is C; Chest compression effectiveness is MOST effectively assessed by: A: listening for a heartbeat with each compression. B: measuring the systolic blood pressure during compressions. C: palpating for a carotid pulse with each compression. D: carefully measuring the depth of each compression. The correct answer is A Sudden cardiac arrest in the adult population MOST often is the result of: A: a cardiac arrhythmia. B: respiratory failure. C: accidental electrocution. D: myocardial infarction. the correct answer is D A 65-year-old man has generalized weakness and chest pressure. He has a bottle of prescribed nitroglycerin, but states that he has not taken any of his medication. As your partner prepares to administer oxygen, you should: A: perform a secondary assessment and obtain baseline vital signs.

B: apply the AED and prepare the patient for immediate transport. C: assist the patient with his nitroglycerin with medical control approval. D: administer up to 325 mg of aspirin if the patient is not allergic to it. the correct answer is A Your partner has applied the AED to a cardiac arrest patient and has received a shock advised message. While the AED is charging, you should: A: continue chest compressions until your partner tells you to stand clear. B: perform rescue breathing only until the AED is charged and ready to shock. C: cease all contact with the patient until the AED has delivered the shock. D: retrieve the airway equipment and prepare to ventilate the patient. The correct answer is D; Which of the following signs would you expect to see in the early stages of shock? A: Thready pulses B: Unconsciousness C: Hypotension D: Restlessness the correct answer is A During which part of your assessment would you MOST likely discover a small caliber gunshot wound to the back with minimal bleeding? A: Rapid head-to-toe assessment B: Detailed secondary assessment C: General impression D: Primary assessment the correct answer is D A patient presents with a swollen, painful deformity to the lateral bone of the left forearm. You should recognize that he has injured his: A: ulna.

B: humerus. C: clavicle. D: radius. the correct answer is D If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 MPH, the unrestrained driver would likely experience the MOST severe injuries during the: A: first collision. B: second collision. C: fourth collision. D: third collision. the correct answer is D When applying a vest-style spinal immobilization device to a patient with traumatic neck pain, you should: A: immobilize the head prior to securing the torso straps. B: gently flex the head forward as you position the device. C: ask the patient to fully exhale as you secure the torso. D: secure the torso section prior to immobilizing the head. the correct answer is B You are at the scene where a man panicked while swimming in a small lake. Your initial attempt to rescue him should include: A: swimming to the victim to rescue him. B: reaching for the victim with a long stick. C: rowing a small raft to the victim. D: throwing a rope to the victim. the correct answer is C A near-drowning is MOST accurately defined as: A: death greater than 24 hours following submersion in water.

B: immediate death due to prolonged submersion in water. C: survival for at least 24 hours following submersion in water. D: complications within 24 hours following submersion in water. The correct answer is A A patient who overdosed on heroin would be expected to present with: A: hypotension. B: hyperpnea. C: tachycardia. D: dilated pupils. the correct answer is B You will know that the third stage of labor has begun when: A: the mother's contractions become regular. B: the entire baby has delivered. C: the placenta has delivered. D: the baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening. the correct answer is A You are treating a 5-year-old child who has had severe diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days and is now showing signs of shock. Supplemental oxygen has been given and you have elevated his lower extremities. En route to the hospital, you note that his work of breathing has increased. You should: A: lower the extremities and reassess the child. B: begin positive-pressure ventilations and reassess the child. C: insert a nasopharyngeal airway and increase the oxygen flow. D: listen to the lungs with a stethoscope for abnormal breath sounds. The correct answer is C; A 29-year-old woman, who is 38 weeks pregnant, presents with heavy vaginal bleeding, a blood pressure of 70/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 130 beats/min. She is pale and diaphoretic, and denies abdominal cramping or pain. Her signs and symptoms are MOST consistent with a/an:

A: ruptured ectopic pregnancy. B: abruptio placenta. C: placenta previa. D: ruptured ovarian cyst. the correct answer is D When is it MOST appropriate to clamp and cut the umbilical cord? A: Before the newborn has taken its first breath B: After the placenta has completely delivered C: Immediately following delivery of the newborn D: As soon as the cord has stopped pulsating The correct answer is B; A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing: A: a hypertensive emergency. B: preeclampsia. C: a condition unrelated to pregnancy. D: gestational diabetes. The correct answer is A; A 6-year-old boy complains of pain to the right lower quadrant of his abdomen. Assessment of this child's abdomen should include: A: palpating the left upper quadrant first. B: avoiding palpation of the abdomen. C: palpating the right lower quadrant first. D: auscultating bowel sounds for 2 minutes. The correct answer is A; The EMT should avoid focusing all of his or her attention on a single critical patient during the triage process because:

A: other patients may die of problems that may have been corrected. B: three EMTs are required to effectively manage a critical patient. C: all of his or her supplies will likely be depleted on that one patient. D: the patient will most likely die before he or she can be transported. The correct answer is A; Which of the following vaccinations is NOT currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? A: Smallpox B: Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis C: Hepatitis B D: Measles, mumps, rubella The correct answer is A; You arrive at the scene of a young male who was stabbed when a burglar broke into his house. Law enforcement officers are present. The patient, who is unresponsive with several stab wounds to the chest, is lying in a narrow space between a couch and coffee table. You should: A: move the coffee table, begin patient care, and notify a police officer. B: obtain permission from law enforcement before moving any furniture. C: treat the patient where he is, without moving the coffee table. D: move the coffee table, document what you did, and begin treatment. The correct answer is B; Which of the following statements BEST describes a mass-casualty incident? A: At least half of the patients are critically injured. B: The number of patients overwhelms your resources. C: More than three vehicles are involved in the incident. D: More than five patients are involved. The correct answer is C;

You receive a call at 3:00 a.m. for a patient who is slumped over the steering wheel of his car, which is parked on the shoulder of the road. Your unit and a police officer arrive at the scene at the same time. You should: A: shine a spotlight in the side view mirror of the patient's vehicle. B: approach the vehicle from the front to ensure maximum visibility. C: stay in your unit until the police officer checks the patient. D: park the ambulance 25 feet in front of the patient's vehicle. The correct answer is A; Which of the following situations would necessitate treatment using implied consent? A: A 65-year-old man who is confused and suspected of having a severe stroke B: A 25-year-old man who is restless and has severe chest pain and diaphoresis C: A 17-year-old pregnant woman with an isolated extremity injury D: An 18-year-old man who is now fully alert after receiving oral glucose the correct answer is C A patient presents with severe bradycardia, hypersalivation, vomiting, and excessive tearing. Which of the following agents would MOST likely cause his signs and symptoms? A: Phosgene B: Anthrax C: Soman D: Chlorine The correct answer is B; A patient with a mild foreign body airway obstruction: A: has progressive difficulty breathing. B: is typically not cyanotic. C: has a low oxygen saturation. D: presents with a weak cough. The correct answer is D;

Question 3 of 20Exit Exam Which of the following is the preferred initial method for providing artificial ventilations to an apneic adult? A: Two-person bag-valve-mask technique with 100% oxygen B: Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device C: One-person bag-valve-mask technique with 100% oxygen D: Mouth-to-mask technique with supplemental oxygen The correct answer is A; Tidal volume is defined as the: A: volume of air inhaled or exhaled per breath. B: total volume of air that the lungs are capable of holding. C: volume of air moved in and out of the lungs each minute. D: volume of air that remains in the upper airway. the correct answer is A An elderly man is found lying unresponsive next to his bed. The patient's wife did not witness the events that led to his unresponsiveness. You should: A: grasp the angles of the lower jaw and lift. B: assess the patient's respirations. C: apply 100% supplemental oxygen. D: tilt the head back and lift up the chin. the correct answer is A The respiratory system functions by: A: bringing oxygen into the lungs and eliminating carbon dioxide. B: removing carbon dioxide from the cells and returning it to the lungs. C: sending messages to the diaphragm that cause it to contract. D: ensuring that adequate oxygen is delivered to the body's tissues. the correct answer is A

Medications such as albuterol (Ventolin) relieve respiratory distress by: A: relaxing the smooth muscle of the bronchioles. B: dilating the large mainstem bronchi of the airway. C: constricting the bronchioles in the lungs. D: contracting the smaller airways in the lungs. the correct answer is C You are performing abdominal thrusts on a 19-year-old male with a severe airway obstruction when he becomes unresponsive. After lowering him to the ground and placing him in a supine position, you should: A: open his airway and look inside his mouth. B: assess for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds. C: begin CPR, starting with chest compressions. D: continue abdominal thrusts until ALS arrives. the correct answer is A Which of the following devices is contraindicated in patients with blunt chest trauma? A: Oxygen-powered ventilator B: Nasal airway C: Oral airway D: Bag-mask device the correct answer is C Which of the following ventilation techniques will enable you to provide the greatest tidal volume AND allow you to effectively assess lung compliance? A: Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation B: One-rescuer bag-mask ventilation C: One-rescuer mouth-to-mask ventilation D: One-rescuer demand valve ventilation the correct answer is C

The middle, muscular layer of the heart is called the: A: endocardium. B: epicardium. C: myocardium. D: pericardium. the correct answer is D A patient reports pain in the upper midabdominal area. This region of the abdomen is called the: A: retroperitoneum. B: mediastinum. C: peritoneum. D: epigastrium. the correct answer is C During your assessment of a 70-year-old man with crushing chest pain, you note that his blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. Your MOST important action should be to: A: give high-flow oxygen. B: assess his oxygen saturation. C: transport without delay. D: keep the patient warm. the Correct answer is C one half of the trunk, would account for 9% of the TBSA, and both anterior arms (4.5% each) A 30-year-old man sustained partial-thickness burns to the anterior chest and both anterior arms. Based on the Rule of Nines, what percentage of his body surface area has been burned? A: 27% B: 36% C: 18% D: 9%

the correct answer is C Hyphema- is a pooling or collection of blood inside the anterior chamber of the eye During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt facial trauma, you note the presence of a hyphema. This indicates: A: a fracture of the nasal bone. B: that the pupils are unequal. C: direct trauma to the eyeball. D: an orbital blowout fracture. the correct answer is D Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of a fracture to a spinal vertebra? A: Decreased movement on one side of the body B: Lack of pain at the site of the injury C: Decreased grip strength in the upper extremities D: Palpable pain at the site of the injury the correct answer is B Following blunt trauma to the chest, a 33-year-old male has shallow, painful breathing. On assessment, you note that an area to the left side of his chest collapses during inhalation and bulges during exhalation. These are signs of a/an: A: pulmonary contusion. B: flail chest. C: isolated rib fracture. D: pneumothorax. the correct answer is D A 21-year-old man partially amputated his right arm when the chainsaw he was using to trim trees slipped. You can feel a weak radial pulse and his arm is cool to the touch. Dark red blood is flowing heavily from the wound. You should:

A: control the bleeding, manipulate the arm to improve circulation, and apply a splint. B: carefully pack sterile dressings into the wound and fully splint the extremity. C: apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury and tighten it until the bleeding stops. D: apply bulky compression dressings to the wound and splint the extremity. the correct answer is D During which part of your assessment would you MOST likely discover a small caliber gunshot wound to the back with minimal bleeding? A: Detailed secondary assessment B: General impression C: Primary assessment D: Rapid head-to-toe assessment the correct answer is A A 22-year-old female fell on her knee and is in severe pain. Her knee is flexed and severely deformed. Her leg is cold to the touch and you are unable to palpate a distal pulse. You should: A: manually stabilize her injury and contact medical control for further stabilization instructions. B: apply gentle longitudinal traction as you straighten her leg and then apply a traction splint. C: place a pillow behind her knee and stabilize the injury by applying padded board splints. D: carefully straighten her leg until you restore a distal pulse and then apply padded board splints. the correct answer is A A 44-year-old woman was bitten on the ankle by an unidentified snake while working in her garden. She is conscious and alert, has stable vital signs, and denies shortness of breath. Her only complaint is a burning sensation at the wound site. Your assessment reveals two small puncture wounds, redness, and swelling. You should: A: give supplemental oxygen, splint her leg to decrease movement, and keep her leg below the level of her heart. B: elevate her leg, cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing, and apply an ice pack to reduce pain and swelling. C: administer high-flow oxygen, apply a constricting band proximal to the bite, and use ice to prevent venom spread.

D: conclude that envenomation likely did not occur, provide reassurance, and allow a friend to take her to the hospital. the correct answer is D Hemotysis- spitting up blood or blood tinged sputum form the respiratory tract All of the following are signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, EXCEPT: A: tachycardia. B: melena. C: hematemesis. D: hemoptysis. the correct answer is D When assessing a 30-year-old female who was sexually assaulted, it is MOST important for you to: A: have a female EMT perform the assessment. B: discourage her from showering or changing clothes. C: recognize that the patient is a walking crime scene. D: ensure that all life-threatening injuries are treated. the correct answer is B After the baby's head delivers, it is usually tilted: A: with the face up. B: posteriorly, to one side. C: posteriorly, face down. D: anteriorly, with the chin up. the correct answer is C Of the following, the MOST detrimental effect of gastric distention in infants and children is: A: acute rupture of the diaphragm. B: less effective chest compressions.