Jeppesen Private Pilot Test Guide Questions & Answers, Exams of Engineering

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Jeppesen Private Pilot Test Guide

Questions & Answers

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft? - ANSWER Airplane, rotocraft, glider, lighter-than-air. With respect to certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft? - ANSWER Single- engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft? - ANSWER Normal, utility, acrobatic. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft? - ANSWER Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. A third-class medical certificate is issued to a 36-year old pilot in August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges and of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on - ANSWER August 31, 5 years later A third-class medical certificate is issued to a 51-year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on - ANSWER May 31, 2 years later For private pilot operations, a second-class medical certificate issued to a 42 year-old pilot on July 15, 2018, will expire at midnight on - ANSWER July 31, 2020. You were 40 years old when you obtained a second-class medical certificate on March 15, 2018. For exercising private pilot privileges, when does your medical certificate expire? - ANSWER March 31, 2020 For private pilot operations, a first-class medical certificate is issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on - ANSWER October 31, 5-years later. A third-class medical certificate is issued to a 19-year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on - ANSWER August 31, 5-years later. The FAA BasicMed rule allows pilots to operate small aircraft on certain personal flights

• ANSWER using a driver's license instead of a medical certificate.

Under the BasicMed rule, what flight operations may you conduct using a driver's license instead of a medical certificate? - ANSWER You may operate an aircraft below 18,000 feet MSL at a maximum airspeed of 250 knots. What requirements must you meet to utilize the BasicMed rule? - ANSWER You must have completed an approved medical education course within the previous 24 calendar months and a comprehensive medical exam from a physician within the previous 48 months. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding - ANSWER 24 calendar months. If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and offical sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is - ANSWER 1929 Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding - ANSWER 90 days To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must have made 3 takeoffs and 3 landing within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same - ANSWER category, class and type, if a type rating is required. The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane - ANSWER must be to a full stop. The 3 takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from - ANSWER one hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise. The definition of nighttime is - ANSWER the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in - ANSWER the same category and class of aircraft to be used. If a private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? - ANSWER August 31, two years later. Each private pilot is required to have - ANSWER a biennial flight review. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may - ANSWER not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees.

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - ANSWER 1359.6 hours A 100-hour inspection was due at 3303 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3300 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - ANSWER 3400 hours A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - ANSWER 3402. hours Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection is due no later than - ANSWER September 30, 2016 Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? - ANSWER The pilot in command. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the - ANSWER owner or operator. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the - ANSWER owner or operator. Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service? - ANSWER Owner or operator. During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight? - ANSWER The pilot in command. How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

• ANSWER Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot before each flight? - ANSWER Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? - ANSWER When the ELT has been in use for more than one cumulative hour. When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? - ANSWER When 50% of their useful life expires. You discover inoperative equipment on an airplane that you are planning to fly. Under what conditions can you complete the flight under VFR? - ANSWER The equipment is

not required by FAR 91.205, an equipment list or KOEL, the VFR-day type certificate requirements, or an AD. Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive? - ANSWER Aircraft maintenance records What should an owner or operator know about airworthiness directives (ADs)? - ANSWER They are mandatory. May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive (AD)? - ANSWER Yes, if allowed by the AD. Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance? - ANSWER Replenishing hydraulic fluid. Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required? - ANSWER The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records. What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance? - ANSWER 14 CFR 43.7. Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? - ANSWER Private or commercial pilot. Who is responsible for ensuring that airworthiness directives (ADs) are complied with? - ANSWER Owner or operator. Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by - ANSWER an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records. Excessively high engine temperature will - ANSWER cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with - ANSWER too much power and with the mixture set too lean. One purpose of the dual-ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for - ANSWER improved engine performance. Float-type carburetors operate based on - ANSWER the difference in pressure at the

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? - ANSWER If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight. The pilot in command is required to hold a type of rating in which aircraft? - ANSWER Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. What is the definition of a high performance airplane? - ANSWER An airplane with an engine of more than 200hp. Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high- performance airplane, that person must have - ANSWER received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook. What is the definition of a complex airplane? - ANSWER An airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps and a controllable-pitch propeller or FADEC In order to act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, you must - ANSWER receive and log ground and flight instruction in a complex airplane. Where can the operating limitations for an aircraft be found? - ANSWER In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof. Which of the following are required to be carried in the aircraft during flight? - ANSWER FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual (AFM). An annual inspection was performed on an aircraft June 13, 2018. When is the next annual inspection due? - ANSWER June 30, 2019 How long does an airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid? - ANSWER As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the Federal Aviation Regulations. In addition to a validated airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? - ANSWER Operating limitations and registration certificate To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, you should refer to the - ANSWER aircraft maintenance records What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? - ANSWER Annual and 100 hour inspections venturi throat and the air inlet

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to - ANSWER decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. During the runup at a high-elevation airport a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check, but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, which of the following would be the most logical initial action? - ANSWER Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture? - ANSWER The fuel/air mixture can become excessively lean. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing? - ANSWER Temperature between 20°F and 70°F and high humidity. The risk of carburetor ice is - ANSWER high when the ambient temperature is between 20°F and 70°F and the relative humidity is high. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be - ANSWER loss of RPM. Applying carburetor heat will - ANSWER enrich the fuel/air mixture What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied? - ANSWER The fuel/air mixture becomes richer Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to - ANSWER decrease engine performance. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting - ANSWER a decrease in RPM then a gradual increase in RPM. With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be - ANSWER more susceptible to icing. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause - ANSWER detonation. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when - ANSWER the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally Detonation may occur at high-power settings as - ANSWER the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.

Which preflight checks should you make on an airplane with full-authority digital engine control (FADEC)? - ANSWER Verify proper operation of both ECUs as well as their back-up power sources. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine? - ANSWER Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges. If it becomes necessary to hand-prop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot - ANSWER be at the controls in the cockpit. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the - ANSWER fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? - ANSWER V/A Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed? - ANSWER V/FE Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? - ANSWER V/LE V/NO is defined as the - ANSWER maximum structural cruising speed. V/SO is defined as the - ANSWER Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? - ANSWER The elevation of the departure area. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to - ANSWER The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation. If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected? - ANSWER The altimeter, airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged? - ANSWER Airspeed Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged? - ANSWER Altimeter, airspeed and vertical speed. Altimeter 1 in Figure 3 indicates - ANSWER 10, Altimeter 2 in Figure 3 indicates - ANSWER 14,500 feet Altimeter 3 in Figure 3 indicates - ANSWER 9,500 feet

Which altimeter(s) in Figure 3 indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet? - ANSWER 1 and 2 only Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates - ANSWER true altitude at field elevation How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter? - ANSWER Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude. What is true altitude? - ANSWER The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. What is absolute altitude? - ANSWER The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface. What is density altitude? - ANSWER The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. What is pressure altitude? - ANSWER The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude. - ANSWER When at sea level under standard conditions. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs? - ANSWER A 700 foot increase in indicated altitude. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument? - ANSWER Airspeed indicator. As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will - ANSWER remain the same regardless of altitude. What does the red line of an airspeed indicator represent? - ANSWER Never exceed speed. What is the full flap operating range for the airplane in Figure 4? - ANSWER 55 to 100 knots. What is the caution range of the airplane in Figure 4? - ANSWER 165 to 208 knots. The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air in Figure 4 is?

• ANSWER 208 knots. Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed in Figure 4? - ANSWER The red redial line.

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration in Figure 4? - ANSWER Lower limit of the green arc. What is the maximum flaps-extended speed in Figure 4? - ANSWER 100 knots. Which color identifies the normal flap operating range in Figure 4? - ANSWER The white arc. Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration in Figure 4? - ANSWER Lower limit of the white arc. What is the maximum structural cruising speed in Figure 4? - ANSWER 165 knots. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators? - ANSWER Maneuvering speed. A turn coordinator provides an indication of the - ANSWER movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes. The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the

• ANSWER miniature airplane to the horizontal bar. How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated in Figure 7? - ANSWER By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B). The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is - ANSWER magnetic variation. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the - ANSWER magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if - ANSWER a right turn is entered from a north heading. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if - ANSWER a left turn is entered from a north heading. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if - ANSWER an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading. In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when - ANSWER the aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading. In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic You suspect that your engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climbout

after takeoff. Your initial corrective action would be to - ANSWER lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air change in advance of normal spark ignition is known as - ANSWER preignition. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges? - ANSWER Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available? - ANSWER The next higher octane aviation gas. Filling the fuel tank after the last flight of the day is considered good operating procedure because this will - ANSWER prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on - ANSWER the circulation of lubricating oil. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by - ANSWER the oil level being too low. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb? - ANSWER Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating? - ANSWER Enrichen the fuel mixture. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller? - ANSWER The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM. Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will - ANSWER cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller? - ANSWER Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to? - ANSWER avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM. compass will normally indicate - ANSWER correctly when on a north or south heading.

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate? - ANSWER Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere. - ANSWER The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by. - ANSWER certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if - ANSWER an aircraft is accelerated on an east or west heading. If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is - ANSWER higher than pressure altitude. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level. - ANSWER 15 degrees C and 29.92 inches Hg. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication? - ANSWER Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude? - ANSWER When standard atmospheric conditions exist. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same level. - ANSWER At standard temperature. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate - ANSWER lower than the actual altitude above sea level. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate - ANSWER higher than the actual altitude above sea level. Under what conditions will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude? - ANSWER In colder than standard air temperature. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude that true altitude?

• ANSWER Air temperature warmer than standard. Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport? - ANSWER An increase in ambient temperature.

If the AHRS detects a problem with the integrity of the sensor information for the instruments on a PFD, what occurs? - ANSWER A red X is placed over the display of the affected instrument (attitude indicator or HSI). You are flying an airplane with an integrated digital flight display and the PFD screen fails. What is a back-up option for the PFD instruments? - ANSWER Display the PFD instruments on the MFD screen. How do you perform a standard-rate turn in an airplane with digital instruments on a PFD? - ANSWER Monitor the trend vector on the HSI and adjust the angle of bank as needed. Which digital flight instruments are related to the air data computer (ADC)? - ANSWER Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and VSI. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are - ANSWER lift, weight, thrust and drag. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium? - ANSWER During unaccelerated flight. The acute angle A in Figure 1 is the angle of? - ANSWER attack. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle between the - ANSWER chord of the wing and the relative wind. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of - ANSWER attack. What is the relationship between lift, drag, thrust and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight? - ANSWER Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. One of the main functions of the flaps during approach and landing is to - ANSWER increase the angle of decent without increasing the airspeed. What is one purpose of wing flaps? - ANSWER To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls - ANSWER Remains the same regardless of gross weight. What is ground effect? - ANSWER The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.

If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude in Figure 2? - ANSWER 4,600 pounds. If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude? - ANSWER 3,800 pounds. If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45 degree bank turn while maintaining altitude? - ANSWER 6,400 pounds. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the - ANSWER speed of the airplane. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight? - ANSWER Turns. What force makes an airplane turn? - ANSWER The horizontal component of lift. During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor causes the airplane to - ANSWER Stall at a higher airspeed. What are the four flight fundamentals that are involved in maneuvering and aircraft? - ANSWER Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? - ANSWER An aircraft in distress. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head- on? - ANSWER The aircraft on the left shall give way. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? - ANSWER Glider An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is to the left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way? - ANSWER The airship. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? - ANSWER Aircraft towing other aircraft. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? - ANSWER Both pilots should give way to the right. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft - ANSWER at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? - ANSWER An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? - ANSWER An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? - ANSWER An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? - ANSWER 500 feet. When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used? - ANSWER Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds? - ANSWER Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high wing airplane? - ANSWER Quartering tailwind. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind in Figure 9, area A? - ANSWER Left aileron up, elevator neutral. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind in Figure 9, area B? - ANSWER Right aileron up, elevator up. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind in Figure 9, area C? - ANSWER Left aileron down, elevator down. Before starting each maneuver, pilots should - ANSWER visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. Your instructor has demonstrated a maneuver and wants you to try it. What steps should you complete to assume control of the airplane? - ANSWER After your instructor says, "you have the flight controls," say, "I have the flight controls," and watch for your instructor to confirm again, "you have the flight controls."

What collision avoidance procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway? - ANSWER Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace. Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should - ANSWER not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second. Which technique should you use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight- and-level flight? - ANSWER Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. What is an effective way to scan for traffic in front of your airplane during climb? - ANSWER Lower the nose periodically and clear the area, and then transition to cruise climb when altitude permits. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? - ANSWER No relative motion is apparent between your aircraft and the other aircraft. Most midair collision accidents occur during - ANSWER clear days. The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating - ANSWER in conditions of reduced visibility. What is the appropriate way to use a cockpit display of traffic information (CDTI) to avoid a collision? - ANSWER Continuously scan for traffic by looking outside and cross check the CDTI to learn what areas need increased attention. When executing an emergency approach to land in a single engine airplane, it is important to maintain a consistent glide speed because variations in a glide speed will - ANSWER nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot. Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at an uncontrolled airport? - ANSWER Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport. While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall - ANSWER maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall - ANSWER maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? - ANSWER Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at - ANSWER less than the length of the wingspan above the surface. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect? - ANSWER Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating. Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem? - ANSWER Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed. Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle? - ANSWER Air traveling faster over the curve upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's - ANSWER aerodynamic balance and controllability. An airplane said to be inherently stable will - ANSWER requires less effort to control. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane? - ANSWER The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift. What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nose down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted? - ANSWER The downwash on the elevator from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be - ANSWER difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition. Loading an airplane to the most aft CG causes the airplane to be - ANSWER less stable at all speeds. In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin? - ANSWER Stalled. During a spin to the left, which wings are stalled? - ANSWER Both wings are stalled. In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?

• ANSWER Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the - ANSWER propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left? - ANSWER When at high angles of attack.

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by - ANSWER blue omnidirectional lights. A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is - ANSWER three white lights and one red light. A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a - ANSWER pulsating red light. Illustration A in Figure 47 indicates that the aircraft is - ANSWER on the glide slope. VASI lights as shown by illustration C in Figure 47 indicate that the airplane is - ANSWER above the glide slope. While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D in Figure 47. This means that the aircraft is - ANSWER below the glide path. To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it - ANSWER five times within five seconds. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates - ANSWER that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. You can identify a military air station by a rotating beacon that emits - ANSWER two quick white flashes between each green flash. How can a military airport be identified at night? - ANSWER Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between each green flash. The portion of the runway identified in Figure 48 by the letter A may be used for - ANSWER taxiing and takeoff. The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates - ANSWER runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or taxiway that precedes the runway. This sign is Figure 65, Item E is a visible clue that - ANSWER confirms that the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B". This sign in Figure 65, Item F confirms your position on - ANSWER runway 22. From the cockpit this marking in Figure 65, Item G confirms the aircraft to be - ANSWER on a runway, about to clear.

According to the airport diagram in Figure 48, which statement is true? - ANSWER Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted in Figure 48?

• ANSWER "A" may be used for taxiing and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun. Area C on the airport depicted in Figure 48 is a - ANSWER closed runway. Which marking indicates a vehicle lane in Figure 64? - ANSWER C. The arrows in Figure 49 that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area - ANSWER Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately - ANSWER 90 and 270 degrees magnetic. Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing in Figure 49. - ANSWER Right hand traffic and runway 18. If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator in Figure 49, the pilot should land on - ANSWER Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right. The segmented circle in Figure 50 indicates that the airport traffic is - ANSWER Left hand for Runway 36 and right hand for Runway 18. The traffic pattern indicated in the segmented circle in Figure 50 have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the - ANSWER southeast of the airport. The segmented circle in Figure 50 indicates that a landing on Runway 26 is with a - ANSWER right quartering headwind. Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle in Figure 50? - ANSWER Left-hand traffic on Runway 36. How can you tell whether your destination airport uses land and hold short operations (LAHSO)? - ANSWER LAHSO information published in the Airport/Facility Directory listing in the Chart Supplement. Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? - ANSWER Pilot in command. When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? - ANSWER When it compromises safety.

Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)? - ANSWER Airport/Facility Directory listings in the Chart Supplement What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? - ANSWER 3 statute miles At a towered airport, when approaching a taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, you - ANSWER should not cross the lines without an ATC clearance. The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately - ANSWER 80 and 260 degrees magnetic. The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is - ANSWER 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? - ANSWER Denotes intersecting runways. What does the outbound destination sign identify? - ANSWER Identifies direction to take-off runways Pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff, especially when - ANSWER departing from a runway intersection. You observe someone breaking into an airplane. What should you do? - ANSWER Call 911 and then call 866-GA SECURE. Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport in Figure

20. • ANSWER 36°24'N - 76°01'W Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'30"N latitude and 101°01'30"W longitude in Figure 21? - ANSWER Washburn. Which airport is located at approximately 41°02'00"N latitude and 83°59'00"W longitude in Figure 59? - ANSWER Putnam. The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport in Figure 21 is? - ANSWER 122. MHz The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Wyondat County Airport (56D) in Figure 59 is? - ANSWER 122.9 MHz

At Coeur D'Alene in Figure 22, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions? - ANSWER 122. MHz At Coeur D'Alene in Figure 22, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? - ANSWER 122.8 MHz What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel in Figure 22? - ANSWER 122.8 MHz What is the correct frequency to be used to contact Toledo Approach in Figure 59 if approaching the Toledo Express Class C airspace from the east? - ANSWER 126. MHz If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic in Figure 25? - ANSWER 127.25 MHz The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport in Figure 26 is - ANSWER 123. MHz What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport in Figure 26? - ANSWER 122.8 MHz When flying over Arrowhead National Wildlife Refuge in Figure 26, a pilot should fly no lower than - ANSWER 2,000 feet AGL. Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than - ANSWER 2,000 feet AGL On what frequency can a pilot receive hazardous in-flight weather advisory services (HIWAS) near area 1 in Figure 21? - ANSWER The Minot VOR frequency. The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft in Figure 20? - ANSWER Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL. The flag symbol in Figure 20 at Lake Drummond represents a - ANSWER Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control. The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport in Figure 20 is - ANSWER 19 feet. The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport in Figure 20 is in what type of airspace? - ANSWER Class E The terrain elevation in Figure 21 of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from - ANSWER 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least - ANSWER 1,000 feet and 3 miles. At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

• ANSWER Above 18,000 feet MSL. A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts which class airspace? - ANSWER Class D. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only - ANSWER when the associated control tower is in operation. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with air traffic control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports - ANSWER regardless of weather conditions. Two-way radio communications must be established with the air traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the area before entering which class airspace? - ANSWER Class C. What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? - ANSWER Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? - ANSWER Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
• ANSWER Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code or Mode S transponder, and an encoding altimeter. An operable 4096-code or Mode S transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace? - ANSWER Class B airspace within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport. All operations within Class C airspace must be in - ANSWER an aircraft equipped with a Mode A or Mode S transponder with Mode C altitude encoding capability. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 fee AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is - ANSWER 200 knots. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? - ANSWER 250 knots.

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is - ANSWER 200 knots When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is - ANSWER 200 knots You are in the uncongested area about 7 NM SW of Corpus Christi International Airport in Figure 69, and unable to reach Corpus Christi Approach because of radio congestion. What altitude or course should you use to avoid the tall TV towers in this area? - ANSWER Remain under the floor of Class C airspace and maintain a safe lateral distance from all the TV towers. In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? - ANSWER Class A During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is - ANSWER 2,000 feet What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? - ANSWER 1-mile visibility and clear of clouds What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA airport during the day in Figure 78? - ANSWER 1-mile visibility and clear of clouds How can you learn the time and location of TFRs? - ANSWER Obtain a weather briefing from Flight Service and ask for TFRs. You are flying VFR and not talking to ATC and observe a military jet fighter off your left wingtip rocking its wings and then making a slow left turn away from you. What actions should you take? - ANSWER Follow the aircraft, squawk 7700, and contact the VHF guard frequency on 121.5 MHz. What must you do before flying anywhere within 60 miles of the Washington (DCA) VOR? - ANSWER Take special awareness training from the FAA and have a certificate of completion in your possession. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? - ANSWER 3-miles visibility, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is - ANSWER 1,000 feet

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of - ANSWER 3-miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is - ANSWER 3 miles During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR is - ANSWER 1 mile During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is - ANSWER 500 feet. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is - ANSWER 5 miles For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is - ANSWER 1 mile During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is - ANSWER 1,000 feet No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the - ANSWER ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are - ANSWER 1,000 foot ceiling and 3-miles visibility. A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is - ANSWER at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace? - ANSWER 1-mile flight visibility. What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? - ANSWER The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the - ANSWER airplane is equipped for instrument flight.

An operable 4096-code or Mode S transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace? - ANSWER Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C. With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with - ANSWER an operable transponder The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field in Figure 25 is - ANSWER 4,000 feet MSL The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport in Figure 25 is - ANSWER 3,000 feet MSL What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B in Figure 20? - ANSWER Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA in Figure 21? - ANSWER Military training activities that require acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644 in Figure 21? - ANSWER IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds more than 250 knots. The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport in Figure 22 at 1,200 feet AGL are - ANSWER 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown in Figure 26 between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are - ANSWER 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. Identify the airspace over the town of McHenry in Figure 26. - ANSWER Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport in Figure 26 is - ANSWER Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL. The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham in Figure 25 is - ANSWER Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL. What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace in Figure 23 at the shelf area (outer

Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel in Figure 21? - ANSWER Minot Intl. The flag symbols in Figure 23 at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are - ANSWER visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup before entering Savannah Class C airspace What is the elevation of the obstacle with strobe lights that is approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International in Figure 23? - ANSWER 1,548 feet MSL. The top of the group of obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial in Figure 23 is - ANSWER 454 feet MSL. What minimum altitude is required to vertically clear the obstacle in the uncongested area on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport in Figure 24? - ANSWER 1,273 feet MSL. What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet in Figure 24? - ANSWER 1,403 feet MSL The control tower frequency for Addison Airport in Figure 25 is - ANSWER 126.0 MHz. What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area east of Joe Pool Lake in Figure 25? - ANSWER 3,549 feet MSL. The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft Worth International (DFW) in Figure 25 is a - ANSWER VOR/DME Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts? - ANSWER Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue. Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? - ANSWER Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown in Figure 26, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are - ANSWER 1 mile and clear of clouds. Unless otherwise specified, Federal airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from - ANSWER 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. The width of a Federal airway from either side of the centerline is - ANSWER 4 nautical miles.