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Jeppesen Test A Questions with 100%

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For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21, this year will expire at midnight on... - ✔✔October 31, 5 years later A first class medical for under 40 is good for 12months. From the start of the 13 month till 60months, it is good for operations only requiring 3rd class medical (PP) Normal VFR conditions exists in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and vis to be at least - ✔✔1000 feet and 3 miles In order to operate in class D Airspace, VFR vis min is 3 miles, ceiling must be at least 1,000 feet To act as pilot in command, of an aircraft carrying passengers, pilot must have made three takeoffs and landings in an aircraft of the same - ✔✔category, class, type, if a type rating is required Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E Airspace extending upward from - ✔✔1,200 ft AGL above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL What is the definition of a high performance plane - ✔✔Airplane with over 200 hp A complex airplane has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable propeller. Cruise speed is not used to determine wether an airplane is high performance When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

• ✔✔When 50 percent of their useful life expires (or after 1 hour of continuous use) When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is - ✔✔200 knots No person in VFR corridor through or below class B may travel more than 200 knots

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? glider, airship, refueling - ✔✔Glider (out of glider, airship, refueling) in general, the least maneuverable aircraft normally has the right of way. Glider has the right of way over an airship, airplane or rotorcraft. An aircraft that is refueling another has the right of way over all other engine driven aircraft but not a glider Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? Aircraft towing, airship, gyroplane - ✔✔Aircraft towing Aircraft towing or refueling has right of way over all other types of engine driven aircraft Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with? - ✔✔Owner or operator In compliance with 14 CFR Part 39 (ADs) With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? - ✔✔The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff and landing (and shoulder if installed) PIC must ensure that each person is briefed Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? - ✔✔An in flight fire What minimum radio equipment is required to land an takeoff at Norfolk International? (class C airspace), solid magenta line - ✔✔Transponder with Mode C capability, two way radio, and ADS-B Out To operate in class C airspace, you must maintain two-way radio communication with the controlling facility and your aircraft must be equipped with a transponder with Mode C capability and ADS-B Out equipment What is the estimated time enroute for a flight from Aleendale County Airport to Claxton Evans? The wind is 100 degrees at 18 kts and the true airspeed is 115 kts. Add 2 mins for climb out. - ✔✔30 minutes

39 minutes from Claxton to Harnville on other question format The navigation facility in Dallas FT. Worth is a - ✔✔VOR/DME A hexagon surrounded by a square is a VOR/DME VOR is just a hexagon VORTAC is hexagon with alternating bold edges The airspace overlying McKinney is controlled from the surface to - ✔✔2,900 feet MSL The controlled airspace is a Class D airspace (dashed blue) top of airspace in in blue dashed box in hundreds of feet The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 ft AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are - ✔✔3 miles and 1,000 ft above, 500 below, 2,000 ft horizontal from clouds Class E airspace (magenta faded) has floor of 700 ft AGL. Vis of 3 miles, and above cloud restrictions are required for VFR flight below 10,000 in Class E At Coeur D'Alene, which freq should be used as Common Traffic Advisory Frequency to self-announce position and intentions? - ✔✔122.8 as listed in the airport data block How many GPS satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution? - ✔✔ 4 to yield 3 dimensions and time solution How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)? - ✔✔ 24 arranged so a minimum of 5 are viewable from anywhere The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is - ✔✔Magnetic variation You can determine magnetic variation by referencing isogonic lines, dashed magenta lines

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should - ✔✔add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle East is least, West is best L is minus, R is plus When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state - ✔✔The intended route of the flight and destination Briefer is able to better tailor the info if the route, destination and aircraft type are known. Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure alt 1,250 ft, headwind, 8 its, temp standard - ✔✔366 ft With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component? - ✔✔Runway 14 is most appropriate Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as - ✔✔safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft "Basic radar services for VFR provides safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring. Unlike Class B and Class C service, basic service is not mandatory for VFR aircraft. Wind shear warning is NOT part of basic. Note: terminology is now BASIC, TRSA, Class C, and Class B FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to ATC and General operations are issued under which subject number? - ✔✔ 90 FAA Circulars relating to airmen are issued under no. 60 FAA advisory circulars relating to airspace are under number...? - ✔✔ 70 Airmen - 60 ATC and General Operations - 90 How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? - ✔✔outward, upward, and around each tip

wake turbulence vortices are a by-product of lift. They move outward, upward around each wingtip. Arrows appearing on the end of runways (lots of 'em) mean what? - ✔✔the area cannot be used for landing, but can be used for taxiing and takeoff. at many airports, the area prior to a displaced threshold may be used for taxi and takeoff (and rollout after landing). The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is - ✔✔Heavy, clean and slow have aircraft in a clean configuration, flying at low airspeeds with high angles of attack, generate the strongest vortices The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately - ✔✔080 and 260 magnetic direction Runway numbers indicate runway's MAGNETIC heading to the nearest 10 degrees What should be the first action after starting an aircraft? - ✔✔Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges Immediately after starting an engine, set the proper RPM and check engine gauges for proper indications When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft - ✔✔above and upwind from the heavy aircraft Wake turbulence tends to sink and drift downwind, so stay above and upwind The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use - ✔✔a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector Eyes are only able to focus on a small area, this method most effective. At night - off center viewing 500 pound box - ✔✔WxL=W2xL Weight shift formula

Weight moved/weight of plane=Distance CG move/distance between arms What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25F to 50F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000? - ✔✔1,650 foot increase on pressure on density altitude chart Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97 - ✔✔First you must find the conversion factor for 29.97 (29.92-29.97x1000= - 50) Subtract 50 from 1, feet to find 1,336 feet. closest answer is 1, Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's - ✔✔aerodynamic balance and controllability "A wing's center of pressure moves forward and back with changing angles of attack (forward for high angles and back for lower). This movement changes the position of the air loads on the wing, which results in changes to an airplanes aerodynamic balance and controllability." How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated? - ✔✔By the relationship between the miniature airplane and the deflected horizon bar. (as the airplane banks, the relationship between the miniature airplane and the horizon bar depict the direction of the turn. If an aircraft equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be - ✔✔loss of rpm icing restricts airflow, which would cause an enriched mixture and loss of rpm In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the west if - ✔✔A right turn is entered from a north heading "When turning from a northerly heading, the compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction" The operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the - ✔✔difference in air pressure at the venturi throat at the air inlet "Decreased pressure caused by air flowing rapidly through the venturi tube draws fuel from the float chamber"

The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the - ✔✔miniature airplane to the horizon bar "The miniature airplane is adjustable and should be set to match the flight level indication of the horizon bar" What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators? - ✔✔maneuvering speed can be found in POH What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90F and 1,250ft PA to 55F and 1,750ft PA? - ✔✔1,700ft decrease While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture? - ✔✔The fuel air mixture will become excessively lean "With a decrease in altitude, air density increases. This means you have to enrich the mixture as you descend, otherwise the fuel/air mixture can become excessively lean." If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30 degree banked turn? - ✔✔3, 3,300 x1. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled? - ✔✔Both wings are stalled In a spin, both wings are stalled Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart. - ✔✔Mod turbulence surface up to 18,000 feet Using the key, 12 hour side over Utah Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that - ✔✔the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more Optional reporting, outside of sensors range

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as - ✔✔standing lenticular clouds lens shaped clouds that form at the crests of mountain waves Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog? - ✔✔Steam fog "Steam fog is formed by cold, dry air moving over warmer water. As the water particles evaporate and rise, they often freeze and fall back into the water. Icing and low level turbulence can occur. One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the - ✔✔Wind direction "A shift in wind direction always occurs across a front" Radar reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate.. - ✔✔location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation "Radar weather reports show areas of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation" intensity trend is no longer indicated" What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points? - ✔✔unequal heating of the earth's surface "temperature change causes variations in air pressure and density" What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET? - ✔✔Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter "SIGMET used for bad weather" What would decrease the stability of an air mass? a) warming from below b) cooling from below c) decrease in water vapor - ✔✔warming from below

"Stability is altered by change in the lapse rate, warming from below of cooling from above will increase the lapse rate and make the air less stable." Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high? - ✔✔Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds "low level temperature inversions normally occur in stable, smooth air, with poor visibility due to trapped pollutants which are commonly referred to as condensation nuclei. In addition, high humidity tends to cause formation of fog and low clouds" Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? - ✔✔Precipitation beginning to fall "The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins when the raindrops grow too large to be supported by the updrafts, and precipitation begins to fall." Except for when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? - ✔✔An altitude, if power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to... - ✔✔determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have - ✔✔received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower from an authorized flight instructor and received a one time endorsement in their logbook What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? - ✔✔Annual and 100-hour inspections No person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than crew) for hire, or give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft, which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100-hours of service they got their annual or 100-hour inspection What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? - ✔✔1 mile visibility or clear of clouds

For VFR flight in uncontrolled or class G airspace below 1,200 ft during daytime, you are only required to have 1 mile visibility and remain clear of clouds What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's) - ✔✔They are mandatory ADs are published as part of the FAR's You may not operate an aircraft to which an airworthiness directive applies, except in accordance with the airworthiness directive Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? - ✔✔Flight over a densely populated area Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport? - ✔✔comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport Comply with traffic pattern established in Part 93 Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

• flight control system malfunction or failure
• a forced landing due to engine failure
• landing gear damage - ✔✔A flight control system malfunction or failure The elevation of Chesapeake Regional airport is - ✔✔20 feet, the first number on the last line of the airport description What is the magnetic heading for a flight from priest river airport to shoshone county airport? The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and true airspeed is 95 knots. - ✔✔ 118 Find magnetic heading This is done by first determining true heading by correcting true course for winds. Then correct true heading for magnetic variation. On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)? - ✔✔183 TO OBS (omni bearing selector)

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are - ✔✔visual checkpoints o identify position for initial callus prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace "The flag symbols represent checkpoints used to identify the aircraft position for approach control. In this case, they are visual checkpoints used when contacting Savannah Approach Control If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? - ✔✔120. Since the frequency of the tower designated CT 120.3"? is next to the CTAF symbol, the CTAF frequency is the tower frequency What outbound bearing is the aircraft crossing? - ✔✔ 030 Because the tail of the needle indicates the outbound heading FROM the station The VOR is tuned to Binham VORTAC and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs. Which VOR indication is correct? - ✔✔7 because if the VOR indicator is 90-degrees off, the VOR indicator will show "OFF" If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from - ✔✔246 at 13 knts Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temp of 36 or higher - ✔✔21.0 inches hg According to the airport diagram, which of the following is true? - ✔✔takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12 and the landing portion of the runway begins at position B A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a - ✔✔red pulsating light Most midair collisions occur during - ✔✔Clear days "most collisions occurring during clear daytime weather as reported by the NTSB"

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is - ✔✔to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at the traffic pattern altitude "the recommended standard left hand traffic pattern specifies a 45-degree entry at the midpoint of the runway at the downwind leg To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the - ✔✔fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps "when the fuel strainer is being drained, water in the tank may not appear until all the fuel has been drained from lines leading to the tank. Therefore, drain enough fuel from the fuel strainer to be certain that fuel is being drained from the tank. The amount will depend on the length of the fuel line from the tank to the drain. Water may also remain in the fuel tank even after the fuel strainer has ceased to show any trace of water. this residual water can be removed only be draining the fuel tank sump drains." What does the outbound destination sign identify? A. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. B. Identifies direction to take-off runways. C. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. - ✔✔Identifies direction to takeoff runways. An outbound destination sign displays black text on a yellow background, and a vertical black arrow. These signs always have an arrow showing the direction of the taxing route to that destination. What is the antidote for invulnerability - ✔✔It could happen to me When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected? - ✔✔ 1200 Above 18,000 feet must have a IFR clearance and are in Class A When should pilots decline a LAHSO clearance - ✔✔When it will compromise safety. PIC has final authority

If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to - ✔✔rely upon the aircraft instrument indications since the brain receives confusing messages from the body senses, the pilot must rely on the aircraft's instruments Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will - ✔✔Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. High temperatures can cause detonation and a resulting loss of engine power, excessive oil consumption, and engine damage, including scoring of the cylinders and damage to piston, rings, and valves. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause - ✔✔detonation The higher the grade of fuel, the more pressure it can withstand without detonating. conversely, lower fuel grades are more prone to detonation In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if - ✔✔It accelerates while on a east or western heading Acceleration error is the worst on east/west headings. Use the acronym ANDS Accelerate North, Decelerate, south Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be - ✔✔Less stable at all speeds In an airplane loaded to the aft, CG limit, the horizontal stabilizer is less effective, causing the airplane to be less stable at all speeds What causes an airplane (except a t-tail) to pitch nose down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted? - ✔✔The downwash on the elevators from the propellor slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. Downwash is created by the propeller slipstream What force makes an airplane turn? - ✔✔The horizontal component of lift. As an aircraft turns, lift becomes the resultant of two components, vertical lift which opposes gravity and horizontal lift which opposes inertia. It is the horizontal lift component that turns the aircraft.

The horizontal component of lift, which is referred to as centripetal force, opposes centrifugal force and causes the airplane to turn. Full Flap Operating Range - ✔✔The white arc indicates the full flap operating range, this case 60- 100MPH What color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specific configuration? - ✔✔Lower limit of the green arc Upper limit of green arc is max structural cruising speed Yellow arc is caution range Red is VNE What color represents the power off stall speed with wing flaps and landing gear in landing configuration? - ✔✔The lower limit of the white arc Stall speed with flaps and gear down Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high wing airplane? - ✔✔quartering tailwind tricycle gear (nose wheel) are most susceptible to quartering tailwind because strong airflow beneath the wing and horizontal stabilizer can tip or nose over the aircraft As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will - ✔✔remain the same regardless of altitude the IAS of a stall remains the same because the airspeed indicators are calibrated at standard sea level conditions and do not reflect lower air density at higher altitudes IAS decreases with lower air pressure (less molecules) A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristics? - ✔✔Smooth air Stable air resists the lifting motion associated with turbulence, and is typically smooth Showery precipitation and turbulent air are characteristics of unstable air

A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition? - ✔✔An increase in temperature as altitude increases Normally temperature decreases with altitude. Inversion traps cooler air beneath a layer of warmer air so temp increases with altitude A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is - ✔✔an outlook briefing a standard briefing is the most common and that is closer to takeoff abbreviated briefings supplement info already known Clouds are divided into four families according to their - ✔✔Height range Low, middle high and extensive vertical formation For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the - ✔✔lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration. According to weather services, a ceiling is defined as the lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is - ✔✔a change in temperature a front is the boundary between air masses of differing temperatures Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the - ✔✔mature stage violent up and downdrafts, severe turbulence, heavy rain, hail, strong surface winds and gust fronts Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are - ✔✔Squall line thunderstorms often contain steady state thunderstorms very severe When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

A. When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds. B. In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence. C. Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing. - ✔✔B. In areas of low-level temperature inversions, frontal zones and clear air turbulence Where can the operating limitations for an aircraft be found? - ✔✔in the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof Which of the following are required to be carried during flight? - ✔✔FAA approved flight manual (AFM) Airplane flight manual An annual inspection was performed on an aircraft June 13, 2018. When is the next annual inspection due? - ✔✔June 30, 2019 preceding 12 months has had an annual inspection Airworthiness certificate remains good - ✔✔as long as the airplane is maintained and operated according to the FAR's In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? - ✔✔operating limitations and registration certificate ARROW for what is required An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - ✔✔1359.6 hours not able to operate unless the 100 hour inspection has been performed A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309. hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due? - ✔✔3402. if the inspection is delayed, it is due when the original inspection was scheduled, if it is done ahead of time, the next one is due 100hours after the ACTUAL one

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than - ✔✔Sept 30, 2016 ATC transponder due every 2 years Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? - ✔✔Pilot in command Has final authority Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition? - ✔✔The owner or operator Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? - ✔✔Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight You discover inoperative equipment on an airplane that you are planning to fly. Under what conditions can you complete the flight under VFR? - ✔✔the equipment is not required by FAR 91.205, an equipment list or KOEL, the VFR day type requirements, or an AD May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? - ✔✔yes, if allowed by the AD some require immediate service, some don't Preventative maintenance has been performed, what paperwork is required - ✔✔The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and description of work done must be entered into the aircraft maintenance records Which CFR covers preventative maintenance? - ✔✔14CFR 43. replacing and servicing batteries, replace spark plugs, service wheel bearing, hydraulic fluids etc Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? - ✔✔Private or commercial pilot

Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be noted in the - ✔✔Aircraft maintenance records Excessively high engine temperatures will - ✔✔cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with - ✔✔too much power and with the mixture set too lean can cause overheating dual ignition system purpose is to - ✔✔improve engine performance fire two spark plugs on each cylinder is a system redundancy and improves combustion, power The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to - ✔✔decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density if the fuel flow isn't decreased, the mixture becomes too rich with fuel During the runup at a high elevation airport, you notice a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action? - ✔✔check the results obtained with a leaner mixture probably set too rich for the altitude, when carb heat is on the mixture becomes further enriched when cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. what will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture? - ✔✔the fuel/air mix will become excessively lean because it was set lean to fly at high altitude Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing? - ✔✔temperature between 20F and 70F and relatively high humidity high humidity and visible moisture

carb icing is not a high risk at low temps because the air can't hold that much moisture when its cold Applying carb heat will - ✔✔enrich the fuel/air mixture warmer air entering the carb is less dense, same amount of fuel though so it becomes more rich Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to - ✔✔decrease engine performance when the fuel/air mix is enriched, power decreases The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting - ✔✔a decrease in RPM then a gradual increase in RPM Mixture initially enriched with warm air then RPM will start to come back when ice starts to melt and more air increases into the carb Whats more sus to icing, fuel injection or float type - ✔✔Float type If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause - ✔✔detonation lower grades are more sus to detonation with accompanying higher engine temperatures Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when - ✔✔the unburned charge explodes instead of operating normally Detonation may occur at high-power settings when A - the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly. B - an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power. C - the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder. - ✔✔A- the fuel mix ignites instantly

You suspect that your engine is detonating afterclimbqut after takeoff, your initial corrective action would be to - ✔✔adjust nose doen to increase airspeed to increase cooling airflow, reduce rate of climb The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as - ✔✔preignition Filling the tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

• ✔✔prevent air forming condensation For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on - ✔✔circulation of lubricating oil oil lubricates, carries heat from interior to oil cooler High engine temps may be caused by - ✔✔the oil pressure being too low What is another method to aid in cooling an engine? - ✔✔enrichen the fuel/air mixture richer fuel air mixture burns at a lower temperature How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller? - ✔✔the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauges and the propeller control has the engine RPM power output of engine is indicated on the manifold pressure gauge prop control changes engine RPM indicated on the tachometer, by adjusting the pitch of the prop Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will - ✔✔cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible permanent damage scoring What is the advantage of a constant speed propeller? - ✔✔Permits the pilot to be able to select the blade angle for most efficient performance

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to - ✔✔avoid high manifold pressures with low RPM settings For any given ROM setting there is a maximum allowable manifold pressure generally you should avoid high manifold pressures with low RPM to prevent internal stress within the engine Which preflight checks should you make on an airplane with full-authority digital engine control (FADEC)? - ✔✔Verify proper operation of both ECUs as well as their back up power sources Engine control units, back ups necessary if ECU fail means you don't need mix or prop control If it becomes necessary to hand-prop an airplane engine, a competent pilot must - ✔✔be at the controls in the cockpit, the person turning the prop calls out the commands Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? - ✔✔V/A Vno is defined as the... - ✔✔Maximum structural cruising speed Vso is defined as the - ✔✔Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? - ✔✔the elevation of the departure area field elevation is already in MSL (true elevation) and does not need to be corrected. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temp is density altitude and should not be shown on an altimeter If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected? - ✔✔the altimeter, the airspeed indicator and the vertical speed indicator turn and slip and attitude are gyroscopic Which becomes inoperative if the pilot tube is clogged - ✔✔Airspeed compares ram pressure to static

Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged? - ✔✔Airspeed, altimeter and vertical speed Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates - ✔✔TRUE altitude at field elevation actual height above MSL absolute altitude is AGL How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter? - ✔✔Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude atmospheric pressure raised on warm days so the aircraft is at a higher altitude than indicated when low temps lower the pressure levels, the indicated altitude is higher not lower, than sure altitude What is ture altitude - ✔✔the vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level Absolute altitude - ✔✔AGL Density Altitude - ✔✔The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. What is pressure altitude? - ✔✔The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92 pressure altitude is the height above the standard datum plane which is indicated when you set 29.92 on the scale in the altimeter setting Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude? - ✔✔When at sea level under standard conditions If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs? - ✔✔700 foot increase same direction 1/10th of an inch is equal to 100 feet 1 inch hg is equal to 1,000 feet

.7 in is 700 feet same direction A turn coordinator provides an indication of the - ✔✔movement around the yaw (vertical) and roll (longitudinal) axes pitch is the lateral axis Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the - ✔✔magnetic fields within an aircraft distorting the lines of the magnetic force In the Northern hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate - ✔✔correctly when on a north south heading What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? - ✔✔the compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than it is actually occurring When turning from a southerly heading, the compass moves the correct direction but faster If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is - ✔✔higher than pressure altitude At standard temperature, density altitude is equal to pressure altitude. however when air temp is higher, air density is reduced, density altitude is higher than pressure altitude, aircraft performance degrades Standard temp and pressure for sea level - ✔✔15 and 29.92 inches Hg If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate - ✔✔lower than the actual altitude above sea level from low to high, clear the sky from high to low, look out below (cause indicated is higher than you are) What factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport? - ✔✔An increase in the ambient temperature

The density of the air and the density altitude ar conversely related Air temp goes up>(or humidity)>density of air goes down, density altitude goes up So density altitude and temp/humidity increases are directly related If the AHRS detects a problem with the integrity of the sensor information for the instruments on a PFD, what occurs? - ✔✔A red X is placed over the display of the affected instrument You are flying an airplane with an integrated flight display and the PFD screen fails. What is the backup option? - ✔✔Display the PFD instruments on the MFD screen How do you perform a standard rate turn in an aircraft with digital instruments on PFD? - ✔✔Monitor the trend vector on the HSI and adjust the angle of bank as needed turn rate indicator on the HSI tells you the heading of plane in six seconds with a vector Which digital flight instruments are related to the air data computer? - ✔✔Airspeed, altimeter, and VSI The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the - ✔✔ANGLE OF ATTACK FLAPS - ✔✔Increase angle of descent without increasing airspeed Airplane stall angle - ✔✔stalls when the critical angle of attack is surpassed, regardless of CG, weight or airspeed Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at - ✔✔less than a wing length above the surface Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem - ✔✔Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speeds do not try to climb out

An aircraft said to be inherently stable - ✔✔requires less effort to control What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane - ✔✔the location of the CG with relation to the CL forward CG is more stable but higher stall speed Aft CG is less stable but lower stall speed and cruises faster In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane? - ✔✔low airspeeds, high power and high angle of attack The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the - ✔✔prop blade on right producing more thrust than that on the left P-factor, asymmetric propeller loading most pronounced at high angles of attack The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the - ✔✔speed of the airplane low speeds may stall high speeds may be unsafe During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to - ✔✔stall at a higher airspeed What are the four flight fundamentals that are involved in maneuvering an aircraft - ✔✔straight and level, turns, climbs, descents What aircrafts has right of way - ✔✔an aircraft in distress (over ballon and aircraft on final approach and all other aircraft What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? - ✔✔the aircraft on the left must give way