JURISPRUDENCE EXAM REVIE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS LATEST 2024 UPDATE, Exams of Nursing

Download JURISPRUDENCE EXAM REVIE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS LATEST 2024 UPDATE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! JURISPRUDENCE EXAM REVIE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS LATEST 2024 UPDATE 1. A client requires chemotherapy and radiation. The client agrees to the treatment on the condition that he receives constant nursing support due to his anxiety. What should the nurse do? a. Work within the normal staffing parameters. b. Suggest the client consider hiring a private nurse. c. Provide the extra care requested by the client. d. Advocate for effective care for the client. * 2. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards Revised 2002, which one of the following descriptions best reflects the Standard Statement related to ‘Accountability’? a. All nurses are accountable to their clients, their employer and themselves. b. Each nurse is accountable for providing, facilitating and promoting the best possible care to the public. c. Each nurse is accountable to the public and responsible for meeting legislative requirements and the standards of the profession. * d. All nurses are accountable for possessing, through continuing learning, knowledge relevant to practice. 3. What must be included for consent to be considered informed? a. Information the physician determines the client should know. b. The composition of the health care team. c. The exact length of time to recover from treatment. d. Alternative courses of action instead of the proposed Page 1 of 55 treatment. * 4. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002, what is included in the Standard Statement related to ‘Relationships’? a. Caring and compassionate. b. Collegial and knowledgeable. c. Supportive and comprehensive. d. Therapeutic and professional. * 5. What is one part of the definition of ‘professional misconduct’ as defined by the Health Professions Procedural Code? a. Guilty of an offence relevant to the member’s suitability to practice. * b. Has a physical condition limiting practice. c. Guilty of a criminal offence under Ontario Law. d. Has a mental illness that limits the member’s suitability to practice safely. 6. Which one of the following statements describes the Ethical Value related to Page 2 of 55 Situation. * b. An RPN, who cleanses, soaks probes and packs a wound below the dermis. c. A PSW who discontinues an intravenous site. d. An RN who performs an elective cardio version. 12. A nurse is advocating for a group of clients to obtain government subsidies for adequate nutrition. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002, which one of the following Standard Statements best describes the nurse’s actions? a. Relationships. b. Accountability. * c. Knowledge. d. Leadership. 13. A physician gives a nurse a telephone directive to catheterize the physician’s admitted clients. Why should the nurse refuse to follow this directive? a. Direct orders must be always written for any procedure and treatment. b. Nurses can initiate catheterization on in-patients without a directive. c. Directives must always be written and signed by the physician or NP. * d. Nurses must always have the act of catheterization delegated. 14. What is the purpose of ‘mandatory reporting’ to CNO? a. To update CNO regarding address changes. b. To protect nursing colleagues. c. To notify CNO of unsafe nursing practice. * d. To enforce limitations on nurses’ practices. 15. A client expresses a wish to die at home. The nurses’ discusses the client’s expectations and negotiates a plan of care involving all relevant parties. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Therapeutic Nurse-client relationship, Revised 2006, which Standard Statement does this demonstrate? a. Therapeutic Communication. Page 5 of 55 b. Maintaining boundaries. c. Client-centered care. * d. Maintaining a Quality Practice setting. 16. Which of the following nursing practices demonstrates client choice? a. Providing the client with the necessary information for informed decision-making. * b. Exploring the wishes of the health care team regarding client care. c. Encouraging the client to choose a specific treatment option. d. Having a substitute decision-maker appointed for incapable clients. 17. A nurse disagrees with the client’s decision to terminate a pregnancy for genetic reasons and wishes to discontinue nursing care. What should the nurse do first? Page 6 of 55 a. Discuss changing the client’s plan of care with the health care team. b. Attempt to convince the client’s family that there are other options. c. Consult with a nursing colleague to clarify the nurse’s own values. * d. Report the plan of care to the Ethics Review Committee. 18. Which one of the following options is an example of an ‘authorizing mechanism’? a. Standing order. b. Delegation. * c. Practice guideline. d. Advance directive. 19. Which one of the following conditions must be met prior to a nurse ‘initiating’ a controlled act authorized to nurses? a. There is a directive for the nurse to perform the procedure. b. The nurse has determined the client’s condition warrants performance of the procedure. * c. A mechanism exists to support delegation of the procedure. d. There is a physician’s order for the procedure. 20. Which one of the following statements is true? a. The Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 is applicable to all health care providers. b. The Nursing Act, 1991 regulates nursing practice; however, the Regulated health Professions Act, 1991 does not. c. The Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 does not have provisions that are relevant to nursing students. d. The Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 and the Nursing Act, 1991 both regulate the nursing profession. * 21. Which one of the following actions by a nurse demonstrates unequal power in the nurse-client relationship? a. Administering an antibiotic as ordered. Page 7 of 55 uncomfortable with him. b. A client has accused a nurse of stealing some of her personal belongings. c. A confused client uses racial slurs when addressing the nurse. d. A nurse addresses a client in a demeaning manner. * 28. In which of the following situations can a nurse accept and perform a delegated task? a. When any emergency situation occurs. b. When an authorizing mechanism is in place. Page 10 of 55 c. When the activity is not a controlled act. d. When the nurse has the necessary certification. * 29. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Documentation, Revised 2008, which one of the following statements best demonstrates appropriate documentation? a. “Client admitted via stretcher”. b. “Client states that his roommate had his ‘girlfriend in overnight’.” c. “Client states his pain is a ‘1 out of 10’.” * d. “Client is non-adherent to treatment.” 30. Which of the following examples represents sexual abuse as defined by the Health Professions Procedural Code? a. A 12-year old client with suspected vaginal trauma. b. Consensual sexual relations between a nurse and a client. * c. A female client who discloses unwanted sexual relations with a partner. d. Unwanted sexual relations between a nurse and a colleague. 31. What is included in the mandatory requirements for nurses who are randomly selected to participate in CNO’s Quality Assurance Program? a. Peer assessment. * b. Client assessment. c. Health assessment. d. Workplace assessment. 32. The Consent and capacity Board has found Mr. Silva incapable of making decisions. His nephew, who is his substitute decision-maker, has given consent to start the application for placement in long-term care. Mr. Silva wishes to stay in his home. According to the Health Care Consent Act, 1996, which one of the following statements is true? a. Mr. Silva’s nephew has the authority to make the placement decision. * b. Mr. Silva’s consent overrides that of his nephew Page 11 of 55 because they are in disagreement. c. Mr. Silva can refuse to leave his home and arrange his own support system through the Community Care Access Centre. d. Mr. Silva’s physician has the ability to override the finding of incapacity. 33. What statement best articulates the overall responsibility for all nurses to practice in accordance with CNO’s standards of practice? a. Nurses must participate in CNO’s Quality Assurance Program including creating an annual Learning Plan and obtaining peer input. b. Nurses must remit their annual registration fee in a timely manner to maintain their registration. c. Nurses are responsible for reporting colleagues who are practicing nursing in a manner inconsistent with professional standards. d. Nurses will practice in accordance with the standards of the Page 12 of 55 39. A nurse is asked to perform debridement on a chronic wound. What is the first thing the nurse should do? a. Assess her or his related knowledge and skill. * b. Review the employer’s policy and the relevant legislation. c. Proceed with the debridement as requested and document. d. Decline to perform the procedure and inform the manager. 40. Sue, a nurse, has arrived home at the end of a long shift and realizes that she forgot to sign for a medication. Sue calls the unit and asks a colleague to “sign my name on the record”. The colleague refuses. What is the rationale for his refusal to sign? a. A colleague may be terminated if he complies and his actions are discovered. b. It is Sue’s responsibility to return to work immediately and sign the record. c. Failure to sign for a medication is an error that must be reported to the manager. d. Falsifying a record is an example of professional misconduct. * 41. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Therapeutic Nurse-Client relationship, Revised 2006, which one of the following standard Statements best describes the nurse’s accountability? a. Competence. * b. Maintaining boundaries. c. Security. d. Self-Disclosure. 42. Are nurse administrators accountable to practice in accordance with all CNO standards of practice? a. Yes, because all nurses are accountable to the standards of practice regardless of role. * b. No, because the nurse is an administrator, therefore, only the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002 applies. c. No, because the standards of practice only apply to nurses working in direct client care. Page 15 of 55 d. Yes, because only nurse administrators are accountable to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002 in addition to the other Standards. 43. A nurse is asked by a client’s employer for information on the client’s prognosis. What information, if any, can the nurse disclose? a. The client’s diagnosis, but not the prognosis. b. All the information if the diagnosis is employer-related. c. No information without consent from the client. * d. The client’s prognosis, but not the diagnosis. Page 16 of 55 44. Who may determine capacity for the purpose of the Substitute Decisions Act, 1992? a. A trained capacity assessor. * b. Any physician or social worker. c. The client’s substitute decision-maker. d. The office of the Public Guardian and Trustee. 45. A nurse is providing care for a client in the client’s home. After the nurse provides treatment, the client invites the nurse out for a coffee. How should the nurse respond? a. Decline the offer and clarify the nurse’s role in the nurse-client relationship. * b. Accept the offer as it would be beneficial to further develop the nurse- client relationship. c. Decline the offer and promptly leave the client’s home. d. Agree to meet the client for coffee, but only to discuss the therapeutic care plan. 46. A nurse is overheard saying “Your breasts looks great in that shirt” to a client. The client smiles and walks away. Is this sexual abuse? a. No, because sexual contact is not made. b. No, because the client did not object. c. Yes, because the comment was of a sexual nature. * d. Yes, because any unwelcome remark is a form of sexual abuse. 47. Consistent with the Health care Consent Act, 1996, when is a nurse required to obtain consent for treatment? a. Providing nursing services to an ill 8-year-old in a community health center. * b. Administering blood products to a hemorrhaging client in the operating room. c. Performing CPR on an individual who has been found unconscious on the street. d. Treating an unconscious client with a head injury in the emergency room. 48. What is the legislation related to the CNO Practice Standards; Restraints? Page 17 of 55 b. Speaking slowly and loudly to all clients to assure they hear and understand. c. Modifying their communication style for each client. * d. Sharing personal information with clients in order to establish trust and a feeling of intimacy. 55. What is the key piece of legislation that protects the client’s confidentiality? a. Personal Health Information Protection Act, 2004. * b. Quality of Care Information Protection Act. Page 20 of 55 c. Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991. d. Health Care Consent Act, 1996. 56. Which one of the following statements is considered to be a ‘directive’? a. A written physician’s order that may be used for a number of clients. * b. A client-specific order that is either written or oral. c. A procedure that is authorized to be performed by a nurse with the appropriate education. d. A procedure that is initiated by the nurse in the absence of a direct order. 57. What are three components to the scope of practice statement of the Nursing Act, 1991? a. Promotion, assessment, and treatment. * b. Provision, rehabilitation, and care. c. Initiation, delegation, and self-reflection. d. Legislation, regulation, and ethics. 58. A nurse wishes to control a client’s violent behavior. What should the nurse do? a. Consider the use of restraints only as a last resort. * b. Administer a chemical restraint. c. Apply a jacket restraint to protect the client. d. Lock the client in a room for everyone’s safety. 59. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Confidentiality and Privacy – Personal Health Information, what is the ‘lockbox provision’? a. A client instructs that a part of his or her personal health information is not shared with other providers. * b. Personal health information is physically secured in a locked area. c. A client is not permitted to access a portion of his or her personal health information. d. A nurse is responsible for ensuring that she or he uses Page 21 of 55 client information only for the purposes for which it was collected. 60. An RN notes a change in a client’s wound and seeks advice from the only other nurse working during the shift, an RPN. The RN is later told by another nursing colleague that this was inappropriate. Should the RN have sought advice from the RPN? a. Yes, because there were no other nurses available. b. Yes, because all nurses are expected to collaborate. * c. No, because RPNs cannot provide care below the dermis. d. No, because RPNs should not provide advice to RNs. 61. Which one of the following situations requires a nurse to make a mandatory Page 22 of 55 Their self-regulation requirements. c. CNO is responsible for ensuring that nurses are working within their scope of practice and in collaboration with other health care professionals. d. Every member is responsible for practicing in accordance with the standards of the profession and keeping current and competent throughout their career. * 67. Which one of the following examples always reflects establishing and maintaining appropriate boundaries in the therapeutic nurse-client relationship? a. Providing care to the nurse’s relatives or friends. b. Disclosing the nurse’s personal information to clients. c. Engaging in financial transactions with the client or the client’s family. d. Documenting consultation with a colleague about a questionable client interaction. * 68. A nurse has relocated to Ontario from Florida, USA. Which one of the following facts is the nurse obligated to report to CNO? a. Contact information for the nurse’s most recent employer in Florida. b. The nurse’s score on the Florida state board licensing examination. c. The nurse has been disciplined by the Florida state nursing regulatory body. * d. The termination of the nurse’s employment by a previous Florida employer. 69. An RPN assesses that a client in the home requires routine urinary catheterization. We must be considered prior to initiation? a. Determining whether the family physician would approve the order. b. Identifying the risks and benefits of the procedure. * c. Reviewing the health record to determine the effectiveness of the previous treatment. d. Consulting with a colleague about the procedure. 70. A nurse is caring for a client on life support. The client’s Page 25 of 55 estranged spouse, who is the client’s power of attorney for personal care, visits on a regular basis. The nurse has become attracted to the client’s spouse and has been invited to the spouse’s home for dinner. What demonstrates protecting the client from abuse? a. Requesting permission from the nurse’s manager before accepting the invitation. b. Declining the invitation to the spouse’s home. * c. Requesting to be reassigned to a different client before accepting the invitation. d. Agreeing to meet the spouse in public locations only. 71. A nurse may disclose personal health information without consent in which one of the following situations? a. The police request information about a client’s progress. Page 26 of 55 b. An interpreter is being used to interview the client. c. An adult client has been sexually assaulted. d. The client poses a serious risk of injuring others. * 72. What controlled act is a nurse authorized to perform, when ordered, as found in the Nursing Act, 1991? a. Putting an instrument beyond the external ear canal. * b. Managing labor. c. Conducting an allergy challenge test. d. Supervising the dispensing of a drug in a pharmacy. 73. According to the CNO Standard Practice: Professional Standards, Revised 2002, what is one element of ‘Accountability’? a. Nurses are accountable for the decisions or actions of unregulated care providers. b. Nurses are accountable for explaining all treatments proposed by the health care team. c. Nurses are accountable for their actions and their consequences. * d. Nurses are accountable for reporting all errors to CNO. 74. After receiving the necessary information, a client makes an informed choice to stop all treatments. The client, his family and nurse understand that the client will not live without treatment. The client’s family wants the client to continue with his treatment and the nurse agrees. With respect to ‘Client Choice’, how should the nurse proceed? a. Respect the family’s wishes and continue treatment for the client. b. Arrange for another caregiver and then withdraw from the situation. c. Inform the client that the treatment will continue and in a few days he will have a capacity assessment. * d. Recognize that the client does not have the right to refuse treatment that has positive health outcomes. 75. When sharing health information, in which one of the following scenarios is a nurse best demonstrating confidentiality? a. Discussion with the client’s family in private, without informing the client. Page 27 of 55 she finds that most of the clients’ incontinence briefs are saturated. After providing care for the clients, what should the nurse do? a. Advocate for superior incontinence products. b. Communicate her concerns to the day staff. * c. Ask the nursing educator to each the day staff how to meet clients’ basic needs. d. Intervene by reporting the incidents to the manager. 83. What are the components of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship? Page 30 of 55 a. Respect, trust, professional intimacy, empathy, and power. * b. Communication, cultural sensitivity, understanding, advocacy, and professionalism. c. Empowerment, compassion, tolerance, autonomy, and cooperation. d. Fairness, acceptance, sympathy, accountability, and collaboration. 84. What is one nursing responsibility when deciding whether to use restraints? a. Following the physician’s order. b. Using the restraint that is least restrictive to the client. * c. Following the family’s instructions. d. Using the restraint last applied to the client. 85. What is one of the four key regulatory functions of CNO? a. Promote the profession of nursing. b. Establish requirements for entry to practice. * c. Advocate for changes in institutional policies. d. Develop nursing educational programs. 86. Which one of the following statutes is relevant to the practice of nursing in Ontario? a. Pharmacy Act, 1991. b. Public Hospitals Act. c. Medicine Act. * d. Midwifery Act. 87. A nurse is caring for an 87-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility. The client has a history of Parkinson’s disease, requiring assistance with all activities of daily living. He has now developed aspiration pneumonia. Transfer to acute care has been ordered; however, the client does not wish to go. How should consent for treatment be obtained? a. From one of the client’s family members. b. From the substitute decision-maker. c. From the client. * d. From the Consent and Capacity Board. Page 31 of 55 88. A 14-year-old girl presents at the birth control center requesting the oral contraceptive pill. She has a boyfriend, but has not yet had sex. How can the RN provide client- centered care? a. Discuss continued abstinence as the best method of birth control. b. Explore sexuality and birth control methods with the client. * c. Refer the client to her primary care provider for a prescription. d. Ask the client to bring her boyfriend to her next appointment. 89. Gladys has decided to resume nursing practice after resigning from the profession to raise a family. After an interview, she was successful in obtaining a position at a local long-term facility. Can Gladys begin working as Page 32 of 55 c. The CNO Practice Guideline: Guiding Decisions about End of Life Care, 2009. d. Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991. 95. In which one of the following situations can a nurse perform a controlled act? a. A pharmacist writes an order for a new injectable medication. b. A nurse performs wound packing below the mucous membrane for a client’s family member. c. A nurse disimpacts a client, knowing that the physician will write the order during daily rounds. d. A dentist writes an order for the nurse to start a pre- procedural IV. * 96. A nurse is obtaining consent from a client for treatment. The nurse describes the information about the treatment required to make a decision. What else must the nurse do to provide informed consent? a. Ensure that the client is of the minimum age to give consent. b. Provide the client with written information. c. Respond to the client’s questions regarding the treatment. * d. Obtain a signature from the client. 97. A RN case manager visits a client in the community whose needs are becoming more complex. According to the CNO Practice Guideline: RN and RPN Practice: The Client, the Nurse and the Environment, what is one factor that the case manager must consider when determining the appropriate category of care provider? a. Leadership. * b. Equipment. c. Cost. d. Environment. 98. A nurse document all the care provided during the workday at the end of the shift. Which documentation standard has the nurse breached? a. Care must be documented immediately after it occurs. * Page 35 of 55 b. Documentation must be relevant to client care. c. Documentation must be comprehensive. d. Care must be documented in a timely manner. 99. Which of the following Standard Statements is from the CNO Practice Standard: Therapeutic Nurse-Client Relationship, Revised 2006? a. Maintaining Commitments to Clients. b. Potential for Harm. c. Client Well-Being. d. Client-Centered Care. * 100. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Ethics, which one of the following terms represents an Ethical Value related to client choice? Page 36 of 55 a. Self-esteem. b. Self-worth. c. Self-respect. d. Self-determination. * 101. Why are nurses expected to collaborate or consult with each other? a. To benefit the client. * b. To ensure accountability. c. To increase the nurses’ autonomy. d. To increase collegiality. 102. What is the key element of informed consent? a. It is required before providing emergency care. b. A substitute decision-maker must provide consent if the client is under 16 years of age. c. It can only be obtained by the health care professional providing the care. d. The client receives responses to requests for additional information about treatment. * 103. A client complaint has been made in regard to a personal support worker (PSW). The employer contacts CNO to report the complaint. Was contacting CNO appropriate? a. Yes, because PSWs work under the supervision of nurses. b. Yes, because CNO regulates practice of health care providers. c. No, because the employer should have conducted an investigation first. d. No, because CNO is not responsible for regulating PSWs. * 104. A nurse working in a cancer care center encounters many competent clients who refuse further treatment. The nurse disagrees with the clients’ decision and believes she cannot continue to provide care. What should the nurse consider? a. Arranging for capacity assessments of the clients before discontinuing treatment. * b. Continuing to provide treatment until consulting with the clients’ families. Page 37 of 55 b. Yes, because Erica must comply with the Long Term Care Home Act, 2007. c. No, because Erica is working in a UCP role. d. Yes, because Erica is registered as an RN. * 111. A disoriented client is threatening staff with physical violence. A colleague asks why a potentially violent client cannot be immediately physically restrained. How should the nurse respond? a. Legislations set limitations for restraints use. * b. Restraints can never be used with violent clients. Page 40 of 55 c. Consent is required for restraint under all circumstances. d. The client’s family must first be notified. 112. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Ethics, how is ‘Fairness’ defined? a. Ensuring clients have enough information to make an informed decision. b. Allocating health care resources on the basis of objective-related factors. * c. Facilitating clients’ wishes for their treatment plan. d. Following through with implicit or explicit commitments toward clients. 113. Which one of the following statements about the Practice Assessment component of CNO’s Quality Assurance (QA) Program is true? a. Four practice documents are selected for the examinations. b. All nurses must participate in the QA Program every 3 years. c. Selected nurses are required to submit their Annual Learning Plan to CNO. * d. Nurses must have annual performance appraisals completed by their employers. 114. What is every member’s responsibility in a self-regulated profession? a. Establishing requirements for entry to practice. b. Disciplining other members for professional misconduct. c. Practicing in accordance with the standards of the profession. * d. Consulting with their College on practice-related issues. 115. A nurse has been asked to perform tracheal suctioning on the client. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Decisions about Procedures and Authority, Revised 2006, what is one of the standard statements that must be considered when determining if the nurse can perform this procedure? a. Assessment. b. Managing Outcomes. * c. Implementation. Page 41 of 55 d. Client Stability. 116. An RPN and a NP practice collaboratively. The NP has written an order for acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. What is the RPN’s responsibility? a. Ask an RN to administer the medication. b. Administer the medication as ordered. * c. Collaborate with a physician prior to proceeding. d. Inform the NP that the RPN is unable to comply. 117. How does CNO provide support to nurses in their practice? a. Web-based learning center. * b. Malpractice insurance. Page 42 of 55 123. When can a nurse discontinue nursing services for a cognitively impaired client without resulting in professional misconduct? a. If replacement services have been arranged. * b. When the substitute decision-maker has been informed. c. If the nurse is respecting the client’s wishes. d. When alternate care has been discussed with the physician. 124. While off duty, the nurse is charged with impaired driving. Ultimately, she is found guilty of this offence. Following this finding, does the nurse have any obligations to CNO? a. Yes, because the nurse must self-report a finding of guilt for an offence. * b. No, because the nurse was not working at the time of the offence. c. Yes, because the nurse must incorporate the finding of guilt into reflective practice. d. No, because the nurse is only obligated to report sexual abuse. 125. A client is transferred to palliative care. The client asks for the nurse’s personal cell phone number in case he has questions regarding pain management. Based on the content of the CNO Practice Standard: Therapeutic Nurse-Client Relationship, Revised 2006, what should the nurse do? a. Inform the client that the palliative care team will assume his care. b. Provide the telephone number to facilitate client trust. c. Discuss the client’s concern with the palliative care team. d. Explore the client’s concerns regarding pain management. * 126. Why is continuing competence a professional requirement? a. It contributes to quality nursing practice. * b. It fulfills a requirement for employer’s annual performance appraisals. c. It contributes to change in the health care environment. d. It enhances interprofessional collaboration. Page 45 of 55 127. The nurse encounters a confused, combative client. Which one of the following actions would represent abuse? a. Calling the client’s name loudly to get his attention. b. Ignoring the client until he becomes calm. * c. Administering a sedative under a client-specific order. d. Assuming a defensive stance in response to the client trying to hit the nurse. 128. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Decisions about Procedures and Authority, Revised 2006, what is one of the four standards a nurse must consider before performing any procedure? a. Agency directives. b. The existence of a direct order. c. The potential for delegation. Page 46 of 55 d. Appropriate care provider. * 129. What is warning sign that a nurse may not be effectively maintaining the boundaries of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship? a. Accepting a gift of food that was not solicited by the nurse. b. Counseling a client in a mental health setting while having coffee in the facility’s cafeteria. c. Frequently thinking about a client when away from work. * d. Engaging in a sexual relationship with a client after termination of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship. 130. According to the CNO Standard: Ethics, what is one of the ‘Ethical Values’? a. Competence. b. Health Promotion. c. Maintaining Commitments. * d. Substitute decision-making. 131. Which one of the following actions is an example of a controlled acts that all nurses are authorized to perform as per the Nursing Act, 1991? a. Performing a client’s digital rectal examination. * b. Communicating a diagnosis of diabetes to a client. c. Managing a client’s labor and delivery. d. Setting a client’s dislocated shoulder. 132. What federal legislation relates to narcotics? a. Controlled Drugs and Substances Act. * b. Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991. c. Drug and Pharmacies Regulation Act. d. Canada Health Act. 133. A visiting nurse is providing foot care to an 85-year-old client. Which one of the following behaviors may be considered abusive in the context of the therapeutic nurse- client relationship? a. Agreeing to have financial trusteeship with respect to Page 47 of 55 c. Seeks appropriate assistance in a timely manner. d. Behaves professionally to meet the therapeutic needs of the client. 139. As part of his end of life care, a client decides he wants only palliative measures to maintain his quality of life. The nurse does not support the client’s decision and does not feel he can provide care to the client. How should the nurse proceed? a. Withdraw from the situation immediately. b. Advocate to the client’s family for full treatment. c. Inform the client that the nurse has a duty to preserve life. d. Arrange for another health care provider. * Page 50 of 55 140. A client has frequent visitors in his room. A regular practice on the unit is to do a bedside reports. Based on the content of the CNO Practice Standard: Confidentiality and Privacy – Personal Health Information, what does the nurse do prior to the report? a. Ask the visitors if they would mind if their visit was interrupted by the report. b. Provide a clear, succinct report to the health care team members at the bedside. c. Ask the client’s visitors to leave the room during the report unless the client requests that they stay. * d. Decline to give the report on days when the client has visitors. 141. When is a nurse obligated to make a report to the Children’s Aid Society under the Child and Family Services Act, 1990? a. Only with evidence of child abuse. b. After the child confirms abuse. c. With any suspected child abuse. * d. Only after consultation with the health care team. 142. Mrs. Johnson, a frail elderly client with multiple co- morbidities, has recently developed pneumonia requiring admission to an acute care facility. Suzanne, a RPN, is assigned to care for Mrs. Johnson in collaboration with a RN. The family approaches the RN and demands that only RNs care for their mother. How should the RN respond? a. Respects the family’s request and ask the charge nurse to adjust the nursing assignment. b. Inform the RPN that a change in assignment is necessary due to the acute pneumonia. c. Refer the family to the family’s client representative for support to have the assignment changed. d. Explain to the family that the RPN is capable of caring for their mother with RN support. * 143. What must a nurse consider when determining whether to continue nursing services? a. If the decision is supported by the union’s collective Page 51 of 55 agreement. b. Whether there are conflicting obligations. * c. If it will be necessary to consult with the nurse’s professional association. d. Whether the decision must be reported to the CNO. 144. What CNO Statutory Committee would act upon a finding of ‘Professional Misconduct’? a. Registration. b. Quality Assurance. c. Fitness to Practice. Page 52 of 55