JURISPRUDENCE EXAM REVIEW , Exams of Nursing

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JURISPRUDENCE EXAM REVIEW LATEST UPDATE 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED RATIONALES ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+100% GUARANTEED PASS!!! which one of the following condition must be met prior to a nurse initiating a controlled act authorized to nurses a. there is a directive for the nurse to perform the procedure b. the nurse has determined the pts condition warrants performance of the procedure c. a mechanism exists to support delegation of the procedure d. there is a MD order for the procedure b. the nurse has determined the pts condition warrants performance of the procedure which one of the following statements is true a. the regulated health profession act is applicable to all health care providers b. the nursing act regulates nursing practice however the regulated health professions act does not c. the regulated health profession act does not have provision that are relevant to nursing student d. the regulated health professions act and nursing act both regulate the nursing profession d. the regulated health professions act and nursing act both regulate the nursing profession which one of the following action by a nurse demonstrates unequal power in the nurse pt relationship a. administering an antibiotic as ordered b. assisting the pt with personal care c. informing a pt of a toileting schedule d. expressing empathy for a pt c. informing a pt of a toileting schedule the nurse has a pt who does not speak or understand english or french. family members acting as interpreters have stated that the pt would not want to know his prognosis. what is the nurses responsibility in this situation a. respect the wishes of family and do not disclose this info b. encourage the family members to reconsider their situation c. involve a non family member as an interpreter to confirm the pts wishes d. consult with the pts MD c. involve a non family member as an interpreter to confirm the pts wishes what is one of the reasons why nurses document a. to allow pt to monitor their progress b. to prevent ethical dilemmas c. to promote continuity of care d. to meet the need of organizational policies c. to promote continuity of care what should a nurse do first when observing another nurse abusing a pt a. stop the colleagues behaviour b. speak to the colleagues supervisor c. report the matter to CNO d. document the observed behaviour a. stop the colleagues behaviour a 7 yo boy is admitted to ER with a compound fracture of the arm. his parents are not reachable. is consent required to initiate treatment a. no because this is an emergency situation b. no because the nurse must act as a pt advocate c. yes because the parents must provide consent d. yes because the child is a minor a. no because this is an emergency situation a pt return from the OR with a chest tube. the pts nurse has recently been assigned to the unit from another department and does not feel competent to manage this pt care needs. the nurse seeks assistance from another nurse immediately. which one of the following statement from the CNO practice standard; professional standard has the nurse demonstrated a. continuing competence b. leadership c. ethics d. accountability d. accountability what is an example of abusive behaviour in the context of therapeutic nurse pt relationship a. a male nurse has been assigned to a pt who is uncomfortable with him b. a pt has accused a nurse of stealing some of her personal belongings c. a confused pt uses racial slurs when addressing the nurse d. a nurse addresses a pt in a demeaning manner d. a nurse addresses a pt in a demeaning manner in which of the following situation can a nurse accept and perform a delegated task a. when any emergency situation occurs b. when an authorizing mechanism is in place c. when the activity is not a controlled act d. when the nurse has the necessary certification d. when the nurse has the necessary certification a nurse is asked to perform debridement on a chronic wound. what is the first thing the nurse should do a. assess her related knowledge and skill b. review the employers policy and the relevant legislation c. proceed with the debridement as requested and document d. decline to perform the procedure and inform the manager a. assess her related knowledge and skill sue a nurse has arrived home at the end of a long shift and realizes that she forgot to sign for a medication. sue calls the unit and asks a colleague to sign my name on the record. the colleague refuses. what is the rationale for refusing a. a colleague may be terminated if he complies and his actions are discovered b. it is sues responsibility to return to work immediately and sign the record c. failure to sign for a med is an error that must be reported to the manager d. falsifying a record is an example of professional misconduct d. falsifying a record is an example of professional misconduct according to the CNO practice standard; therapeutic nurse pt relationship which one of the following standard statements best describes the nurses accountability a. competence b. maintaining boundaries c. security d. self disclosures a. competence are nurses administrators accountable to practice in accordance with all CNO standards of practice a. yes because all nurses are accountable to the standards of practice regardless of role b. no because the nurse is an administer therefore only the CNO practice standard; professional standards applies c. no because the standards of practice only apply to nurses working in direct pt care d. yes because only nurse administrators are accountable to the CNO practice standard; professional standards in addition to the other standards a. yes because all nurses are accountable to the standards of practice regardless of role a nurse is asked by a pts employer for info on the pts prognosis. what info if any can the nurse disclose a. the pts diagnosis but not the prognosis b. all the info if the diagnosis is employer related c. no info without consent from the pt d. the pts prognosis but not the diagnosis c. no info without consent from the pt who may determine capacity for the purpose of the substitute decisions act a. a trained capacity assessor b. any MD or social worker c. the pts SDM d. the office of the public guardian and trustee a. a trained capacity assessor a nurse is proving care for a pt in the pts home. after the nurse provides treatment, the pt invites the nurse out for a coffee. how should the nurse respond a. decline the offer and clarify the nurses role in the nurse pt relationship b. accept the offer as it would be beneficial to further develop the nurse pt relationship c. decline the offer and promptly leave the pts home d. agree to meet the pt for coffee but only to discuss the therapeutic care plan a. decline the offer and clarify the nurses role in the nurse pt relationship a nurse is overheard saying "your breast looks great in that shirt" to a pt. the nurse smiles and walks away. is this sexual abuse a. no because sexual contact is not made b. no because the pt did not object c. yes because the comment was of a sexual nature d. yes because any unwelcome remark is a form a sexual abuse c. yes because the comment was of a sexual nature consistent with the health care consent act when is a nurse required to obtain consent for treatment a. providing nursing service to an ill 8 yo in a community health centre b. administering blood products to a hemorrhaging pt in the operating room c. performing CPR on an individual who has been found unconscious on the street d. treating an unconscious pt with a head injury in the ER a. providing nursing service to an ill 8 yo in a community health centre what is the legislation related to the CNO practice standards restraints a. health care consent act b. pt restraints minimization act c. occupational health and safety act d. health protection and promotion act b. pt restraints minimization act which one of the following circumstances is mandatory for nurses to self report to CNO a. pardoned criminal offences b. communicable diseases c. work related discipline d. frequent med errors a. pardoned criminal offences what is one purpose of nursing documentation a. to limit involvement to legal proceedings b. to record every care event experienced by the pt c. to communicate interventions in care to the health care team d. to protect the practice of colleagues c. to communicate interventions in care to the health care team a nurse has recently relocated and changed employers. what is the nurses responsibility to CNO a. report address changes to CNO when renewing the nurses annual membership b. advise the nurses new employer to fax all changes to CNO c. immediately update any changes to the nurses employer or home address with CNO d. re-register and submit the new info the CNO a. report address changes to CNO when renewing the nurses annual membership a 79 yo mentally competent pt is at high risk for falls. the nurse recommends the use of a cane or a walker, but the pt refuses. what should the nurse do first a. explore other options with the pt that may be acceptable b. request that the MD speak to the pt c. call the pts SDM to discuss the matter d. refer the pt to a physio for assessment a. explore other options with the pt that may be acceptable what is CNOs mandate a. to develop practice standards b. to protect the public interest c. to provide a disciplinary body available to the public d. to create entry to practice requirements in ontario b. to protect the public interest which one of the following statements represents a component of therapeutic communication used by nurses a. using terms of endearment when addressing pt b. speaking slowly and loudly to all pt to asset they hear and understand c. modifying their communication style for each pt d. sharing personal info with the pt in order to establish trust and a feeling of intimacy c. modifying their communication style for each pt what is the key pieces of legislation that protects the pts confidentiality a. personal health info protection act b. quality of care information protection act c. regulated health professional act d. health care consent act a. personal health info protection act which one of the following statements is considered to be a directive a. a written MD order that may be used for a number of pt b. a pt specific order that may be used for a number of pt which one of the following examples always reflects establishing and maintaining appropriate boundaries in the therapeutic nurse pt relationship a. providing care to the nurses relatives or friends b. disclosing the nurses personal info to pt c. engaging in financial transactions with the pt or pts family d. documenting consultation with a colleague about a questionable pt interaction d. documenting consultation with a colleague about a questionable pt interaction a nurse has relocated to ontario from florida. which one of the following facts is the nurse obligated to report to CNO a. contact info for the nurses most recent employer in florida b. the nurses score on the florida state board exam c. the nurse has been disciplined by the florida state nursing body d. the termination of the nurses employment by a previous florida employer c. the nurse has been disciplined by the florida state nursing body d. the termination of the nurses an RPN assesses that a pt in the home requires routine urinary catheterization. what must be considered prior to initiation a. determining whether the family MD would approve the order b. identifying the risks and benefits of the procedure c. reviewing the health record to determine the effectiveness of the previous treatment d. consulting with a colleague about the procedure b. identifying the risks and benefits of the procedure a nurse is caring for a pt on life support. the pts estranged spouse who is the pts power of attorney for personal care, visits on a regular basis. the nurse has become attracted to the pts spouse and has been invited to the spouses home for dinner. what demonstrates protecting the pt from abuse a. requesting permission from the nurses manager before accepting the invitation b. declining the invitation to the spouses home c. requesting to be reassigned to a different pt before accepting the invitation d. agreeing to meet the spouse in public location only b. declining the invitation to the spouses home a nurse may disclose personal health info without consent in which one of the following situation a. the police request info about a pts progress b. an interpreter is being used to interview the pt c. an adult pt has been sexually assaulted d. the pt poses a serious risk of injuring others d. the pt poses a serious risk of injuring others what controlled act is a nurse authorized to perform, when ordered as found in the nursing act a. putting an instrument beyond the external ear canal b. managing labour c. conducting an allergy test d. supervising the dispensing of a drug in a pharmacy a. putting an instrument beyond the external ear canal according to the CNO standard practice; professional standards what is one element of accountability a. nurses are accountable for explaining all treatment proposed by the health care team b. nurses are accountable for explaining all treatment proposed by the health care team c. nurses are accountable for their actions and their consequences d. nurses are accountable for reporting all errors to CNO c. nurses are accountable for their actions and their consequences after receiving the necessary info, a pt makes an informed choice to stop all treatment. the pt his family and nurse understand that the pt will not live without treatment. the pts family wants the pt to continue with his treatment and the nurse agrees. with respect to pt choice how should the nurse proceed a. repeat the family's wishes and continue treatment for the pt b. arrange for another caregiver and then withdraw from the situation c. inform the pt that the treatment will continue and in a few days he will have a capacity assessment d. recognize that the pt does not have the right to refuse treatment that has positive health outcomes c. inform the pt that the treatment will continue and in a few days he will have a capacity assessment when sharing health info, in which one of the following scenarios is a nurse best demonstrating confidentiality a. discussion with the pts family in private, without informing the pt b. discussion with pts employer, with the pts permission c. discussion with any health care provider, without informing the pt d. discussion with the pt in the public area with the pts permission b. discussion with pts employer, with the pts permission a nurse witnesses another nurse taking a pts personal items from the pts room. what is the first action the nurse should take a. report it to CNO immediately b. discuss the matter with the health care team c. speak to the nurse regarding the matter d. inform the pt of what observed c. speak to the nurse regarding the matter a nurse witnesses another regulated health worker making a sexual comment to a pt. to whom does the nurse have a legal responsibility to report this person a. the holder of the pts power of attorney for personal care b. the other members of the health care team c. the manager of the health care team member d. the regulatory college of the health care team member c. the manager of the health care team member what is one activity that all nurses should engage in to provide quality care to pt in regard to the use of restraints a. advocating for medication therapy b. adjusting staffing level c. isolating agitated pt in a private space d. collaborating with the health care team d. collaborating with the health care team what must nurses reflect upon when determining whether they are competent to provide safe nursing care to pt a. legislation, policies, and procedures b. environment, staffing levels and equipment c. knowledge, skill and judgment d. education, experience and specialization c. knowledge, skill and judgment which one of the following statements best describes the pts in the context of the therapeutic nurse pt relationship a. an individual, family group or community b. an individual who receives direct care c. an individual requiring therapeutic nursing interventions d. an individual or group, other than health care providers, who receive treatment a. an individual, family group or community what organization regulates nurses in ontario a. college of nurses of ontario b. registered nurses association of ontario c. ontario nurse association d. canadian nurses association a. college of nurses of ontario every time the nurse begins work on the afternoon shift, she finds that most of the pt incont briefs are saturated. after providing care for the pts, what should the nurse do a. advocate for superior incont products b. communicate her concerns to the day staff c. ask the nursing educator to teach day staff how to meet pts basic needs d. intervene by reporting the incidents to the manager b. communicate her concerns to the day staff what are the components of the therapeutic nurse pt relationship a. respect, trust, professional intimacy, empathy and power b. communication, cultural sensitivity, understanding, advocacy and professionalism c. empowerment, compassion, tolerance, autonomy and cooperation d. fairness, acceptance, sympathy, accountability and collaboration b. CNO practice standard; documentation c. CNO practice guideline; guiding decisions d. regulated health professions a. nursing act in which one of the following situation can a nurse perform a controlled act a. a pharmacist writes an order for a new injectable med b. a nurse performs wound packing below the mucous membrane for a pts family member c. a nurse disimpacts a pt, knowing that the MD will write the order during daily rounds d. a dentist writes an order from the nurse to start a pre-procedural IV d. a dentist writes an order from the nurse to start a pre-procedural IV a nurse is obtaining consent from a pt for treatment. the nurse describes the info about the treatment requires to make a decision. what else must the nurse do to provide informed consent a. ensure that the pt is of a minimum age to give consent b. provide the pt with written info c. respond to the pts questions regarding the treatment d. obtain a signature from the pt c. respond to the pts questions regarding the treatment an RN case manager visits a pt in the community whose needs are becoming more complex. according to the CNO practice guideline; RN and RPN practice; the pt the nurse and the environment, what is one factor that the case manager must consider when determining the appropriate category of care provider a. leadership b. equipment c. cost d. environment a. leadership a nurse document all the care provided during the workday at the end of the shift. which documentation standard has the nurse breached a. care must be documented immediately after it occurs b. documentation must be relevant to pt care c. documentation must be comprehensive d. care must be documented in a timely manner a. care must be documented immediately after it occurs which of the following standard statement is from the CNO practice standard; therapeutic nurse-pt relationship a. maintaining commitments to pt b. potential for harm c. pt well being d. pt centered care d. pt centered care according to the CNO practice standard; ethics which one of the following terms represents ethical values related to pt choice a. self-esteem b. self-worth c. self-respect d. self-determination d. self-determination why are nurses expected to collaborate or consult with each other a. to benefit the pt b. to ensure accountability c. to increase the nurses autonomy d. to increase collegiality a. to benefit the pt what is the key element of informed consent a. it is required before providing emergency care b. a substitute decision-maker must provide consent if the pt is under 16 yo age c. it can only be obtained by the health care professional providing the care d. the pt receives responses to requests for additional info about treatment d. the pt receives responses to requests for additional info about treatment a pt complaint has been made in regard to a PWS. the employer contacts CNO to report the complaint. was contacting CNO appropriate a. yes because PSW work under the supervision of nurses b. yes because CNO regulates practice of health care providers c. no because the employer should have conducted an investigation first d. no because CNO is not responsible for regulating PSW d. no because CNO is not responsible for regulating PSW a nurse working in a cancer care center encounter many competent pt who refuse further treatment. the nurse disagrees with the pt decision and believes she cannot continue to provide care. what should the nurse consider a. arranging for a capacity assessments of the pt before discontinuing treatment b. continuing to provide treatment until consulting with the pts family c. resigning from her place of employment to adhere to her personal values d. encouraging the pt to continue with their current treatment plans a. arranging for a capacity assessments of the pt before discontinuing treatment what is a condition associated with the appropriate delegation of controlled acts to unregulated care providers a. competence has been determined b. it is part of their scope of practice c. it is an expectation of the employer d. pt teaching is a part of the care a. competence has been determined according to the CNO practice standard; professional standards which action by a nurse best describe the standard statement knowledge application a. receiving a report from another nurse and proceeding to prepare med b. taking vital signs and recording the findings in the pts chart c. recognizing that a pt is exhibiting the symptoms of a stroke and taking appropriate action d. providing a pts grieving family member with info for supporting groups and documenting the actions taken c. recognizing that a pt is exhibiting the symptoms of a stroke and taking appropriate action what is one part of the self assessment component of CNO quality assurance program a. practice evaluation b. practice reflection c. practice assessment d. practice consultation b. practice reflection a nurse who works with street youth, intentionally reveals her breast tattoo to a group of pt. another nursing colleague witnesses this action. is the colleague required to report behaviour to CNO a. no only professional misconduct must be reported b. yes sexual abuse must be reported c. no this is only considered a frivolous complaint d. yes but only the pt must report the event b. yes sexual abuse must be reported a pt has been deemed incapable of making her own decisions and has no family. whom should the nurse contact for decision-making and consent for treatment a. the most responsible MD b. the pts social worker c. the office of the public guardian and trustee d. the pts closest friend c. the office of the public guardian and trustee erica an RN is working in the role of an UCP at an LTC. is erica accountable to practice in accordance with the CNO standards a. no because erica is not being paid as an RN b. yes because erica must comply with LTC act c. no because erica is working in a UCP role d. yes because erica is registered as an RN consistent with the nursing act, which one of the following examples involves a nurse correctly exercising the right to refuse assignments or discontinue nursing services a. a nurse is called at home and asked to work an extra shift over the weekend. the nurse is very fatigued and refuses b. a nurse from homeware plans to do a dressing change in a pts home, but a delay causes the nurse to decide to change the dressing the next day c. a homecare nurse is assigned a new pt. upon arrival at the home, the nurse discovers that the pt smokes. the nurse refuses to visit the pt because of the risks associated with second hand smoke d. a nurse working on a labour and delivery unit refuses to cross a picket line due to the belief that the administration is not bargaining in good faith c. a homecare nurse is assigned a new pt. upon arrival at the home, the nurse discovers that the pt smokes. the nurse refuses to visit the pt because of the risks associated with second hand smoke when can a nurse discontinue nursing services for a cognitively impaired pt without resulting in professional misconduct a. if replacement services have been arranged b. when the substitute decision maker has been informed c. if the nurse is respecting the pts wishes d. when alternate care has been discussed with the MD a. if replacement services have been arranged while off duty the nurse is charged with impaired driving. ultimately she is found guilt of this offence. following this finding does the nurse have any obligation to CNO a. yes because the nurse must self report a finding of guilt for an offence b. no because the nurse was not working at the time of the offence c. yes because the nurse must incorporate the finding of guilt into reflective practice d. no because the nurse is only obligated to report sexual abuse a. yes because the nurse must self report a finding of guilt for an offence a pt is transferred to palliative care. the pt asks for the nurses personal phone number in case he has questions regarding pain management. based on the content of the CNO practice standard; therapeutic nurse pt relationship what should the nurse do a. inform the pt that palliative care team will assume his care b. provide the phone number to facilitate pt trust c. discuss the pts concern with the palliative care team d. explore the pts concerns regarding pain management d. explore the pts concerns regarding pain management why is continuing competence a professional requirement a. it contributes to quality nursing practice b. it fulfills a requirement for employers annual performance appraisals c. it contributes to change in the health care environment d. it enhances inter professional collaboration a. it contributes to quality nursing practice the nurse encounters a confused, combative pt. which one of the following actions would represent abuse a. calling the pt name loudly to get his attention b. ignoring the pt until he becomes calm c. administering a sedative under a pt specific order d. assuming a defensive stance in response to the pt trying to hit the nurse b. ignoring the pt until he becomes calm according to the CNO practice standards; decisions about procedures and authority what is one of the 4 standards a nurse must consider before performing any procedure a. agency directives b. the existence of a direct order c. the potential for delegation d. appropriate care provider d. appropriate care provider what is warning sign that a nurse may not be effectively maintaining the boundaries of the therapeutic nurse pt relationship a. accepting a gift of food that was not solicited by the nurse b. counselling a pt in a mental health setting while having coffee in the facility cafe c. frequently thinking about the pt when away from work d. engaging in a sexual relationship with a pt after termination of the therapeutic nurse pt relationship c. frequently thinking about the pt when away from work according to the CNO standard; ethics what is one of the ethical values a. competence b. health promotion c. maintaining commitments d. substitute decision making c. maintaining commitments which one of the following actions is an example of a controlled acts that all nurses are authorized to perform as per the nursing act a. performing a pts digital retcal exam c. communicating a diagnosis of diabetes to a pt c. managing a pts labour and delivery d. setting a pt dislocated shoulder a. performing a pts digital retcal exam what federal legislation relates to narcotics a. controlled drugs and substance act b. regulated health professions c. drug and pharmacies regulation act d. canada health act a. controlled drugs and substance act a visiting nurse is providing foot care to an 85 yo pt. which one of the following behaviour may be considered abusive in the context of the therapeutic nurse pt relationship a. agreeing to have financial trusteeship with respect to the pt b. accepting a gift of flowers from the pt upon discharge c. engaging in a romantic relationship with the pts son following discharge d. providing the pt with the nurses pager number a. agreeing to have financial trusteeship with respect to the pt what differentiate RPNs from RNs a. RPNs do not study from the same body of nursing knowledge b. RPNs achieve a greater breath of knowledge in clinical practice c. RPNs achieve a greater depth of knowledge in resources management d. RPNs achieve a more focused or basic foundation of knowledge d. RPNs achieve a more focused or basic foundation of knowledge which one of the following actions can a nurse take involving personal health info a. sharing info from chart audits with the health care team for quality assurance purposes b. discussing details about an assault victim with a police officer at the ER c. collecting health care data for a research project that has approved by CNO d. confirming that a pt resides within a facility and the pts diagnosis a. sharing info from chart audits with the health care team for quality assurance purposes chris an RN is working on the same shift as a friend who is under investigation by CNO. Chris is concerned that she may be asked to participate as a witness in the investigation. what will chris need to consider a. failure to cooperate in a college investigation may be considered to be an act of professional misconduct b. loyalty among colleagues is essential in maintaining a healthy work environment c. the college does not allow personal friends to participate in investigations due to the potential for a conflict of interest d. nurses are under no obligation to participate in investigations as witnesses c. the college does not allow personal friends to participate in investigations due to the potential for a conflict of interest an NP has written an order for an influenza immunization at a local clinic. what should the RPN do a. implement the order b. request that the RN administer the med c. refuse to administer the med d. call the MD to confirm the order a. caring and compassionate b. collegial and knowledgable c. supportive and comprehensive d. therapeutic and professional d. therapeutic and professional what is one part of the definition of professional misconduct as defined by the health professions procedural code a. guilty of an offence relevant to the members suitability to practice b. has a physical condition limiting practice c. guilty of a criminal offence under ontario law d. has a mental illness that limits the members suitability to practice safely a. guilty of an offence relevant to the members suitability to practice which one of the following statements describes the ethical value related to privacy and confidentiality as outlined in the CNO practice standard; ethics a. maintaining pt well-being b. using a framework to determine ethical uncertainty c. supporting informed decision making for pt d. collecting only info necessary to providing health care d. collecting only info necessary to providing health care the MD asks a nurse to perform a wound dressing change for a 15 yo under the nurses care. is consent needed a. no because routine treatment does not require consent b. yes because of the age of the pt c. no because the treatment was ordered by the MD d. yes because consent is required for any treatment d. yes because consent is required for any treatment according to the practice standard ethics, which of the following statements best describes the ethical values related to privacy and confidentiality a. ethical problems are identified and solved by nurses using sensitivity, intellectual, curiosity and commitment b. nurses must understand the organizations perspective of privacy and confidentiality prior to sharing info c. pt need to be informed that their relevant health info will be shared with the health care team d. important aspects of privacy and confidentiality need to be identified by pt families c. pt need to be informed that their relevant health info will be shared with the health care team which of the following examples reflects one of the three controlled acts that all nurses are authorized to perform according to the nursing act a. communicating to an individual a diagnosis based on lab results b. managing labour or conducting the delivery of a baby c. putting an instrument, hand or finger into an artificial opening in the body d. moving the joints of the spine beyond the pt usual range of motion c. putting an instrument, hand or finger into an artificial opening in the body a pt situation arises that may present an ethical issue. what is the first thing the nurse must do a. review the employers policies and procedures b. discuss the issue with the health care team c. determine the pts wishes d. consult the supervisor c. determine the pts wishes which one of the following health care providers is appropriately using the authorizing mechanism of initiation a. an RN who establishes peripheral venous access in an emergency situation b. an RPN who cleanses, soaks, probes and packs a wound below the dermis c. a PSW who discontinues an IV site d. an RN who performs an elective cardio version a. an RN who establishes peripheral venous access in an emergency situation a nurse is advocating for a group of pt to obtain government subsidies for adequate nutrition. according to the CNO practice standard; professional standards which one of the following standard statement best describes the nurse actions a. relationship b. accountability c. knowledge d. leadership b. accountability a MD gives a nurse a phone directive to catheterize the MDs admitted pt. why should the nurse refuse to follow this directive a. direct orders must be always written for any procedure and treatment b. nurses can initiate catheterization on in pt without a directive c. directives must always be written and signed by the MD/NP d. nurses must always have act of catheterization delegated c. directives must always be written and signed by the MD/NP what is the purpose of mandatory reporting to CNO a. to update CNO regarding address changes b. to protect nursing colleagues c. to notify CNO of unsafe nursing practice d. to enforce limitation on nurses practices c. to notify CNO of unsafe nursing practice a pt expresses a wish to die at home. the nurses discusses the pts expectations and negotiates a plan of care involving all relevant parties. according to the CNO practice standard; therapeutic nurse pt relationship which standard statement does this demonstrate a. therapeutic communication b. maintaining boundaries c. pt centered care d. maintaining a quality practice setting c. pt centered care which of the following nursing practice demonstrates pt choice a. providing the pt with the necessary info for informed decision making b. exploring the wishes of the health care team regarding pt care c. encouraging the pt to choose a specific treatment option d. having a substitute decision maker appointed for incapable pt a. providing the pt with the necessary info for informed decision making a nurse disagrees with the pts decision to terminate a pregnancy for genetic reasons and wishes to discontinue nursing care. what should the nurse do first a. discuss changing the pts plan of care with the health care team b. attempt to convince the pts family that there are other options c. consult with a nursing colleague to clarify the nurses own values d. report the plan of care to the ethics review values c. consult with a nursing colleague to clarify the nurses own values which one of the following options is an example of an authorizing mechanism a. standing order b. delegation c. practice guideline d. advance directive b. delegation Who is the creator and enforcer of the practice act? Physical therapy board of California (PTBC) This practice act is made for protection of what? Of the public (highest priority). When the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted it's the protection of the public that is paramount. Brainpower Read More Where is the board located? In Sacramento. Bactericidal agents, debriding agents, topical anesthetic agents, anti-inflammatory agents, antispasmodic agents, and adrenocortical-steroids. Are PT's allowed to penetrate tissue for the purpose of evaluating neuromuscular performance? They are allowed to with specific authorization of MD's/Surgeons. PTs however cannot make diagnostic/prognostic interpretation of results. What is electroneuromyography? Performance of tissue penetration for the purpose of evaluating neuromuscular performance. This DOES include evaluation of specific abnormal potentials and evoked responses. What is required to be certified in electroneuromyography? 400 hours of training under a PT or licensed physician authorized to perform electroneuromyography and 200 electroneuromyography exams. What is kinesiological electromyography? It is the phasic activity of individual or multiple muscles in relation to another physical/physiological event or exercise and DOES NOT include the evaluation of specific abnormal potentials or evoked responses. What is required to be certified in kinesiological electromyography? 200 hours of training under a PT or licensed physician authorized to perform kinesiological electromyography and 50 kinesiological electromyography exams. What is the PT certification and certification renewal process? PT's must take an initial exam for certification. Certificates are then renewed with each PT's license (every 2 years). How much do certification exams/re-exams cost/ $500, plus $100 application fee. How much is it to renew your certification? $50. What must be posted or given to the patient for any evaluation with use of penetrating the tissues for neuromuscular evaluation? A handout must be give and a sign must be posted that states the findings of this report do not represent diagnostic interpretations or medical diagnoses. The results of electromyographic examination by the certified examiner are intended for integration by the physician/surgeon with the patient's history, clinical exam and results of any other tests performed in establishing a medical diagnosis. License requirements for working within physical therapy? Anyone performing any PT practice for compensation (received or expected) must have a license. These licenses are issued by and filed by the PTBC. What are the qualifications to be an applicant for a license? Be older than 18, not addicted to any substance, completed education and training (section 2650), and not committed any crimes (section 480). What are the exams required to obtain a license? The laws/regulations, and the National physical therapy exam (NPTE). How many aides can be utilized by the PT? Can use one aide with "patient-related tasks" What is immediate supervision of an aide? AT ALL TIMES, the PT is in the same facility in close proximity. What must the PT perform if an aide provides direct patient-related tasks? The PT must perform direct care on same day. What defines patient related tasks? A PT service rendered directly to patient (tasks other than non-related tasks). EX: Therapeutic exercise. When can patient related tasks be performed by a PT aide? Only after the PT has performed an evaluation. What defines non-patient related tasks? A task related to observation of patient, transport of patient, physical support only during gait or transfer training, housekeeping, clerical duties. What level of supervision must a PT program graduate be under while working as a license applicant (PTLA)? Must be under DIRECT and IMMEDIATE supervision of a licensed PT pending results of first licensing exam for which he/she is eligible. Who must be on site at ALL times while PTLA is practicing? The licensed supervising PT. How must a graduate PT present themselves prior to receiving their licensure? Physical therapist license applicant. At what time will the PT change from a PTLA to a PT? Until their license is issued after passing their required exams. What would remove a PTLA's licensure applicant status? Failing their exam, licensure is denied by the board, or the individual does not take the exam during the first possible test. How must a PT student identify themselves during rotations? As a PT student or PT intern. What is the difference between PT student vs PT intern? Student = Not finished with coursework. Intern = finished with coursework. What is the rule for student/intern documentation? The student/intern will document all treatment completed by them and the supervising CI will countersign with his/her first initial and last name all entries in the patient's record. When does the student/intern documentation have to be completed by? Documentation will be finished and contersigned by the CI on the SAME DAY as patient related tasks were performed. True or false, the CCCE and CI must be APTA certified? True What date was it expected that all CCCE and CI be APTA certified? 01/01/2010 What is the clinical experience required for PT's to sit for their board exam? 18 weeks of full time clinical experience with a variety of patients. For PTA students, who are they supervised by while in clinical experiences? Must be supervised by a PT. May a PTA act as a CI? Yes, so long as there is a PT present to supervise. This PT must still countersign notes on the SAME DAY as patient related tasks were performed. By what time do notes have to be co-signed? Notes must be co-signed on the same day. What are the requirements for foreign education applicants? Provide complete transcript and professional instruction completed/submitted direction from proper official of the PT education program. It is a voluntary admission into the program by a clinician. Does participation in the diversion program provide a defense to any disciplinary action? Participation is NOT a defense to any disciplinary action. How many units of continuing education required for renewal? 30 hours every 2 years. When do your continuing education hours expire? At midnight on the last day of your birth month. What is the process for renewal? Apply on a board approved form, pay the fee, submit proof of completion of continuing education or competency required by the board. When will the board notify the licensee that they are up for renewal? At least 60 days before the expiration of any license. They will notify each licensee at the last address furnished by the licensee. What is the definition of "hour" for continuing education credit? It's the unit of measurement and means at least 50 mins of instruction. What is the abbreviation for continuing education unit? CEU How many hours does 1 CEU equal? 10 hours. How many CEU hours are required for FIRST TIME license renewals? And what are the requirements to do so? 15 hours, this must be submitted prior to expiration of license for this to apply. What specific CEU hours are required for renewals? 2 hours in laws/ethics/regulations or some combination. 4 hours in life support for healthcare providers (these courses must be comparable to or better the AHA's BLS course for healthcare providers). How long must a licensee keep records of their continuing education credits? At least 5 years. How long must the Con-ed provider retain documentation of course content and attendees? 7 years after completing the course. For a licensee to apply for exemption to renewal, what must they be able to demonstrate? 1) Evidence that during the renewal period prior to expiration the licensee was residing in another country for a year or longer. 2) Evidence that licensee was absent from CA because of military service for a period of one year or longer. 3) Reasons of health including: total physical/mental disability for 1 year or more and inability to work as verified by a physician/psychologist, total physical/mental disability of an immediate family member for whom the licensee had total responsibility as verified by physician/psychologist. How many times can an exemption be granted? Exemption cannot be granted for two consecutive renewal periods. What is an inactive status? It is the status granted if unable to obtain Con-ed hours. What must be submitted for an inactive status? Apply, and the same dues/renewal time period applies as active status. What are the practicing restriction for an inactive status? Not allowed to engage in any activity that requires an active PT license. What is necessary to return to active license from an inactive status? Pay the renewal and any continuing competency fees, as well as coplete continuing education equivalent to that required for a single renewal period (30 hours). Who's over the licensee's with an inactive status? The PTBC is over them and is the authority for any disciplinary action or enforcement. How many years do you have to renew our license following expiration before having to obtain a new license? Within 5 years. To renew an expired license within 5 years, you must? Pay all of accrued and unpaid renewal fees and meet satisfaction of continuing education. What happens if you fail to renew your license within 5 years of expiration? You may not renew, reissue or reinstate thereafter. But you may apply for and obtain a NEW license. What is a PT corporation? A corporation that is authorized to render professional services. What must a PT corporation be in compliance with? Must be in compliance with Moscone-Knox Professional Corporation Act. What governmental agency is referred to in the Moscone-Knox Professional Corporation Act? The PTBC is referred. In a physical therapy corporation, who must be a licensed person? Each shareholder, the director and the officer of a physical therapy corporation (except secretary and treasurer). Who may be issued shares of a capital stock in a professional corporation? Shares of a capital stock in a professional corporation may only be issued to a licensed person. When one shareholder in a professional corporation of 2 or more shareholders dies or becomes a disqualified person for a period exceeding 90 days, what happens to their shares? By what time must this happen? Their shares shall be sold and transferred to the corporation it's shareholder's or other eligible licensed persons on such terms are agreed upon. Must happen within 6 MONTHS after death, 90 days after person labeled disqualified. Taking > 15 days to provide the board with requested certified copies of documents can lead to charges of? and What are reasonable exceptions to this? Unprofessional conduct. Illness or travel can be reasonable exceptions. What must be reported within 30 days of occurrence to avoid charges of unprofessional conduct? 1) An indictment or felony charge against the licensee 2) The arrest of the licensee 3) The conviction of the licensee of any verdict of guilty, pleas of guilty or no contest of an felony or misdemeanor. What are the charges for violating unprofessional conduct? Charged with a misdemeanor and punishable by a fine not exceeding $1000 or imprisonment in county jail not exceeding 6 months or both. How long must a citation remain on record? 5 years, if multiple occur within the 5 year window then all citations will remain until most recent citation has been present for 5 years. What is the lesser administrative fine for citations? Typically no less than $100 and no more than $2500. Make an initial report by TELEPHONE to the agency IMMEDIATELY or as soon as practically possible AND fax/send/transmit a written follow-up report within 36 hours of receiving the information concerning the event. What must occur if there are two or more mandated reporters that jointly have knowledge of a known or suspected instance of child abuse/neglect? When there is agreement among them that it is indeed occurring, the telephone report may be made by a member of the team selected by mutual agreement and a single report may be made and a single report may be made and signed by the selected member of the reporting team. What happens if a designated member fails to report? Any member who has knowledge that the member designated to report has failed to do so shall thereafter make the reports. What should the mandated reporter have in their report? 1) Name and location of victim. 2) Character/extent of injury 3) Identity of alleged abuser. What are the mandated reporter's rights when it comes to reporting abuse/neglect? They have immunity and their identity is confidential. Do you have to document the findings in their medical note when reporting as a mandated reporter? Yes, you must document findings in medical note. Reporting to authorities is not an exception to medical documentation What type of charge is failure to report as a mandated reporter? A misdemeanor, with up to 6 months in jail, up to $1000 or both. When must a change of address/residence must be reported? To whom does it get reported? Must be reported within 30 days to the board. What happens if you fail to report a change of address/residence to the board? You will receive a citation and fine. When must a change of name be reported? To whom does it get reported? Must report to the board within 30 days. What happens if you fail to report a change of name to the board? You will receive a citation and fine. What size font must name tags have and who must wear them during patient-related tasks? Name tags of all personnel performing patient-related tasks must have at least size 18-point font. When will an application for licensure be deemed denied? When an applicant fails to pass the examination within ONE YEAR from the date of the original notice to appear for the examination. How many days after submission of application does the board have to notify the applicant if their application is complete or deficient? The board has 30 days from submission of application for licensure and graduation from an approved PT education program to inform applicant if application is complete or deficient and what specific information is required. How many days after completion of the application does the board have to report decision for approving applicant to sit for the exam? The board has 60 TOTAL DAYS after completion of the application to report decision for approving applicant to sit for the examination. What is the earliest date an applicant can reapply for a license, after being revoked due to conviction of a felony? It shall be ONE YEAR from the effective date of the decision. How much is the PT license application fee? $200 not to exceed $300. What is the fee for PT license? $100 not to exceed $150. What is the fee to renew a PT license? $200 not to exceed $300. What is the PTA license application fee? $200 not to exceed $300. What is the fee for PTA license? $125. What is the fee to renew a PTA license? $200 not to exceed $300. What is the delinquency fee for late renewal? It shall be 50% of the renewal fee. How much is the duplicate wall certificate? $50. How many of the 9 members of the Iowa Dental Board are not denstists? 4 What is the function of the Dental Hygiene Committee of the Iowa Dental Board? to make recommendations to the board regarding dental hygiene Brainpower Read More The dental Boards responsibilities include writing rules and regulations, enforce laws that govern the dental profession, set standards T or F: the rule making process takes at least 108 days true T or F: chapter 30 of the Iowa Board rules is where I would find information pertaining to dental assisting? False If I am in Dental Assistant Trainee status I need to pass to become a RDA with radiology qualifications the radiology state exam, the infection control state exam, the jurisprudence state exam what can a dentist not delegate a RDA to do? diagnose, administer anesthesia, place sealants T or F: in all instances, a dentist is responsible for determining, on the basis of diagnosis true T or F: A licensed dentist may delegate to a dental assistant those procedures he/she needs them to do false what is an appropriate means by which a dental assistant can remove plaque/stain? toothbrush T or F: A dental assistant trainee may work under direct supervision. false T or F: A dental assistant may preform certain functions under general supervision when the DDS has diagnosed and prescribed. true 6 years for an adult or until a child is at least 19 (or 6 years, whichever is first) T or F: records must contain name/initials of person who performs treatment or who may have patient contact. true before a doctor may prescribe medications the patient must be examined T or F: new in 2020 all prescriptions are e-prescribed true evaluate, assist, and monitor recovery of dentists, hygienists, and assistants with potential impairment, who? Iowa Practitioner Review Committee T or F: A dental professional is only eligible for IPRC participation if they self report. true The Iowa Dental Board is located where? Des Moines the state agency charged with regulating the professions of dentistry, dental hygiene, and dental assisting in the state of Iowa. Iowa Dental Board who are the 9 board members, appointed by governor and confirmed by Senate 5 dentists, 2 hygienists, 2 public members 3 members committee: 2 hygienists and 1 dentists dental hygiene committee Dentist member elect annually, all matters regarding practice, discipline, education, examination, and licensure of hygienists reviewed by committee first, Make recommendations to Board on all hygiene issues- board must adopt recommendations unless decision would expand scope of practice dental hygiene committee the boards responsibilities are to write the rules and regulations that govern the profession, enforce Iowa laws and Board rules pertaining to dentistry, dental hygiene, and dental assisting, set standards, and administer exams What does the board set standards for licensure and registration, renewal, continuing education, and practice (scope of practice) Notice: to the administrative rules coordinator Published: in the Iowa Administrative Bulletin Adopted: in final form Filed: with the Administrative Rules Coordinators Published: in the Bulletin and codified into the administrative code Effective the Iowa rulemaking process when did adding procedures to general supervision of DA (intraoral imaging) change? 2018 when did allowing RDHs to provide educational services without DDS supervision change? 2018 When did all professions must have at less 1 hour of infection control and jurisprudence start? Sept. 1, 2018 when did reducing the max con ed hours and back fees for lapsed DAs change? 2018 when did allowing live webinars for regular con ed begin? 2018 When did open book exams for jurisprudence begin? 2018 When did online exams for licensing and registration begin? 2018 when did reduced practice requirements for DH to work under PH supervision and When did allow RDHs to use SDF under PH supervision begin? 2018 When did requiring PMP check prior to prescribing an opioid. Dental assistants and dental hygienists can obtain access to the PMP system and serves as delegates? 2019 when did the dentist who prescribe opioids must take 1 hour of con ed related to opioids begin? 2019 sedation rules were updated and teledentistry rules were created in? 2019 Rules updated to eliminate the provision which states that a license or registration can be suspended due to student loan default or noncompliance when? 2019 any person who, Under the supervision of a dentist, performs any extraoral services including infection control, dental radiography, or the use of hazardous materials or performs any intraoral services on patient. dental assistant The term _____ does not include persons otherwise actively licensed in Iowa to practice dental hygiene or nursing who are engaged in the practice of said profession. dental assistant May have added qualification in dental radiography, May have additional training in expanded functions, May work under public health supervision w/1 year practice Registered dental assistants New employees, Allowed to train on the job for up to 12 months while meeting the requirements for registration, Must stop all DA duties if trainee status expires, Must pass exams in infection control/rad/juris, Trainees may "restart" up to 2 times, Trainees may not work independent of another licensee or registrant dental assistant trainees Da trainees only: dentist in room for intraoral functions, another licensee or registrant in room for extraoral services personal supervision dentist has examined the patient and has delegated authorized services, but does not need to be present in the facility general supervision dentist in present in treatment facility, but not necessarily in the treatment room direct supervision authorizes dentist to provide public health supervision to a RDH/RDA, must be provided in a public health setting PH supervision What can a DA do if DDS is out of office? Extraoral services, Dental radiography, Intraoral suctioning, Use of a curing light, Intraoral camera, Intraoral digital imaging