Key Legal Concepts in Criminal Justice, Exams of Advanced Education

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Louisiana Post One Exam

probable cause - Answer- more than bare suspicion. it exist when the facts and circumstances within the officers knowledge and of which they had reasonable trustworthy information are sufficient in themselves reasonable suspicion - Answer- less demanding standard than probable cause not only in the same sense that reasonable suspicion can be established with information that is different in quantity and content that is required to establish probable cause. reasonable suspicion can arise from information that is less reliable than that required to show probable cause. Alabama V. White - Answer- established Reasonable Suspicion Man of reasonable caution - Answer- the average man of the street, who under the same circumstances, would believe that the person being arrested had committed the offense or that the items to be seized would be found in a specific place Illinois V. Gates - Answer- established Totality of circumstances ( the test that if a neutral and detached magistrate determines that, based on informants information and all other available facts, there is probable cause to believe that an arrest or search is justified. probable cause - Answer- the level of certainty needed in order for a police officer to make an arrest reasonable suspicion - Answer- the level of certainty needed in order for a police officer to conduct a stop and frisk Aguilar V. Texas - Answer- Established a two prong test for determining probable cause on the basis of information obtained from an informant :

1. Reliability of the informant
2. Reliability of the informants information Spinelli V. United States 1969 - Answer- established an officer may use credible hearsay to establish probable cause, but an affidavit based on an informants tip must satisfy the two-pronged Aguilar Test Illinois V. Gates - Answer- established that totality of the circumstance replaced "separate and independent" as the standard of probable cause in the Aguilar test.

Draper V. U.S. 1959 - Answer- established that information from an informant plus corroboration satisfied Probable Cause New York Vs. Quarless - Answer- established the public safety doctrine and affirmed reasonable suspicion for the detention of a person matching the description of a suspect located nearby the scene of the crime within minutes of it Hayes V. Florida - Answer- Reasonable suspicion alone does not permit the police to transport a suspect to the police station to obtain fingerprints. Probable Cause or judicial authorization is required Minnesota V. Dickerson - Answer- Established the "plain feel" doctrine that states that when police officers conduct Terry-type searches for weapons, they are free to seize items detected through their sense of touch, as long as the plain feel makes it "immediately apparent" that the item is contraband. If an item seized through a search is not "immediately apparent," then it can be suppressed in court. Dual Sovereignty - Answer- the federal government and the states are separately sovereign. So, the Federal government may prosecute offenders separately for crimes committed within their jurisdiction. jurisdiction - Answer- the power of a court to try a case venue - Answer- The geographic district in which a legal action is tried and from which the jury is selected. appellate review - Answer- review of the results of a trial by a higher court appellate court - Answer- A court having jurisdiction to review cases and issues that were originally tried in lower courts. affirmation - Answer- where the reviewing court agrees with the result of the lower court's ruling reversal - Answer- where the court disagrees with the results of the lower court's ruling reverse and remand decision - Answer- where the reviewing court disagrees with the verdict and sends the case back to the lower court for them to change their position Direct Appeal - Answer- an automatic appeal given to anyone sentenced to death. the appeal is made to the highest court in the state for review Stare decisis - Answer- A Latin phrase meaning "to stand by decided cases" established that Judges are obliged to respect the precedent established by prior decisions.

Judicial precedent - Answer- established that decisions of courts have value as precedent for future similar cases first amendment - Answer- Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances. fourth amendment - Answer- The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized. Fifth Amendment - Answer- A constitutional amendment designed to protect the rights of persons accused of crimes, including protection against double jeopardy, self- incrimination, and punishment without due process of law. Sixth Amendment - Answer- A constitutional amendment designed to protect individuals accused of crimes. It includes the right to counsel, the right to confront witnesses, and the right to a speedy and public trial. eight amendment - Answer- Prohibits cruel and unusual punishment and excessive bail or fines. Fourteenth Amendment - Answer- provides the right to due process and the right to equal protection case holdings - Answer- a crime punishable by two years in prison, although classified under Louisiana law as a misdemeanor, is a serious crime, and therefore the defendant is entitled to. jury trial seizure - Answer- the exercise of domination or control by the government over persons or things because of violation of law Coolidge V. New Hampshire - Answer- a neutral and detached magistrate search warrant - Answer- valid for ten days from they the judge sis the warrant. cannot be executed at nighttime, Sunday's and on holidays Schmerber v. California - Answer- established the exigent circumstances was an exception for a search warrant Missouri Vs. McNeely - Answer- overturned Schmerber V. California - established that the ability to obtain a telephonic warrant in minutes as opposed to hours when the schmerber case was decided

first class mail - Answer- letters and packages are fully protected under the fourth amendment Chimel V. California - Answer- Established that when arresting a suspect, the officer may only search what is the immediate control of the victim (without a search warrant). U.S. V. Katz - Answer- reasonable expectation of privacy Maryland V. Garrison - Answer- the validity of a warrant must be judged in light of the information available to the officer at the time they obtained the warrant arizona v. gant - Answer- Police may only search a vehicle incident to arrest if: The arrestee might access the vehicle @ the time of search, or the vehicle contains evidence of the offense he was arrested for. U.S. V. Jones - Answer- Court found that police use of a GPS tracker constituted a 'search' and required a valid warrant Horton V. California - Answer- Fourth Amendment does not prohibit seizure of belongings not specifically listed in a warrant if items are in plain view and are found during a legal search for legal items. Not inadvertent. open view - Answer- instances when the officer is out in open space, but sees an item within an enclosed area open fields - Answer- not protected by the 4th amendment's guarantee against unreasonable searches and seizures, so they can properly be taken by an officer without a warrant of probable cause curtilage - Answer- the area to which extends the intimate activity associated with the sanctity of a man's home and the privacies of life Oliver v. U.S. - Answer- Police are exempt from private property trespassing restrictions and may search any area of private property, even when there are fences and No Trespassing signs, except for the area immediately around "the home". determining if property is abandoned - Answer- where the property is left and the intent to abandon the property Carroll V. United States - Answer- The warrant-less search of a car does not violate the Constitution. The mobility of the automobile makes it impracticable to get a search warrant. search STILL REQUIRES PROBABLE CAUSE Colorado V. Bertine - Answer- inventory searches are allowed to secure an arrestee's property from loss of damage and to protect police from false claims

Terry V. Ohio - Answer- established stop and frisk.. confession - Answer- when a person says he or she committed the act admission - Answer- when the person owns up to something related to the act, but may not have committed it Escobedo v. Illinois - Answer- 1964--Ruled that a defendant must be allowed access to a lawyer before questioning by police. when the process shifts from investigatory to accusatory and focuses on the accused, they must be advised of the right to counsel custodial interrogation - Answer- takes place when the suspect is in custody and interrogation. waiver - Answer- an intentional relinquishment of a known right or remedy.. rights must be waived intelligently and voluntarily witness - Answer- a person who has personal knowledge of a matter hearsay - Answer- A statement, other than one made by the declarant while testifying at the trial or hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted. Frye Doctrine - Answer- for scientific evidence to be admissible at trial, the procedures used must be sufficiently established to have gained general acceptance in the particular field to which they belong Kirby v. Illinois - Answer- The sixth amendment rights to counsel do not apply to pre- indictment identification procedures. kirby rule - Answer- a person who has not been formally charged with an offense is not entitled to a lawyer during a lineup U.S. V. Wade - Answer- Held that a lineup or other face to face confrontation after the accused has been formally charged with an offense is considered a critical stage of proceedings; therefore the accused has a right to have counsel present. Wade- Gilbert Rule - Answer- after being formally charged with a crime, a suspect in a lineup or other confrontation is entitled to have a lawyer present arrest - Answer- the taking of one person into custody by another Miranda V. Arizona - Answer- Supreme Court held that criminal suspects must be informed of their right to consult with an attorney and of their right against self- incrimination prior to questioning by police.

Mapp v. Ohio - Answer- Evidence illegally gathered by the police may not be used in a criminal trial. Also established the exclusionary rule for states. Tennesse V. Garner - Answer- Deadly force may not be used against an unarmed and fleeing suspect unless necessary to prevent the escape and unless the officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious injury to the officers or others. Graham V. Connor - Answer- determined that the reasonableness of a particular use of force must be judged from the perspective of how a reasonable officer on the scene would respond, rather than from the 20/20 perspective of hindsight. Four Graham Factors - Answer- 1. Severity of Crime

2. immediacy of threat
3. actively resisting
4. evading arrest by flight Carrol V. US - Answer- Automobiles may be searched without a warrant because they are highly movable. Katz v. US - Answer- Reasonable expectation of privacy; phone conversations. U.S. Robinson - Answer- Scope of the search of a person incident to arrest is for evidence of a crime, means of escape, & weapons. types of reports - Answer- Initial, supplemental, concluding components of criminal justice system - Answer- Police, Courts, Corrections Tort - Answer- A civil wrong by one person to another three types of evidence - Answer- Physical or real, Circumstantial, Testimonial sadist - Answer- One who inflicts pain to others masochist - Answer- Someone who inflicts pain on self Bill Of Rights - Answer- The first ten amendments to the Constitution Stop and Frisk - Answer- reasonable suspicion is required five grades of homicide - Answer- 1st Degree Murder,2nd Degree Murder,Manslaughter,Negligent Homicide,Vehicular Homicide - Driver must be impaired youngest a juvenile can be tried as an adult - Answer- 15 yoa

rape - Answer- Non-consensual anal, vaginal or oral sexual penetration. Battery - Answer- the intentional use of force or violence upon the person of another; or the intentional administration of a poison or other noxious liquid or substance to another. LRS 14:98 - Answer- DWI colt revolver rotates - Answer- clockwise smith and Wesson revolver rotates - Answer- counter clockwise 7 parts of shotgun - Answer- Barrel,Stock,Receiver,Forearm,Trigger,Trigger Guard,Safety Heroin - Answer- Schedule I Marijuana - Answer- Schedule I hydrocodone - Answer- schedule II cocaine - Answer- schedule II four reasons people steal cars - Answer- Joy Riding, Transportation, Professional, and to Commit Crimes Necrophilia - Answer- sexual attraction to corpses squib load - Answer- a round which fails to fire due to insufficient powder/primer periods of suspension for refusing a field sobriety test - Answer- 1st. 180 days 2nd. 545 days cylinder assembly of a revolver - Answer- Cylinder, Extractor, Extractor Rod, Ratchet and Crane age where juveniles are exempt from criminal responsibility - Answer- under 10 yoa 2 types of ammunition - Answer- center fire and rim fire voyeurism - Answer- Peeping tom, pleasure viewing others clothed/nude pyromania - Answer- a compulsion to set things on fire pedophile - Answer- sexual desire for children

two methods for loading a shotgun - Answer- assembly and combat vicarious liability - Answer- A supervisor is responsible for employees actions three types of fingerprints - Answer- Arches, Loops, and Whorls parties of an offense - Answer- Principles and Accessories after the fact exception to the hearsay rule - Answer- excited utterance Temporary Restraining Order (TRO) - Answer- Valid until the hearing takes place (the hearing has to be held within 21 days of issuance) shotgun - Answer- offensive weapon (can be used for less lethal) Five grades of homicide: - Answer- First Degree Murder Second Degree Murder Manslaughter Negligent Homicide Vehicular Homicide vehicular homicide - Answer- causing a death through negligent use of a motor vehicle (driver must be intoxicated) 1st degree murder - Answer- When the offender has specific intent to kill or to inflict great bodily harm and is engaged in the perpetration or attempted perpetration of aggravated kidnapping, second degree kidnapping, aggravated escape, aggravated arson, aggravated or first degree rape, forcible or second degree rape, aggravated burglary, armed robbery, assault by drive-by shooting, first degree robbery, second degree robbery, simple robbery, terrorism, cruelty to juveniles, or second degree cruelty to juveniles. second degree murder - Answer- When the offender has a specific intent to kill or to inflict great bodily harm; or When the offender is engaged in the perpetration or attempted perpetration of aggravated or first degree rape, forcible or second degree rape, aggravated arson, aggravated burglary, aggravated kidnapping, second degree kidnapping, aggravated escape, assault by drive-by shooting, armed robbery, first degree robbery, second degree robbery, simple robbery, cruelty to juveniles, second degree cruelty to juveniles, or terrorism, even though he has no intent to kill or to inflict great bodily harm. schedule I narcotic - Answer- has a high potential for abuse. does not have an accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S.

Schedule II narcotic - Answer- has a high potential for abuse. has an accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S. Schedule III narcotic - Answer- has a lower potential for abuse compared to schedule I and II Schedule IV narcotic - Answer- has a low potential for abuse compared to drugs listed in schedule III. has an accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S. schedule V narcotic - Answer- has a low potential for abuse compared to drugs listed in schedule IV. has an accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S. while enroute to a hazmat call, an officer should? - Answer- notify the FD if on foot and receives sniper fire, an officershould? - Answer- move to cover and concealment 1st amendment - Answer- Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances. 2nd Amendment - Answer- A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed. 4th amendment - Answer- Freedom from unreasonable searches and seizures 5th amendment - Answer- The Right to Remain Silent/Double Jeopardy, right to due process 6th amendment - Answer- The right to a Speedy Trial by jury, representation by an attorney for an accused person 8th amendment - Answer- No cruel or unusual punishment, no excessive bail 14th amendment - Answer- Declares that all persons born in the U.S. are citizens and are guaranteed equal protection of the laws. DUE PROCESS smith and wesson revolver - Answer- rotates counterclockwise colt revolver - Answer- rotates clockwise robbery - Answer- the taking of property from a person's immediate control by using force or threats burlary - Answer- unauthorized entry to a structure with the intent to commit a felony

1st degree robbery - Answer- the taking of anything of value belonging to another from the person of another, or that is in the immediate control of another, by use of force or intimidation, when the offender leads the victim to reasonably believe he is armed with a dangerous weapon. armed robbery - Answer- the taking of anything of value belonging to another from the person of another or that is in the immediate control of another, by use of force or intimidation, while armed with a dangerous weapon simple burglary - Answer- the unauthorized entering of any dwelling, vehicle, watercraft, or other structure, movable or immovable, or any cemetery, with the intent to commit a felony or any theft therein, other than as set forth in R.S. 14:60. aggravated burglary - Answer- the unauthorized entering of any inhabited dwelling, or of any structure, water craft, or movable where a person is present, with the intent to commit a felony or any theft therein, under any of the following circumstances: (1) If the offender is armed with a dangerous weapon. (2) If, after entering, the offender arms himself with a dangerous weapon. (3) If the offender commits a battery upon any person while in such place, or in entering or leaving such place. purse snatching - Answer- the theft of anything of value contained within a purse or wallet at the time of the theft, from the person of another or which is in the immediate control of another, by use of force, intimidation, or by snatching, but not armed with a dangerous weapon. Mapp V Ohio - Answer- Evidence illegally gathered by the police may not be used in a criminal trial Issuing Worthless Checks - Answer- funds must be paid at least 10 days prior to the warrant being issued Tennessee V. Garner - Answer- Deadly force may not be used against an unarmed and fleeing suspect unless necessary to prevent the escape and unless the officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious injury to the officers or others. Arizona V Gant - Answer- Police may only search a vehicle incident to arrest if: The arrestee might access the vehicle @ the time of search, or the vehicle contains evidence of the offense he was arrested for. Miranda v Arizona - Answer- Supreme Court held that criminal suspects must be informed of their right to consult with an attorney and of their right against self- incrimination prior to questioning by police.

Katz V U.S. - Answer- 1967, the government can not tap your phone without a warrant. Carroll v U.S. - Answer- police may stop and search a potentially mobile motor vehicle without a warrant if there is probable cause to believe that the vehicle is carrying individuals or articles that offend the law U.S. V Robinson - Answer- in the case of a lawful custodial arrest a full search of the person is not only an exception to the warrant requirement of the Fourth Amendment, but is also a reasonable search under that Amendment pistol and baton - Answer- defensive weapon what stops bleeding? - Answer- direct pressue LRS 14:69 ( illegal possession of stolen property) - Answer- the intentional possessing, procuring, receiving, or concealing of anything of value which has been the subject of any robbery or theft, under circumstances which indicate that the offender knew or had good reason to believe that the thing was the subject of one of these offenses. corpus - Answer- 11. The _body_____ (material substance) upon which a crime has been committed. foreseeable - Answer- Refers to that which ordinarily would be _anticipated_________ by a human being of average reasonable intelligence and perception Habeas Corpus - Answer-. A writ of Habeas Corpus is an order from the court to the one holding the prisoner to produce him in court so that the _legality ___ of the detention may be decided. kleptomania - Answer- a continual urge to steal regardless of economic motive Mali Fides - Answer- in bad faith mandamus - Answer- A writ which issues out of a superior court, directed to any person, corporation or inferior court, requiring them to do some particular thing mittimus - Answer- A writ, issued from a court, directing an officer to convey the person named therein, to jail or other place of confinement modus operandi - Answer- method of operation by criminals nolle prosequi - Answer- A declaration to a court, by the plaintiff, that he does not wish to further __prosecute_____________ the case rigor mortis - Answer- 11. Temporary __rigidity________ of muscles occurring after death.

recidivist - Answer- A repeater in crime; a _habitual______________ offender stare decisis - Answer- The doctrine that when a court, of the state, has once laid down a principal of law as applicable to certain facts, it will _adhere______________ to the principal and apply it to future cases where the facts are substantially the same. masochism - Answer- gratification derived from being hurt or abused observation - Answer- Information obtained through the senses. perception - Answer- the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events principle of a crime - Answer- a person who commits a crime or who is directly involved in the crime accessory after the fact - Answer- someone who, knowing a crime has been committed, helps conceal the crime or the criminal bail - Answer- the temporary release of an accused person awaiting trial, sometimes on condition that a sum of money be lodged to guarantee their appearance in court. third degree rape - Answer- When the victim is incapable of resisting or of understanding the nature of the act by reason of a stupor or abnormal condition of mind produced by an intoxicating agent or any cause and the offender knew or should have known of the victim's incapacity. (2) When the victim, through unsoundness of mind, is temporarily or permanently incapable of understanding the nature of the act and the offender knew or should have known of the victim's incapacity. (3) When the victim submits under the belief that the person committing the act is someone known to the victim, other than the offender, and such belief is intentionally induced by any artifice, pretense, or concealment practiced by the offender. (4) When the offender acts without the consent of the victim. second degree rape - Answer- When the victim is prevented from resisting the act by force or threats of physical violence under circumstances where the victim reasonably believes that such resistance would not prevent the rape. (2) When the victim is incapable of resisting or of understanding the nature of the act by reason of stupor or abnormal condition of the mind produced by a narcotic or anesthetic agent or other controlled dangerous substance administered by the offender and without the knowledge of the victim. first degree rape - Answer- When the victim resists the act to the utmost, but whose resistance is overcome by force.

(2) When the victim is prevented from resisting the act by threats of great and immediate bodily harm, accompanied by apparent power of execution. (3) When the victim is prevented from resisting the act because the offender is armed with a dangerous weapon. (4) When the victim is under the age of thirteen years. Lack of knowledge of the victim's age shall not be a defense. (5) When two or more offenders participated in the act. (6) When the victim is prevented from resisting the act because the victim suffers from a physical or mental infirmity preventing such resistance. simple arson - Answer- The intentional damaging by any explosive substance or the setting fire to any property of another, without the consent of the owner and except as provided in R.S. 14:51. aggravated arson - Answer- the intentional damaging by any explosive substance or the setting fire to any structure, watercraft, or movable whereby it is foreseeable that human life might be endangered non - formal solicitation of information - Answer- interview slander - Answer- the action or crime of making a false spoken statement damaging to a person's reputation libel - Answer- a published false statement that is damaging to a person's reputation; a written defamation. A-D-A-P-T - Answer- Arrest the perpetrator detain and identify witnesses and suspects assess the crime scene protect the crime scene take good notes assault defined - Answer- an attempt to commit a battery, or the intentional placing of another in reasonable apprehension of receiving a battery. aggravated assault (LRS 14:37) - Answer- an assault committed with a dangerous weapon simple assault (LRS 14:38) - Answer- an assault committed without a dangerous weapon exhibitionism - Answer- compulsive need to expose one's body, particularly the genitals, to an unsuspecting stranger

scope of search warrant - Answer- 1) grounds for issuance -probable cause 2) identification of area or person that may be searched 3) identification of the item to be seized Misdemeanor - Answer- any crime that is not a felony punishable by fine or imprisonment in the county parish jail rather than prison necrophilia - Answer- sexual attraction to corpses arraignment - Answer- bringing defendant to the bar of the court where he can plea best way to handle an excited or violent offender - Answer- use quick action most critical danger - Answer- someones hands circumstantial evidence - Answer- requires the triers of fact to make inference or deductions and leads to the point indirectly. Direct evidence is the best kind of evidence. However, this evidence is the most common. testimonial evidence - Answer- It is presented by means of the spoken word. Normally comes from the witness stand, but may be voice recording and/or video tapes first thing you should do when you recover a weapon - Answer- point it in a safe direction can you dry fire all weapons - Answer- NO things that promote domestic violence - Answer- dominance, intimidation, male privilege, coercion and threats warrant, bench warrant, citation and summons - Answer- all forms of an arrest mens rea - Answer- guilty mind felony carnal knowledge of a juvenile (LRS 14:80) - Answer- A person who is seventeen years of age or older has sexual intercourse, with consent, with a person who is thirteen years of age or older but less than seventeen years of age, when the victim is not the spouse of the offender and when the difference between the age of the victim and the age of the offender is four years or greater; or (2) A person commits a second or subsequent offense of misdemeanor carnal knowledge of a juvenile, or a person who has been convicted one or more times of violating one or more crimes for which the offender is required to register as a sex offender under R.S. 15:542 commits a first offense of misdemeanor carnal knowledge of a juvenile.

misdemeanor carnal knowledge of a juvenile (LRS 14:80.1) - Answer- committed when a person who is seventeen years of age or older has sexual intercourse, with consent, with a person who is thirteen years of age or older but less than seventeen years of age, when the victim is not the spouse of the offender, and when the difference between the age of the victim and age of the offender is greater than two years, but less than four years contributing to the delinquency of a juvenile (LRS 14:92) - Answer- the intentional enticing, aiding, soliciting, or permitting, by anyone over the age of seventeen, of any child under the age of seventeen, and no exception shall be made for a child who may be emancipated by marriage or otherwise, to: (1) Beg, sing, sell any article or play any musical instrument in any public place for the purpose of receiving alms. (2) Associate with any vicious or disreputable persons, or frequent places where the same may be found. (3) Visit any place where beverages of either high or low alcoholic content are the principal commodity sold or given away. (4) Visit any place where any gambling device is found, or where gambling habitually occurs. (5) Habitually trespass where it is recognized he has no right to be. (6) Use any vile, obscene or indecent language. (7) Perform any sexually immoral act. (8) Absent himself or remain away, without authority of his parents or tutor, from his home or place of abode. (9) Violate any law of the state or ordinance of any parish or village, or town or city of the state. (10) Visit any place where sexually indecent and obscene material, of any nature, is offered for sale, displayed or exhibited. (11)(a) Become involved in the commission of a crime of violence as defined in R.S. 14:2(B) which is a felony or a violation of the Uniform Controlled Dangerous Substances Law which is a felony. Duncan V Louisiana - Answer- Right to a jury trial watch system - Answer- the first style of law enforcement in early america 2 types of law enforcement that replaced the watch system - Answer- sheriff and constable sir robert peel - Answer- the father of modern law enforcement new innovations introduced to law enforcement - Answer- PR-21 baton and soft body armor the two major focused efforts of law enforcement - Answer- to combat gun violence and increased concern for the welfare of crime victims

how many parishes or in louisiana - Answer- 64 documentary evidence - Answer- May be written confessions, written statements from a witness, canceled checks, business records, laboratory reports, and other written material. physical (real) evidence - Answer- Can be tangible objects such as fingerprints, weapons, bloodstains, tire/footwear impressions, or tool marks. demonstrative physical evidence - Answer- Representations such as photograph, sketches, diagrams, casts, and even models can be used to represent the actual evidence in court. direct evidence - Answer- leads to the point of the issue without requiring inferences or deductions. drug abuse - Answer- · is the excessive or persistent use of a drug regard to accepted medical practice. drug misuse - Answer- · is the purposes or conditions for which drugs are unsuited. legend drug - Answer- · is any drug or drug product bearing on the label of the manufacturer or distributor, as required by the Federal Food and Drug Administration, the statement "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription". classes of drugs - Answer- stimulant, hallucinogen, depressant, narcotic and anabolic steroid major trends of identity theft - Answer- skimming, phishing, counterfeiting and scams five types of identity theft - Answer- financial, id theft assumption, medical identity fraud, criminal identity theft, synthetic identity theft- combination of elements how many crimes are associated with identity theft - Answer- nine symbolism - Answer- expression of feeling by use of a specific object picquerism - Answer- stabbing or cutting; sexual pleasure from blood shedding the officers primary responsibility to responding to a call in progress - Answer- arriving safely while driving, you should maintain a? - Answer- 20-30 second visual lead 2 types of surfaces fingerprints can be extracted from - Answer- porous and non-porous

exclusionary rule does not apply to - Answer- civil proceedings totality of the circumstances - Answer- as the test that, if a neutral and detached magistrate determines that, based on informants information and all other available facts, there is probable cause to believe that an arrest or search is justified. Illinois V. Gates Spinelli V. United States - Answer- Innocent-seeming activity and data" and a "bald and unilluminating assertion of suspicion" in an affidavit are not to be given weight in a magistrate's determination of probable cause. An officer may use credible hearsay to establish probable cause, but an affidavit based on an informant's tip must satisfy the two-pronged Aguilar test. Louisiana V surtain - Answer- An officer must fear for his safety or believe that a suspect is armed in order to frisk the suspect during an investigatory stop. Dr. Henry Faulds - Answer- a Scottish physician, suggested that fingerprints could be important for the identification of criminals Sir Francis Galton - Answer- an Englishman, established fingerprint patterns and broke those patterns down into __three_______ types and ____eight____ sub-groups still in use today. used fingerprints thousands of years ago to sign important documents - Answer- china weeks V U.S. - Answer- when the Federal government accepted the exclusionary rule